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Part 1 Board Review > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Type of calcification where calcium infiltrates into normal tissue, e.g. hypervitaminosis D

A

Metastatic calcification

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2
Q

Type of calcification where calcium infiltrates into abnormal/damaged tissue, e.g. atherosclerosis or atheroma; damage to tunica intima

A

Dystrophic calcification

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3
Q

Caseous degeneration is seen with what disease?

A

Tuberculosis

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4
Q

“Cloudy swelling” is assoc. w/ what pathology?

A

Albuminous. Membrane injured which effects ionic transfer

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5
Q

“Coagulation”-type of degeneration is assoc. w/ what type of pathology?

A

Infarction (MI)

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6
Q

“Enzymatic”-type of degeneration is assoc. w/ what organ pathology?

A

Pancreas

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7
Q

Fatty degeneration in the liver is AKA?

A

Nutmeg liver

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8
Q

Fatty degeneration in the heart is AKA?

A

Tabby cat heart

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9
Q

What is the progression of fatty degeneration in the heart?

A

fatty dot –> Fatty streak –> Atheroma (fatty plaque) –> fibroatheroma (Fibrous tissue, calcium)

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10
Q

“Liquefaction” degeneration is assoc. w/ which system/organ?

A

CNS (Brain melts, tertiary syphilis, leprosy)

Skin (Infection)

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11
Q

Wallerian degeneration is assoc. w/ what organ?

A

Peripheral nerves. Degenerates to the next Node of Ranvier.

“Dying back phenomenon”

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12
Q

Zenker’s (Waxy) degeneration is assoc. with what?

A

Hyaline. M/C in skeletal muscle

Muscle replaced w/ hyaline

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13
Q

What does Karyolysis mean?

A

Nuclear rupture

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14
Q

What does Karyorrhexis mean?

A

Nuclear swelling

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15
Q

What does pyknosis mean?

A

Nuclear Condensation

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16
Q

Absence of an organ (usually a paired organ)

A

Agenesis

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17
Q

Small remnants of an organ present (lack of development)

A

Aplasia

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18
Q

Organ smaller than normal & defective

A

hypoplasia

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19
Q

Decrease in size, typically from disuse. Seen most commonly in muscle

A

Atrophy

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20
Q

Increase in size

A

Hypertrophy

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21
Q

Increase in number of cells (e.g. pregnant uterus, goiter)

A

Hyperplasia

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22
Q

Changes from one cell type to another e.g pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium changing into stratified squamous in lungs of a smoker

A

Metaplasia

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23
Q

Change in size, shape, or function of a cell. Precancerous, but last stage that can reverse to normal

A

Dysplasia

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24
Q

Complete disorganization of a cell (cancer) e.g. squamous cell carcinoma

A

Anaplasia

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25
Q

Type I collagen is found where?

A

Bone
Muscle
Tendons
Ligaments

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26
Q

Type II collagen is found where?

A

Disc (specifically nucleus pulposis)

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27
Q

Type III collagen (“reticular collagen”) is found where?

A

Spleen
Lymph nodes
Seen in early wound healing

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28
Q

Type IV collagen is found where?

A

Basement membrane

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29
Q

Pneumoconoisis that is caused by silica from sand, rock, or glass. AKA “Rocky Quarry disease”

A

Silicosis

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30
Q

Pneumoconoisis that leads to mesothelioma (Malignant tumor)

A

Asbestosis

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31
Q

Pneumoconoisis caused by an endemic fungus around the Mississippi or Ohio Valleys. AKA “Ohio Valley Fever” or “Mississippi Valley Fever”

A

Histomycosis/Histoplasmosis

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32
Q

Pneumoconoisis caused by endemic fungus in deserts of Southwest. AKA “San Joaquin Valley fever” or just “Valley Fever”

A

Coccidiomycosis

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33
Q

Pneumoconoisis caused by endemic fungus on Eastern seaboard

A

Blastomycosis

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34
Q

Sputum analysis that yields “Curschmann’s Spirals” or Charcot Leyden crystals” is assoc. w/ what pathology?

A

Asthma

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35
Q

This affects chloride channels. Affects GI & respiratory mucus linings & exocrine secretions.

A

Cystic fibrosis

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36
Q

What is usually the first sign of cystic fibrosis?

A

“Sweat Test” Mother notices salty taste on baby. “Salty baby syndrome”

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37
Q

A person w/ cystic fibrosis is susceptible to what organism?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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38
Q

Iron in lungs due to bleeding is known as what?

