Pathology-Female Repro Lecture Flashcards
Low risk HPV
6 & 11. These cause condylomas and warts
High risk HPV
16 (60% of carcinomas) & 18 (10% of carcinomas). 100% of HSIL are associated with these and 80% of LSIL are associated with these.
Risk factors for cervical cancer (5)
Multiple sex partners, immunosuppression, HLA, OCP and smoking
What is the natural course of 90% of HPV infections?
90% are eliminated by the immune response within 2 years. The 10% whose infection does not resolve it takes ~10 years to become malignant.
Why does HPV has such a predilection for causing cervical cancer at the zone of transition?
It infects immature mataplastic epithelium at the squamocolumnar junction.
How does HPV induce koilocytic atypia in maturing squamous cells?
Interference with tumor suppressor genes Rb and p53.
How do you stage cervical cancer?
Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) and high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)
What is the progression of HPV infection to cervical cancer?
Note that 60% of LSIL regress in 2 years, 30% persist and 10% progress to HSIL. Note that 30% of HSIL regress, 60% persist and 10% progress to carcinoma.
What would you expect to see on pap smear of the transformation zone biopsy shown below?
The biopsy shows a normal squamo-columnar junction so you would expect to see normal squamous and glandular cells.
What would you expect to see on pap smear of the transformation zone biopsy shown below?
The biopsy shows HSIL and you would expect to see abnormal squamous cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and glandular cells with a high N:C ratio.
What would you expect to see on biopsy of low grade SIL?
Koilocytosis and nuclear atypia.
What is the most common vulvar malignancy?
Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma. Note the nests of squamous cells invading the surrounding stroma.
Demographic population that typically gets vulvar squamous cell carcinoma?
2/3 in women > 60 years old. 70% associated with lichen sclerosis and squamous hyperplasia. 30% are HPV-associated.
What is the pathophysiology behind lichen sclerosis?
As you approach menopause estrogen levels drop and vulvar squamous epithelium begins to thin due to degeneration of collagen and dense inflammatory infiltrate follows and changes start with vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) and islands of keratinizing well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma.
How does the prognosis of vulvar squamous cell carcinoma differ between etiologies of lichen sclerosis/squamous hyperplasia and HPV?
Lichen sclerosis/squamous hyperplasia has a worse prognosis.
What are patients likely to have if they present with crusting and eczema on the nipple and a biopsy that shows Paget disease of the nipple? What if they only had extramammary Paget disease on the vulva?
Nippe = underlying breast carcinoma. Vulvar = no underlying cancer.
A 60 year old woman presents with pruritic, red, crusty areas on the labia majora. Biopsy show large anaplastic cells with halos in the epidermis. What is your diagnosis?
Vulvar Paget disease.
What will you often find at the same time you find vaginal squamous cell carcinoma?
Vaginal Intraepithelial Neoplasia (VAIN). HPV dysplasia progresses to VAIN then to SCC.
What disease is associated with DES exposure?
Vaginal adenosis and clear cell adenocarcinomas. Exposure to DES during pregnancy yields girl babies with glandular columnar epithelium below the squamous epithelium in the upper 1/3 of the vaginal wall.
A 5 year old girl presents with translucent grape-like clusters protruding from the vagina. You treat her with surgery and chemotherapy. What is her diagnosis?
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma (i.e. sarcoma botryoides)
A patient presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, pelvic pain and an enlarged uterus. Uterine biopsy is shown below. What is your diagnosis?
Adenomyosis. This is infiltration of benign endometrial glands and stroma deep into the myometrium.
A 24 year old woman presents with infertility, dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain and dyspareunia. Laparoscopic evaluation shows endometrial glands and stroma in the ovaries and uterine ligaments. What are 3 possible etiologies of this condition?
Endometrial glands and stroma outside the endometrial cavity = endometriosis. The three theories are 1) Regurgitation of retrograde menstruation through fallopian tubes into the peritoneal cavity 2) Metaplasia from coelomic epithelium 3) Vascular/lymphatic dissemination (explains endometriosis in the lung).
Why does endometriosis cause pain?
Inflammatory reaction. The glands and stroma actually cycle like the normal endometrium. When they do this it causes an intense inflammatory reaction and pain.
A 45 year old woman presents with abnormal uterine bleeding. Her biopsy is shown below. What is causing her condition? How can it be treated?
Note the large endometrial glands with little stroma. This is typical of endometrial hyperplasia. This typically occurs due to high levels of estrogen, decreased progestins and hyperplasia of the endometrial glands. This can be treated with supplementary progestins or D&C.
A patient is diagnosed with atypical endometrial hyperplasia. How is she likely treated?
This type of endometrial hyperplasia has atypical nuclei and has a higher risk for causing endometrial cancer. These patients have a hysterectomy because they likely have underlying endometrial cancer.
Endometrial hyperplasia with cystic architectural alterations in glands but no cytologic atypia. What is the risk of progressing to CA? What if there was cytologic atypia?
Simple hyperplasia. W/o atypia there is a 1% risk of CA. W/atypia risk is 8%.