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Pathology Lesson 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of plasm is water?

A

90%

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2
Q

What are six substances dissolved in plasma?

A
  • Nutrients
  • Salts
  • Respiratory gases
  • Hormones
  • Proteins
  • Waste products
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3
Q

Plasma is what percentage of the whole blood volume?

A

approximately 55%

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4
Q

Plasma combines with interstitial fluid to form most of the volume of what?

A

extracellular fluid (ECF)

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5
Q

What contribute an important role in the protein-binding of drugs?

A

Plasma proteins

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6
Q

Where are the majority of plasma proteins synthesized?

A

Liver

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7
Q

Plasma proteins are used to transport __________ and to make _________.

A
  • molecules
  • enzymes
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8
Q

What plasma protein plays a major role in blood clotting?

A

Fibrinogen (and other clotting factors)

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9
Q

What is the most abundant plasma protein?

A

Albumin

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10
Q

What does albumin regulate? What does this maintain?

A
  • Osmotic pressure
  • to maintain appropriate distribution of fluids between compartments
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11
Q

What kind of plasma protein is albumin?

A

Carrier protein

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12
Q

What are globulins? What is their function?

A
  • Antibodies
  • Help protect the body from foreign antigens
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13
Q

Leukocytes are crucial in the body’s what?

A

Defense against disease

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14
Q

True or False:

Leukocytes are incomplete cells lacking a nucleus.

A

False

(Leukocytes are complete cells with a nucleus and organelles)

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15
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

Leukocytes’ ability to move into and out of blood vessels.

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16
Q

Leukocytes move by what kind of motion?

A

Ameboid motion

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17
Q

What can leukocytes respond to? What is this called?

A
  • Chemicals released by damaged tissues
  • Chemotaxis
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18
Q

What are the three main WBCs involved in phagocytosis?

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Monocytes
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19
Q

What is pus?

A

An exudate associated with infected wounds

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20
Q

What is pus a mixture of?

A
  • Dead neutrophils
  • Cellular debris
  • Other waste products
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21
Q

What is pus caused by?

A

Pyogenic bacteria

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22
Q

What is the normal WBC count?

A

4,000 - 11,000 cells/mm blood

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23
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

Abnormally low WBC count

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24
Q

What is leukopenia caused by?

A

May be caused by drugs / disease process

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25
Q

Leukopenia predisposes a patient to what?

A

infections

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26
Q

What is leukocytosis and what does it often indicate?

A
  • WBC above 11,000
  • bacterial infection
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27
Q

What is neutrophilia?

A

Abnormally high number of neutrophils

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28
Q

What is released into the blood when demand for neutrophils is greater than the supply?

A

Bands (immature neutrophils)

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29
Q

What is a very high neutrophil count also known as?

A

Left shift

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30
Q

What is whole blood?

A

All formed elements and plasma.

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31
Q

What may be done to blood for clinical purposes?

A

May be separated or fractioned

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32
Q

What is the total blood volume in adult males?

A

5-6 liters

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33
Q

What is the total blood volume in adult females?

A

4-5 liters

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34
Q

What are the two physical characteristics of blood?

A
  • Color range
  • pH
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35
Q

What color is oxygen-rich blood?

A

Scarlet red

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36
Q

What color is oxygen-poor blood?

A

Dull red

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37
Q

What must the pH of blood remain between?

A

7.35 - 7.45

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38
Q

What is a buffer?

A

Any substance reversibly binding hydrogen ions

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39
Q

What are three kinds of buffer?

A
  • Chemical
  • Respiratory
  • Renal
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40
Q

What are three kinds of chemical buffers?

A
  • Bicarbonate H2CO3
  • Phosphate
  • Proteins
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41
Q

What are five functions of the blood?

A
  • Delivers O2, nutrients, and hormones
  • Removes metabolic wastes
  • Aids in:
    • Body temp regulation
    • Body fluid pH
    • Fluid volume in fluid compartmets
  • Clotting mechanisms
  • Immune system functions
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42
Q

Blood carries O2 from what to what?

A

lungs –> tissues

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43
Q

Blood carries CO2 from what to what?

A

tissues –> lungs

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44
Q

Where does blood carry hormones to?

A

Target tissues

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45
Q

Blood carries metabolic wastes from what to what?