A

Hemosiderosis

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39
Q

What pathology is honeycomb lung assoc. w/?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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40
Q

Caseous necrosis in lung.
Gohn complex/lesions
Granulomas
Epithelioid Histiocytes

A

Tuberculosis

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41
Q

Tuberculosis is known as what when it spreads to the spine?

A

Pott’s disease

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42
Q

What is a vertebra called that collapses from TB?

A

Gibbus deformity

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43
Q

This is vasculitis of the lung & kidney

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

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44
Q

This is caused by an alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

Emphysema

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45
Q

This is decreased tubular excretion of nitrogen which increases nitrogen in the blood

A

Azotemia

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46
Q

This is M/C caused by prostate problems or ureter stones

A

Hydronephrosis

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47
Q

This is AKA nephrolithiasis. Pain starts in back & radiates to the flanks

A

Kidney stones

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48
Q

What is the M/C compound in kidney stones?

A

calcium oxalates

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49
Q

Once a kidney stone has entered the ureter, where does the pain localize?

A

In the groin

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50
Q

RBCs & small amounts of protein in the urine (e.g. acute glomerulonephritis) are assoc. w/ this syndrome

A

Nephritic syndrome

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51
Q

This syndrome is AKA Pre-ecclampsia or HEP (HTN, Edema, Proteinurea (massive))

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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52
Q

HEP (HTN, edema, proteinurea) combined w/ convulsions & coma is known as what?

A

Ecclampsia

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53
Q

What is the appearance of a polycystic kidney?

A

Moth eaten

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54
Q

Acute tubular necrosis can cause what?

A

Shock

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55
Q

This is AKA nephroblastoma. Mixed tumor of kidney in children (malignant)

A

Wilm’s (disease/tumor (?))

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56
Q

This is caused by decreased cortisol levels. Symptoms included hypoadrenia, low blood pressure, hyperpigmentation d/t excess ACTH which increases melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH), fatigue

A

Addison’s

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57
Q

Caused by excess aldosterone (Zona Glomerulosa). Symptoms include HTN & water retention

A

Conn’s

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58
Q

Caused by excess cortisol (Zona Fasciculata). Symptoms include hyperadrenia, moon faces, buffalo hump, purple striae, central obesity

A

Cushing’s

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59
Q

Hyperplasia of thyroid cells due to lack of iodine

A

Goiter

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60
Q

Hyperthyroidism that causes exophthalmoses (bulging eyes), heat intolerance, weight loss, rapid heart rate, hair loss

A

Graves Disease

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61
Q

Autoimmune disease that causes hyperthyroidism

A

Hashimotos

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62
Q

This causes hypothyroidism. Manifests as cretinism in the child. Symptoms include cold intolerance, weight gain, slower HR, loss of lat. 1/3 of eyebrows, slow mental faculties (memory, common sense)

A

Myxedema

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63
Q

This type of cancer is assoc. w/ HPV 16 virus

A

Cervical cancer

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64
Q

This can sometimes cause testicular cancer

A

Cryptochism

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65
Q

Where is the M/C site for endometriosis to occur?

A

Ovary

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66
Q

This is when the urethra exits on the dorsal surface of the penis

A

Epispadias

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67
Q

This is when the urethra opens on the ventral surface of the penis

A

Hypospadias

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68
Q

What are two indications of increased HcG levels?

A 
Pregnancy 
Hydatidiform mole (non-viable embryo that has implanted)
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69
Q

This is a tumor of smooth muscle such as fibroids in the uterus

A

Leiomyoma

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70
Q

This disease causes anovulation, obesity, & hirsutism (excess hair on body & face)

A

Polycystic ovary disease

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71
Q

This is a cancer of the testes. M/C cause of testicular cancer, mesnechymal/stem cells

A

Seminoma

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72
Q

What are the 5 stages of congenital syphilis?

A
  1. Hutchinson’s teeth - notched permanent upper incisors
  2. Rhagades - Fissures or crack at edge of mouth
  3. Saddle nose deformity - bridge of nose flattened
  4. Sabre blade tibia
  5. Interstitial keratitis - produces visual changes
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73
Q

What are the 3 stages of acquired syphilis?

A

Primary - Hard, singular, painless, nodule (chancre) on perineum
Secondary - Maculopapular rash & condylomata lata (flat warts on vulva)
Tertiary - Tabes dorsalis, aortic aneurysm, gummas inclusion body in CNS

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74
Q

What is the pupil sign assoc. w/ syphilis?

A

Argyll Robertson pupil AKA Prostitute’s Pupil - doesn’t react to light, but constricts on accommodation

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75
Q

Tonic pupil dilation (Mydriasis) due to injury to CN III Edinger Westphal nucleus is called what?

A

Adie’s pupil

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76
Q

Tonic pupil constriction due to injury to sympathetic cervical ganglia is called what?

A

Miosis

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77
Q

What organism causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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78
Q

Haemophilus ducreyi (gram - coccobacillus) causes what kind of lesion?

A

Soft, painful, Chancroid

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79
Q

This venereal disease is similar to Trichimonas, except bacterial

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

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80
Q

This venereal disease causes burning urination, pus in urine, may produce arthritis (M/C in knee). “Coffee bean shaped” organism on microscopy

A

Gonorrhea (gram - diplococcus)

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81
Q

This venereal disease produces rectal strictures & is diagnosed w/ a Frei test

A

Chlamydia (Lymphogranuloma venereum)

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82
Q

This venereal disease causes purulent vaginal discharge that is green, frothy, & foul smelling. Caused by a protozoan.

A

Trichimonas

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83
Q

This is a spasm of lower esophageal sphincter. Causes megaesophagus of upper esophagus. Lack of motility due to absence of myenteric plexus

A

Achalasia

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84
Q

Metaplasia of esophageal cells into stomach cells, caused by GERD

A

Barrett’s esophagus

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85
Q

This is occlusion of hepatic veins. Assoc w/ a triad of abdominal pain, ascites, & hepatomegaly. Acute symptoms are rapid, severe, upper abdominal pain, jaundice, heptomegaly, increased liver enzymes, & eventual encephalopathy

A

Budd-Chiari

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86
Q

Caused by intolerance to gluten. Loss of villi, therefore loss of absorption

A

Celiac disease AKA Non-tropical sprue

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87
Q

Inflammation of gallbladder. M/C cause of gallstones

A

Cholecystitis

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88
Q

Gallstones are AKA?

A

Cholelithiasis

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89
Q

Seen in young people. Affects sm. intestines, cecum, & ascending colon. Skip lesions or cobblestone appearance. No bloody diarrhea. Autoimmune. Leads to dehydration b/c water isn’t getting reabsorbed in sm. intestines.

A

Crohn’s AKA Regional ileitis AKA Distal ileitis AKA Regional enteritis

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90
Q

Outpouching in the intestines. Usually lower L quadrant

A

Diverticula

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91
Q

Difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphagia

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92
Q

M/C cause of death in children world wide d/t dehydration from diarrhea

A

Enteritis

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93
Q

M/C cause of frank, red blood in the stool

A

Hemorrhoids

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94
Q

Congenital megacolon. Absence of myenteric plexus (Parasympathetic plexus)

A

Hirschbrung’s

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95
Q

Telescoping of intestine onto itself, can be caused by rotovirus vaccine

A

Intussusception

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96
Q

Spastic colon, distention, pain, diarrhea, stress related

A

Irritable bowel

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97
Q

Hematemesis (Vomiting of blood) d/t alcoholism. Laceration of esophagus & prox. stomach

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

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98
Q

Outpouching of distal ileum

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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99
Q

Polyposis characterized by polyps in the entire GI tract

A

Peutzjegher’s

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100
Q

Iron deficiency anemia, cheilosis, esophageal webbing & glossitis

A

Plummer Vinson syndrome

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101
Q

Infant projectile vomiting. In a newborn

A

Pyloric stenosis

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102
Q

Anatomically shortened esophagus

A

Sliding hiatal hernia

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103
Q

Fat in stool. Caused by problem w/ gall bladder

A

Steatosis

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104
Q

AKA Toxic megacolon. Pathological intestinal changes, ulcers, bloody diarrhea, affects L side of abdomen. “Lead pipe rigidity”. Starts at the colon & moves distally

A

Ulcerative colitis

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105
Q

Twisting of an organ around its long axis

A

Volvulus

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106
Q

Outpouching of the esophagus

A

Zenker’s diverticulum

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107
Q

Decreased ADH d/t pos. pituitary problem. Causes dehydration

A

Diabetes insipidus

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108
Q

Decreased production of insulin by the beta cells of pancreas (Islets of Langerhans). 1st seen in the eyes. M/C die from heart disease or renal failure. Produces polydypsia (increase thirst), polyurea (increase urination), & polyphagia (increase hunger)

A

Diabetes Mellitus

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109
Q

Iron in organs & skin. AKA Bronze diabetes

A

Hemochromatosis

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110
Q

Protein malnutrition

A

Kwashiorkor

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111
Q

Calorie malnutrition, includes protein

A

Marasmus

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112
Q

Inborn error of copper metabolism. Kayser Fleisher rings (copper deposits in eye). Hepatolenticular degeneration.