A

cells –> excretion sites

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46
Q

What are two ways that blood distributes nutrients?

A
  • Absorbed through digestive tract
  • Released from storage in adipose tissue or liver
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47
Q

What are two ways that blood distributes hormones?

A
  • Steroid / Thyroid bound to plasma proteins
  • Polypeptides / proteins dissolved
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48
Q

How does the blood stabilize body temperature?

A

Blood absorbs heat generated by active skeletal muscles

↓↓

Redistributes it to other tissues

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49
Q

Why is blood flow directed to skin surface?

A

Promote heat loss

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50
Q

When is blood flow restricted to brain and temperature-sensitive organs?

A

When we need to conserve heat

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51
Q

What is another name for red blood cells?

A

Erythrocytes

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52
Q

What is the main function of RBCs?

A

Carry oxygen

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53
Q

What are four properties of the anatomy of circulating erythrocytes?

A
  • Bioconcave disks
  • Essentially bags of hemoglobin
  • Anucleate (no nucleus)
  • Contain very few organelles
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54
Q

For every white blood cell, how many red blood cells are there?

A

1,000

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55
Q

How long do red blood cells live for?

A

120 days

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56
Q

What are two function effects of a red blood cell’s bioconcave disk?

A
  • Large surface area to volume ratio
  • Enables bending and flexing to squeeze through narrow capillaries
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57
Q

What is the function of the large surface area to volume ratio of red blood cells?

A

Increases rate of diffusion between plasma and cytoplasm.

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58
Q

True of False:

Erythrocytes do not undergo cell division.

A

True

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59
Q

Erythrocytes do not synthesize what two things?

A

Proteins or enzymes

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60
Q

Why can’t RBC’s provide their own energy?

What do they rely on for their energy?

A
  • no mitochondria –> no Kreb’s cycle –> no ATP
  • rely on glucose obtained from surrounding plasma
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61
Q

How long does it take a RBC to do one round-trip through the circulatory system?

A

Less than 1 minute

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62
Q

True or False:

A RBC’s ride through the circulatory system is easy-going.

A

False

(It is exposed to severe physical stress)

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63
Q

Why do RBCs have a short life-span? What is that life-span?

A
  • No repair mechanism
  • Around 120 days
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64
Q

What percentage of RBCs are replaced each day?

A

1%

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65
Q

How many new RBCs enter the system per second?

A

3 million

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66
Q

What are four physical stressors on RBCs?

A
  • Forced through vessels
  • Bounce off vessel walls
  • Collide with other RBCs
  • Squeezed through tiny capillaries
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67
Q

Fill in the blanks:

1) Hemocytoblast

↓

2)_____________

↓

3)_____________

↓

4)_____________

↓

5)_____________

↓

6)_____________

↓

7) Erythrocyte

A

1) Hemocytoblast

↓

2) Proerythroblast

↓

3) Early Erythroblast

↓

4) Late Erythroblast

↓

5) Normoblast

↓

6) Reticulocyte

↓

7) Erythrocyte

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68
Q

What are reticulocytes?

A

Immature erythrocytes

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69
Q

Where do reticulocytes develop / mature?

A

in the blood

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70
Q

How long does a reticulocyte circulate before maturing into a RBC?

A

around one day

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71
Q

Reticulocytes typically account for what percentage of total of red blood cells?

A

1%

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72
Q

What makes a reticulocyte different from a RBC?

A

Hasn’t developed into bioconcave disc morphology

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73
Q

What is the primary site of hematopoieses?

A

Red bone marrow

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74
Q

Where is red bone marrow found in infants?

A

Most bones

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75
Q

Where is red bone marrow found in adults?

A
  • Vertebrae
  • Ribs
  • Sternum
  • Skull
  • Sacrum
  • Pelvis

*Also in spongy bone at ends of long bones

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76
Q

What kind of bone marrow do we have at birth?

A

Red bone marrow

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77
Q

As we age, what happens to our red bone marrow?

A

Much is converted to yellow marrow

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78
Q

What is yellow bone marrow?

A

Fatty substance found in hollow cavity of long bones.

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79
Q

Yellow marrow can be converted to red marrow when what happens?

A

Extreme blood loss

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80
Q

How many hemoglobin molecules are found on one erythrocyte?