A

Wilson’s disease

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113
Q

Ant. horn & corticospinal tracts affected w/ no sensory loss. Motor only. Lower motor neuron in upper extremities & upper motor neuron in lower. It’s progressive

A

ALS AKA Lou Gherig’s disease

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114
Q

Progressive severe atrophy of the cerebral cortex. Neurofibrillary tangles, decrease in Ach. #1 cause of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s

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115
Q

Cerebellar tonsils herniate, specifically the vermis

A

Type I Arnold Chiari

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116
Q

Cerebellar tonsil herniation w/ meningiomyelocele in lumbar spine

A

Type II Arnold Chiari

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117
Q

M/C brain tumors w/ the best prognosis. In CNS

A

Astrocytoma, Type I & II

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118
Q

M/C brain tumor in CNS

A

Glioma

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119
Q

Brain tumor w/ the worst prognosis

A

Glioblastoma multiform (Type IV astrocytoma)

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120
Q

M/C brain tumor seen in cerebellar vermis in children. M/C cerebellar tumor

A

Medulloblastoma

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121
Q

Slowest growing brain tumor. Affects cerebrum

A

Oligodendroglioma

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122
Q

Acoustic neuroma. Onion bulb tumor. M/C cause of unilateral sensorineural hearing loss

A

Schwannoma

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123
Q

Lesions of sclerosis of the spinocerebellar tract (neurofibrillary tangles). Assoc. w/ chromosome 9

A

Friedreich’s Ataxia

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124
Q

AKA post-infectious polyradiculopathy. M/C seen after a recent flu or vaccination. Peripheral demyelinating disease. Areflexia & ascending paralysis. Fatal if it hits the diaphragm

A

Guillian-Barre

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125
Q

Interruption of cervical sympathetics (e.g. trauma, pancoast tumor). Symptoms include ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis, enophthalmosis

A

Horner’s syndrome

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126
Q

AKA Hansen’s disease. Liquefactive necrosis. Skin damage & destruction of sensory nerves

A

Leprosy

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127
Q

Central demyelinization & plaquing of the spinal cord & brain. Charcot’s triad (SIN): scanning speech, intention tremor, nystagmus. Characterized by exacerbations & remissions. Effects distal muscles & causes visual disturbances. Affects corticospinal tracts

A

Multiple sclerosis

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128
Q

Formation of antibodies that block the Ach receptors at the myoneural junction. Thymic enlargement (Thymoma). Causes progressive weakness & fatigue. First starts in the ocular muscles, gets worse at the end of day. Jaw is tight & sore. Autoimmune, females age 20-40

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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129
Q

AKA Von Recklinghausen’s disease. Cafe au Lait spots, “Coast of California appearance

A

Neurofibromatosis

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130
Q

Schwann cell tumor is AKA?

A

Onion bulb tumor

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131
Q

Problem w/ dopamine in basal ganglia. Inclusion bodies (Lewy bodies). Masked faces, stopped posture, resting tremor, & festinating/shuffling gait. Cogwheel rigidity. Substantia nigra of mesencephalon effected

A

Parkinson’s AKA Paralysis agitans

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132
Q

AKA combined systems disease. Dorsal columns & corticospinal tract affected. Results from long term pernicious anemia (decreased intrinsic factor) or decreased B12

A

PLS (Posterolateral sclerosis)

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133
Q

It affects the ant. horn, produces LMNL (lower motor neuron ?). Effects brainstem, then cranial nerves affected, possibly breathing apparatus as well

A

Poliomyelitis

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134
Q

Cyst like formation from the central canal of the spinal cord that leads to loss of pain & temp. & signs of an upper motor neuron lesion. Cape-like distribution of pins & needles sensation. Caused by syrinx, a central dilation of the spinal cord. Loss of pain & temp. bilaterally

A

Syringomyelia

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135
Q

Alcoholic psychosis w/ dementia. Depletion of thiamine (B1) due to severe alcoholism

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff

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136
Q

Tumor of glandular tissue

A

Adenoma

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137
Q

Benign bone tumor. Metaphyseal/diaphyseal. Eccentric. AKA Blister of Bone

A

Aneurismal Bone Cyst

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138
Q

Tumors that are encapsulated, have a short zone of transition and are asymptomatic tend to be malignant or benign?

A

Benign

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139
Q

Tumor-shaped radiolucency d/t loss of bone density from hyperparathyroidism. (PTH)

A

Brown’s tumor

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140
Q

Starry sky appearance. Jaw mass. Central African child. Epstein Barr virus

A

Burkett’s lymphoma

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141
Q

Wasting away

A

Cachexia

142
Q

Cancer of the epithelial tissue, usually spread by lymph system

A

Carcinoma

143
Q

Cancer that has not invaded the basement membrane

A

Carcinoma in situ

144
Q

Cancer assoc. w/ HPV 16 virus

A

Cervical cancer

145
Q

Benign bone tumor found in <20yoa. Epiphyseal/metaphyseal

A

Chondroblastoma

146
Q

Benign tumor of cartilage

A

Chondroma

147
Q

Cacner that is M/C’ly seen in sacrum. Crosses joints

A

Chordoma

148
Q

Type of cancer M/C’ly found in US

A

Colorectal cancer

149
Q

Absence of one or both testicles in scrotum (failure of descent of the testes. Can cause testicular cancer

A

Cryptorchidism

150
Q

Benign hand tumor. Stippled calcification.

A

Enchondroma AKA Ollier’s disease

151
Q

Syndrome assoc. w/ Enchondromatosis, soft tissue swelling, & bone deformity

A

Maffuci’s syndrome

152
Q

Multi-laminated (onion skin appearence) periosteal reaction. Cortical saurcerization. Children 10-25. Moth-eaten appearance in medulla that mimics osteomyelitis

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

153
Q

M/C breast tumor. Assoc. w/ estrogens

A

Fibroadenoma of breast

154
Q

Myxomatous tissue. Spindled & polyhedral cells

A

Fibroma

155
Q

Benign tumor w/ ground glass appearance. Cafe au lait “Coast of Maine” appearance w/ early puberty (Albright’s disease). Monostotic form is assoc. w/ Rind sign/Rind of sclerosis

A

Fibrous dysplasia

156
Q

Tumor of osteoclasts. Osteoclastoma. M/C in knee. Quasi-malignant. Age 20-40, epiphyseal/metaphyseal

A

Giant cell tumor

157
Q

Benign tumor of blood vessels, M/C’ly found in spine

A

Hemangioma

158
Q

M/C primary liver cancer.

A

Hepatocellular liver cancer AKA Hepatoma

159
Q

AKA Hans-Schuller-Christian disease AKA Histolytic granuloma AKA Eosinophilic Granuloma. Lipid accumulates –> vertebra plana

A

Histiocytosis X

160
Q

Cancer of the stomach that metastasizes to ovaries. Signet ring cell tumor

A

Krukenberg’s

161
Q

Tumor of sm. muscle. Fibroids in uterus

A

Leiomyoma

162
Q

White patch on oral mucosa from tobacco. Can’t be wiped off (precancerous)

A

Leukoplakia

163
Q

Fatty tumor

A

Lipoma

164
Q

M/C lung cancer w/ non-smokers. Best prognosis.

A

Adenocarcinoma

165
Q

Lung cancer w/ the worst prognosis.

A

Oat cell & small cell

166
Q

M/C lung cancer in smokers

A

Squamous cell

167
Q

Metastasis from lung M/C’ly goes to what organ?

A

Brain

168
Q

Tumors that are non-encapsulated, have a long zone of transition, cause pain at night, & weight loss are often malignant or benign?

A

Malignant

169
Q

M/C form of cancer in bones

A

Metastasis

170
Q

Tumor b/w heads of 3-4 metatarsals

A

Morton’s neuroma

171
Q

M/C primary bone malignancy in adults. Amyloid buildup. Inclusion bodies known as Russell bodies. X-rays show “punched-out” lesions, raindrop skull

A

Multiple myeloma AKA plasma cell leukemia/sarcoma

172
Q

M/C benign cardiac tumor & M/C cardiac tumor

A

Myxoma

173
Q

Tumor M/C’ly seen in neural arch b/w ages 10-30

A

Osteoblastoma

174
Q

M/C benign tumor of extremities

A

Osteochondroma

175
Q

What are the 2 types of osteochondroma?

A

Sessile - “Bump in the bone”

Pedunculated - Cartilaginous cap appearance, coathanger’s exostosis, mushroom projection

176
Q

What is multiple osteochondromas AKA?