A

250 million

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81
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

Iron-containing protein

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82
Q

How does hemoglobin bind to oxygen?

A

Strongly, but reversibly

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83
Q

Each hemoglobin molecule has how many oxygen binding sites?

A

4

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84
Q

Hemoglobin makes up what percentage of intracellular proteins?

A

About 97%

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85
Q

What is the function of hemoglobin?

A

Binds to / carries respiratory gasses

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86
Q

What is hemoglobin formed from?

A

2 pairs of globular proteins:

ɑ and β

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87
Q

What does each subunit of hemoglobin contain?

A

A single heme molecule

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88
Q

What happens to RBCs before hemolysis can occur?

A

Phagocytes

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89
Q

Where are three places that phagocytosis occurs?

A
  • Liver
  • Spleen
  • Bone marrow
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90
Q

What happens to hemoglobin following phagocytosis?

A

It’s recycled

91
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, what is loose heme converted to? What color is it?

A
  • Biliverden
  • green
92
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, what is biliverdin converted to? What color is it?

A
  • Bilirubin (waste byproduct)
  • orange-yellow pigment
93
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, when bilirubin is released into circulation, what is it absorbed by?

A

Hepatocytes

94
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, how is bilirubin excreted?

A

Via feces (most) and urine (some)

95
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, what is disassembled into component amino acids via metabolism?

96
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, what happens to globin after it is disassembled?

A

Released back into circulation for reuse by other cells

97
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, where is iron from the heme molecule stored? When is it released into the bloodstream?

A
  • stored in macrophage
  • when needed
98
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, when iron is released back into the bloodstream, what does it bind to?

A

Transferrin (special plasma protein)

99
Q

In hemoglobin recycling, what is used in synthesis of new hemoglobin molecules for production of new RBCs?

A

Amino acids (from globin) and transferrin (bound to iron)

100
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

Membrane enclosed packets of cytoplasm

101
Q

What are thrombocytes derived from?

A

Megakaryocytes

102
Q

What do thrombocytes contain?

A

Enzymes and clotting factors

103
Q

How long do thrombocytes circulate?

104
Q

What are thrombocytes removed by?

A

Phagocytes

105
Q

When are thrombocytes replaced?

A

Continuously

106
Q

What do thrombocytes play a big role in?

A

Vascular clotting system

107
Q

What is the normal thrombocyte count?

(Important!!)

A

150 - 500,000 / ɥl blood

108
Q

Fill in the blanks:

1) Hemocytoblast

↓

2) ______________

↓

3) ______________

↓

4) ______________

↓

5) Platelets

A

1) Hemocytoblast

↓

2) Megakaryoblast

↓

3) Promegakaryocyte

↓

4) Megakaryocyte

↓

**5) **Platelets

109
Q

What is thrombocytosis and what is it due to?

A
  • Platelet count exceeds 1,000,000
  • Due to accelerated platelet formations
110
Q

What three things cause thrombocytosis?

A
  • Infection
  • Inflammation
  • Malignancy
111
Q

How many thrombocytes categorize thrombocytopenia? What is it due to?

A
  • Less than 80,000 count
  • Inadequate platelet production

(or)

Excessive platelet destruction

112
Q

What are five signs / symptoms of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Bleeding gums
  • Nosebleeds
  • Easy bruising
  • Petechiae
  • Hematuria / hematochezia
113
Q

What is idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?

A
  • Isolated thrombocytopenia
  • It is an autoimmune disease when IgG binds to platelets

↓↓

Platelets destroyed in spleen by macrophages

114
Q

True or false:

With ITP, there is systemic illness.

115
Q

True or false:

With ITP, the spleen is not palpable.

116
Q

What are three characteristics of the acute form of ITP?

A
  • Usually in childhood
  • Follows viral infection
  • Self-limiting
117
Q

What are six signs / symptoms of ITP?

A
  • Purpura
  • Petechia
  • Hemorrhagic bullae in mouth
  • Low platelet count: may be < 10,000
  • Other RBC indices normal (unless mild anemia from bleeding)
  • Megathrombocytes (large immature platelets) on peripheral smear
118
Q

What are three characteristics of chronic ITP?

A
  • Occurs in younger adults
  • Unkown etiology
  • 2:1 femal predominance
119
Q

What are three treatments for chronic ITP?