A

Hereditary Multiple Exostosis

177
Q

Tumor where the pain is worse at night & is relieved by aspirin. Affects 15-25 yoa. Radiolucent nidus w/ reactive sclerosis

A

Osteoid osteoma

178
Q

M/C benign tumor of the skull. M/C in frontal sinus (frontal bone)

A

Osteoma

179
Q

Sequestrum, involucrum, cloaca. M/C caused by Staph. aureus

A

Osteomyelitis (Brodie’s Abscess if chronic)

180
Q

M/C primary bone cancer in children (10-30)

A

Osteosarcoma

181
Q

This is assoc. w/ warts

A

Papilloma

182
Q

Neuroblastoma, benign tumor of adrenal medulla. Causes episodic HTN

A

Pheochromocytoma

183
Q

Assoc. w/ anovulation, obesity, hirsutism

A

Polycystic ovary disease

184
Q

Tumor of striated muscle or heart muscle

A

Rhabdomyoma

185
Q

Cancer of connective tissue, usually spread by vascular system

A

Sarcoma

186
Q

Cancer of testes, M/C cause of testicular cancer, mesenchymal/stem cells

A

Seminoma

187
Q

Benign bone tumor located in the metaphyseal/diaphyseal region. Concentric. Assoc w/ fallen fragment sign. Age affected <20. Found in long bones

A

Simple/Unicameral Bone Cyst

188
Q

Characteristics of stomach cancer

A

M/C in lesser curvatures

“Leather-bottle” shaped

189
Q

Tumor of all 3 germinal layers

A

Teratoma

190
Q

Enlarged supraclavicular lymph nodes d/t metastasis, usually GI tract, usually L side supraclavicular lymph nodes

A

Virchow’s nodes

191
Q

“Nephroblastoma” Mixed tumor of kidney in children

A

Wilm’s tumor

192
Q

Yellow tumor of connective tissue

A

Xanthoma

193
Q

Absence of oxygen

A

Anoxia

194
Q

Deficiency of oxygen

A

Hypoxia

195
Q

Pathogens or toxins in the blood, can include bacteremia

A

Septicemia

196
Q

Bacteria in the blood

A

Bacteremia

197
Q

Movement of WBCs along concentration gradient of tissue damage byproducts

A

Chemotaxis

198
Q

WBCs lining the damaged vessels (adhesions of leukocytes to endothelium)

A

Pavementing/margination

199
Q

Neutrophils & monocytes squeeze through the walls of blood vessels towards site of damaged tissue or infection

A

Diapedesis AKA Leukocyte extravasation

200
Q

Summary of clot formation

A

Fibrinogen into fibrin via thromboplastin (requires Vit. K & Calcium in cascade)

201
Q

Platelet deposition

A

Thrombus

202
Q

Foreign body in the blood travels

A

Embolus

203
Q

Emboli in lung is M/C from what location?

A

Lower extremity

204
Q

Fluid & high protein (damaged capillary wall)

A

Exudate

205
Q

Fluid & low protein (Normal capillary wall)

A

Transudate

206
Q

5 stages of inflammation

A
  1. Injury/wound - tissue is damaged
  2. Vasoconstriction - sympathetic reaction
  3. Vasodilation - bring more blood to injured site
  4. Swelling/Edema - Cells move into damaged area (Chemotaxis)
  5. Healing - mast cells form heparin & serotonin
207
Q

Substances that increase inflammation?

A 
Bradykinin (vasodilation)
Histamine (vasodilation)
Leukotrienes
Prostaglandins
Substance P
208
Q

Substances that decrease inflammation

A

Enkephalins/endorphins (pain control)
NSAIDS (COX inhibitors)
Steroids (Phospholipase A2 inhibitor)

209
Q

These cells become mast cells & make histaimine, bradykinin, serotonin, & heparin

A

Basophils

210
Q

These cells transform into plasma cells –> make antibodies

A

B-lymphocytes

211
Q

Types of granulocytes

A

Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

212
Q

Types of agranulocytes

A

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

213
Q

What is a macrophage called in the liver?

A

Kupffer cell

214
Q

What is a macrophage called in the lung?

A

dust cell

215
Q

What is a macrophage called in the brain?

A

Microglia

216
Q

What is a macrophage called in the skin?

A

Langerhan cell

217
Q

What are types of natural killers cells?

A

Monocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

218
Q

Where do T-lymphocytes mature?

A

Thymus

219
Q

T-helper cells are assoc. w/ what cells and what do they do?

A

CD4 cells; activate B cells

220
Q

T-killer cells are assoc. w/ what cells and what do they do?

A

CD8; Cytotoxic cells. Destroys cancer. Kills foreign agents, transplant rejections

221
Q

What do T-suppressor cells do?