A
  • Prednisone
  • Hi-dose IV immunoglobulin (IgG)
  • Slenectomy
120
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

Overproduction of red blood cells

121
Q

What are the two types of polycythemia?

A

Relative and Absolute

122
Q

What does relative polycythemia result from?

A

Dehydration

↓↓

Fluid loss leads to relative increases of RBC counts and Hgb and Hct values

123
Q

What are two forms of absolute polycythemia?

A

Primary absolute and secondary absolute

124
Q

What is primary absolute polycythemia?

A

Abnormal excess of erythrocytes - neoplastic, nonmalignant bone marrow stem cell proliferations

125
Q

What is primary absolute polycythemia also known as?

A

Polycythemia vera (PV)

126
Q

What is secondary absolute polycythemia?

A
  • increase in erythropoietin production as physiologic response to chronic hypoxia
  • increase in erythropoietin production in response to erythropoietin-secreting tumors
127
Q

In polycythemia vera, what is the hematocrit?

A

As high as 80%

128
Q

In polycythemia vera, what happens to blood volume and how does this affect the blood’s viscosity??

A
  • may double
  • increased
129
Q

When is the peak incidence with polycythemia vera?

130
Q

What are seven common signs / symptoms of polycythemia vera?

A
  • Headaches
  • Weakness
  • Vertigo
  • Tinnitus
  • Pruritis
  • Splenomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
131
Q

What are two uncommon signs / symptoms of polycythemia vera?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Thrombosis
132
Q

What are four PV treatments?

A
  • Phlebotomy
  • Hydroxyurea
  • Interferon
  • Radiation
133
Q

What are the four steps in hemostasis and tissue repair?

A
  • Vasoconstriction
  • Platelet plug formation
  • Coagulation
  • Clot retraction and dissolution
134
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

Restriction of fluid losses at injury sites

135
Q

What does blood contain that responds to breaks in vessel walls? What does this initiate?

A
  • enzymes and factors
  • clotting process
136
Q

True or false:

Clots act as permament patches to stop blood loss.

A

False

(Clot acts as a temporary patch to prevent further blood loss)

137
Q

What kind of feedback is platelet activation - positive or negative?

138
Q

What are the three stages of coagulation?

A
  1. Coagulation cascade
  2. Prothrombin –> Thombin
  3. Fibrinogen –> Fibrin
139
Q

What is a one word definition for coagulopathy?

140
Q

What two things do platelets contain?

A

Actin and myosin

141
Q

What three things does PDGH (Platelet-driven growth factor) stimulate?

A
  • Smooth muscle
  • Endothelial cells
  • Fibroblasts
142
Q

What does heparin do?

A

Inactivates thrombin

143
Q

What does aspirin do?

A

Prevents platelet aggregation

144
Q

What does Wafarin (Coumadin) do?

A

Inhibits enzymes (Vitamin K)

145
Q

What is dabigatran (Pradaxa)?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

146
Q

What is multiple myeloma? What are three characteristics?

A

B Cell cancer

  • One clonal line - usually IgG
  • Bence-Jones protein in urine
  • Lytic bone lesions
147
Q

True or false:

Anemia is a disease.

A

False

(It is not a disease)

148
Q

What is the definition of anemia?

A

Decrease in Hgb / Hct level from an individual’s baseline value.

149
Q

Why does anemia develop?

A
  • Underproduction (hypoproliferative marrow)
  • Increased destruction (less than normal 120 day life span)
  • Blood loss
  • Combination of underproduction and shortened life span
150
Q

What are six symptoms and signs?

A
  • Pallor - often notcied by friends or relatives
  • Weakness / Fatigue
  • Shortness of breath (SOB) or Dyspnea on Exertion (DOE)
  • Dizziness / Lightheadedness
  • Tinnitus or pounding / wooshing in ears
  • Asymptomatic - often seen when anemia develops slowly or is chronic and stable
151
Q

What are six presenting signs of anemia?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnea
  • Jaundicae (hemolysis)
  • Peripheral Neuropathy (pernicious anemia)
  • Splenomegaly
  • Pallor of nail beds and conjunctiva
152
Q

What do veggies give us that is important for preventing anemia?

A

Folic acid

153
Q

What do meats give us that is important for preventing anemia?

154
Q

What disease can cause low B12?