A

Suppress immune system. Slows antibody production

222
Q

These WBCs make 60% of WBC count. Increase in acute bacterial infections & acute inflammation

A

Neutrophils

223
Q

These WBCs make up 30% of WBC count. Increase in viral conditions & chronic inflammation

A

Lymphocytes

224
Q

These WBCs make up 5-8% WBC count. Assoc. w/ chronic conditions. Changes into phagocytes at tissue level

A

Monocytes

225
Q

These WBCs make up 2-4% of WBC count. Increase in parasites & allergies

A

Eosinophils

226
Q

These WBCs make up 0-.5% of WBC count. Like mast cells, produce heparin & histamine. Increase conditions that cause histamine release

A

Basophiles

227
Q

Natural immunity involves what 4 types of cells?

A

Natural killer cells
Mast cells
Basophils
Macrophage

228
Q

This is a decrease in B-cells. Decreased IgG. M/C primary immunodeficiency at birth. X-linked

A

Bruton’s Agammaglobulinnemia

229
Q

Hypoplasia of thymus. Primary T-cell deficiency at birth

A

DiGeorge’s

230
Q

Starry sky appearance. Central Africa (young child). Jaw swelling

A

Burkett’s lymphoma

231
Q

Pel Epstein fever. Biopsy shows Sternberg cells. Enlarged lymph nodes & heptaosplenomegaly

A

Hodgkin’s

232
Q

Leukemia of bone marrow. Affects plasma cells. Age 50+. Example of non-Hodkins lymphoma.

A

Multiple Myeloma

233
Q

Newborn w/o proper B or T cells. Problem w/ bone marrow. In adult, M/C due to aplastic anemia. Possibly from benzene poisoning.

A

Severe combined immune deficiency

234
Q

Type of Hemophilia assoc. w/ factor number 8 deficiency. Causes decrease in platelet adhesion.

A

Hemophilia A (Von Willibrand disease)

235
Q

Type of hemophilia assoc. w/ factor number 9. X-chromosome. Females only carriers.

A

Christmas Factor disease (Christmas disease in males)

236
Q

Hemophilia assoc w/ factor number 10. (Factor name)

A

Stuart factor

237
Q

Mild type of hemophilia assoc. w/ factor number 11

A

Hemophilia C

238
Q

Name of clotting factor 12

A

Hageman Factor

239
Q

Decreased RBCs & WBCs in the blood. Caused by benzene poisoning. Assoc. w/ degeneration of bone marrow.

A

Aplastic anemia

240
Q

Type of anemia assoc. w/ chronic blood loss (menses)

A

Iron deficiency (Microcytic, hypochromic)

241
Q

Type of anemia assoc. w/ lack of intrinsic factor. Gastritis can be a cause

A

Pernicious

242
Q

Type of anemia assoc. w/ pregnancy. Leads to spina bifida occulta

A

Folic acid anemia (Megaloblastic anemia)

243
Q

Type of anemia seen in vegetarians

A

B-12 anemia (macrocytic, hypochromic)

244
Q

Hemorrhage causes what kind of anemia?

A

normochromic/normocytic

245
Q

Anemia d/t hemolytic breakdown can be caused by what?

A

Sickle cell

Malaria

246
Q

This is AKA Cooley’s Anemia or Mediterranean Anemia. Has “hair on end” appearance on X-ray

A

Thalassemia Major

247
Q

This is caused by a Rh- mother & Rh+ father leading to Rh+ baby. Type II cytotoxic

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

248
Q

Decreased RBCs, WBCs, & platelets in the blood

A

Pancytopenia

249
Q

Increased RBCs

A

Polycythemia

250
Q

Primary polycythemia is AKA?

A

Polycythemia Rubra Vera (pathological)

251
Q

Secondary polycythemia is AKA?

A

Relative Polycythemia (normal response to high altitudes)

252
Q

Decreased platelets in blood

A

Thrombocytopenia

253
Q

Type of aneurysm that occurs in the circle of Willis. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Berry Aneurysm

254
Q

Aneurysm caused by longitudinal tearing away of the aorta

A

Dissecting aneurysm

255
Q

Aneurysm w/ symptoms of sudden low back pain, hypovolemic shock, thready pulse, “Curvilinear calcification”, “Fusiform shape”

A

Abdominal aorta aneurysm

256
Q

Deposition of fatty plaques (atheroma). Form of ateriosclerosis. Get irregularly distributed lipid deposits in the intima of large & medium sized arteries, causing narrowing of arterial lumens.

A

Atherosclerosis

257
Q

AKA Thromboangitis obliterans. Lower extremity, males w/ history of smokin. Intermittent claudication = cramping w/ exertion

A

Buerger’s

258
Q

Fluid in pericardial space. Prevents proper ventricular filling.