A

Crohn’s Disease

155
Q

What disease can cause Fe deficiency?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

156
Q

What are five important historical questions conerning anemia?

A
  • Change in bowel habits
  • Dietary habits
  • Abdominal disease or Bowel surgery
  • Medications
  • Renal disease
157
Q

What two changes in bowel habit are important to detecting anemia?

A
  • melena
  • hematochezia
158
Q

What are the three most import parts of the summary of work up for anemias?

A
  • RBC Indices
  • Retic
  • P-Smear
159
Q

What may a change in Hgb reflect what two things?

A
  • Altered plasma volume
  • Underlying physiologic conditions with different oxygen needs
160
Q

What are four examples of when Hgb may reflect altered plasma volume?

A
  • pregnancy
  • massive splenomegaly
  • Burn pt
  • Dehydrated pt
161
Q

What are three examples of when Hgb count may reflect underlying physiologic conditions with different oxygen needs?

A
  • Emphysematous pt
  • L-R cardiac shunt
  • Hypothryoidism
162
Q

What is key in practical classification of anemia?

A

Reticulocyte count

163
Q

What constitues an anemia as microcytic?

A

MCV level <80 fl

164
Q

What constitutes an anemia as macrocytic?

A

MCV >100 fl

165
Q

What are two major microcytic anemias?

A
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Thalassemia
166
Q

What are six other microcytic anemias other than iron deficiency or Thalassemia?

A
  • X-linked sideroblastic anemia
  • Lead poisoning
  • Anemia of chronic disease-RA
  • Hodgkin lymphoma
  • Castleman disease
  • Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
167
Q

What is the total amount of iron in a healthy person?

How much circulates as Hgb and how much is stored?

A
  • 3-4g
  • 2/3 circulates and 1/3 is stored
168
Q

What is the daily requirement of iron for a man / postmenopausal woman?

Menstruating woman?

Pregnant / lactating woman?

A
  • 1 mg/d
  • 2 mg/d
  • 3 mg/d
169
Q

How much iron do we take in a day and how much is actually absorbed?

A
  • 10-20 mg daily
  • only 5-10%
170
Q

How much is iron absorption increased in iron deficiency?

171
Q

What is the most sensitive test for iron deficiency?

A

Ferriting (20-200 ug/dl)

172
Q

What are four circumstances in which there is an increase in Ferritin despite iron deficiency?

A
  • as part of acute phase reaction
  • infection / inflammation
  • malignancy
  • hepatic inflammation / necrosis
173
Q

What are four tests for iron deficiency?

A
  • MCV
  • Serum iron
  • Serum TIBC
  • Ferritin
174
Q

How long must you treat iron deficiency to replenish Fe stores?

A

At least 6 months beyond Hgb level returns to normal

175
Q

What are six reasons for refractory of iron therapy?

A
  • Non-compliance
  • Absorption inhibition (Food, tea, antacid, drug)
  • Absorption impaired (Gastric surgery, small bowl mucosa disease)
  • Wrong therapy (enteric coated pills, spansules)
  • Ongoing blood loss
  • Wrong diagnosis
176
Q

What constitutes an anemia as normocytic?

A

MCV 80-100 fl

177
Q

What is a normocytic anemia?

A

Stem cell defect / decreased erthryopoieses

178
Q

What are four intrinsic causes of normocytic anemias?

A
  • Aplastic anemia
  • PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)
  • Fanconi’s
  • MDS (myelodysplastic syndromes)
179
Q

What is Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Hb S - from genetic mutation

180
Q

What does Hb S react with to cause sickling?

A

Deoxygenations

181
Q

What kind of anemia is sickle cell anemia?

182
Q

What kind of crisis can be caused by sickle cell anemia?

A

Vasoocclusive crisis

183
Q

Is there a cure for sickle cell anemia?

184
Q

Sickle cell anemia is the most common cause of hemolytic anemia in who?

A

African Americans worldwide

185
Q

What percentage of blacks carry sickly cell anemia trait?

What is this trait considered?

A
  • 4%
  • Autosomal recessive
186
Q

What state is sickle cell disease? What state is only the trait?

A
  • Homozygotic
  • Heterozygotic
187
Q

People with sickle cell anemia have very high counts of what? What happens if they don’t?

A
  • Retic counts
  • If not, then marrow is dysfunctional which can lead to aplastic crisis
188
Q

True or false:

Patients with sickle cell anemia have a shorter than normal lifespan.

A

False

(They have normal lifespans)

189
Q

People with sickle cell anemia can have painless what?

190
Q

What should you absolutely not give to sickle cell anemia patients?

191
Q

A non-function spleen in sickle cell anemia patients lead to a high incidence of what?

A

Pneumococcal and salmonella infections

192
Q

When should you consider hospitilization of patients with sickle cell anemia?

A
  • Severe long episode of pain
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypoxia
  • Low hemoglobin or hematocrit
  • Increased WBC count
  • Temp > 101
  • Hypotension
  • New infiltrates on CXR
193
Q

What is leukemia?

A
  • Cancer of white blood cells
  • malignant disorder of blood and bone marrow
194
Q

Leukemia is named according to what? What are these two types?

A
  • Cell type
  • Myelocytic, Lymphocytic
195
Q

True or false:

Leukemia can be either acute or chronic.

196
Q

In leukemia, what is there an excessive accumulation of?

A

Abnormal white blood cells

197
Q

What is acute leukemia?

A

Presence of undifferentiated or immature cells

198
Q

Who is acute leukemia often found in?

A

Children and young adults

199
Q

What is the progression of acute leukemia?

A

Rapid progression / morbidity / mortality

200
Q

What is chronic leukemia?

A

Predominant cell is mature but does not function normally

201
Q

What is the progression of chronic leukemia?

A

Progression over months to years - may only require monitoring

202
Q

Who is chronic leukemia often found in?

A

Typically older adults

203
Q

There are many signs and symptoms of leukemia. Name at least seven of them.

A
  • Anemia
  • Bleeding
  • Purpura
  • Petechia
  • Ecchymosis
  • Hemorrhage
  • Thrombosis
  • Infection
  • Weight loss
  • Bone pain
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Splenomegaly
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
204
Q

What is the percentage of water in infants?

A

73% or more

205
Q

True or false:

Total water content of humans increases throughout life.

A

False

(Declines throughout life)

206
Q

Healthy males are what percentage of water? Females?

207
Q

What is the difference between females and males in terms of body fat and skeletal muscle?

A

Females have higher body fat and smaller amount of skeletal muscle than males.

208
Q

In old age, what is the percentage of body weight?

209
Q

Intracellular fluid takes up what amount of water contained in cells?

210
Q

What are the two major subdivisions of extracellular fluid?

A

Plasma and interstitial fluid

211
Q

Besides water, what are six other ECFs?

A
  • Lymph
  • CSF
  • Eye humors
  • Synovial fluid
  • Serous fluid
  • GI secretions
212
Q

What is the universal solvent?

213
Q

Solutes are broadly classified into what to categories?

A

Electrolytes and nonelectrolytes

214
Q

What are some electrolytes?

A
  • Inorganic salts
  • All acids and bases
  • Some proteins
215
Q

What are examples of nonelectrolytes?

A
  • Glucose
  • Lipids
  • Creatinine
  • Urea
216
Q

Which has greater osmotic power, electrolytes or nonelectrolytes?

A

Electrolytes

217
Q

What moves according to osmotic gradients?

218
Q

In terms of water, what must happen to remain properly hydrated?

A

Water intake must equal water output

219
Q

What is the breakdown of water output?

A
  • Urine - 60%
  • Feces - 4%
  • Insensible losses - 28%
  • Sweat - 8%
220
Q

Increases in plasma osmolality trigger thirst and release of what hormone?

A

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

221
Q

What three things is the hyopthalamic thirst center stimulated by?

A
  • A decline in plasma volume of 10-15%
  • Increases in plasma osmolarity of 1-2%
  • Via baroreceptor input, angiotensin II, and other stimuli
222
Q

What are baroreceptors?

A

Alert the brain of increasses in blood volume (hence increased blood pressure)

223
Q

What four things happen when baroreceptors alert the brain of increases in blood volume?

A
  • Sympathetic nervous system impulses to the kidneys decline
  • Afferent arterioles dilate
  • Glomerular filtration rate rises
  • Sodium and water output increase
224
Q

What can baroreceptors also be viewed as?

A

Sodium receptors

Pathology (10 decks)

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