A

Cardiac Tamponade

259
Q

Narrowing of aorta distal to the L subclavian. Produces HTN in upper extremities & Hypotension in lower extremities

A

Coarctation of aorta (congential)

260
Q

Tunica media of medium-sized arteries calcified. In smokers & diabetics

A

Monkeberg’s sclerosis

261
Q

Coronoary artery vasospasm

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

262
Q

Vasospasm of arteries. Maybe primary or secondary to other collagen diseases such as Lupus. Found in hands & feet. Produce triphasic color change, from pallor(white) to cyanosis (blue) to rubor (red). Brought on by cold or emotion. Can lead to dry gangrene. Typically in upper extremities of females w/ a history of smoking.

A

Raynaud’s

263
Q

Half moon shaped RBC. “H-shaped vertebra”

A

Sickle Cell anemia

264
Q

Granulomatous inflammation of the aortic arch

A

Takayasu arteritis AKA Pulseless disease

265
Q

Affects temporal arteries. Assoc. w/ long-standing HTN. If affects opthalmic artery, can lead to blindness. Increased ESR. Best way to diagnose is by biopsy

A

Temporal arteritis AKA Giant Cell arteritis

266
Q

what are the 4 components of the tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Dextrorotation of aorta
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Interventricular septal defect
Pulmonic stenosis

267
Q

Due to tooth extraction. Strep infection causing Aschoff bodies from Rheumatic fever. Mitral valve affected.

A

Valvular lesions

268
Q

M/C leukemia seen in children

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

269
Q

M/C acute leukemia in adults but can be seen at any age. Worst prognosis.

A

Acute myeloblastic leukemia

270
Q

M/C chronic leukemia in adults.

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

271
Q

Leukemia seen in young adulthood. Increased granulocytets. “Philadelphia chromosome”

A

Chronic myelocytic leukemia

272
Q

M/C form of genetic dwarfism. Growth plates affected. Failure of normal epiphyseal cartilage formation. X-ray shows “Bullet vertebra” “Trident hand”

A

Achondroplasia

273
Q

Accumulation of homogentisic acid, blue-black deposits in cartilage, ears, nose, & cheeks. Causes ochronsis (calcification of discs in spine). Urine turns black on standing collection. Can get increase of tyrosine. Homogentisic acid is intermediate phenylalanine & tyrosine metabolism

A

Alkaptonuria

274
Q

Hereditary progressive peroneal muscle atrophy. Affects tibalis anterior also.

A

Charcot Marie Tooth

275
Q

trisomy 21, male or female. Flat, hypoplastic face. Tranverse palmar crease (Simian crease) Transposition w/ chromosome 14

A

Down’s syndrome

276
Q

Trisomy 18. Retardation

A

Edward’s

277
Q

Hereditary onset age 30-50 yoa. Basal ganglion affected; atrophy of caudate. On chromosome #4. Decrease in GABA. Produces dementia & death.

A

Huntington’s chorea

278
Q

Arachnodactyly (spider-like fingers), sublucation or dislocation of the lens of the eye, dissecting aortic aneurysms, tall stature

A

Marfan’s

279
Q

Defect in type I collagen. Blue sclera & brittle bones

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

280
Q

Can’t convert phenylalanine to tyrosine d/t phenylalanine hydroxylase. Retardation can be controlled by diet if caught early

A

Phenylketonuria

281
Q

Lacks glucose-6-phosphatase in liver. Excess glycogen stored in liver, can’t break down. Glycogen storage disease

A

Von Gierke’s

282
Q

“Cat’s cry” Characteristic cry of newborn. Disappears usually by age 1-2

A

Cri du Chat

283
Q

Lipodystrophy assoc w/ excess glucocerebrosides in brain, liver, & spleen

A

Gaucher’s

284
Q

Lipodystrophy assoc. w/ excess galactocerebrosides in white matter

A

Krabbe’s

285
Q

Lipodystrophy assoc. w/ increase in sphingomyelin. A sphingomyelinase deficiency

A

Niemann Pick’s

286
Q

Lipodystrophy assoc. w/ increase gangliosides in brain. Glycosphingolipid. Hexosaminidase A deficiency. Cherry red spots on the macula. Infant death. M/C in Ashkenasi Jews

A

Tay Sach’s

287
Q

Musuclar dystrophy. Boys age 3-7. Pseudohypertrophy of calves. Muscle replace by fat. Recessive X-linked. Increased CPK. Gower’s maneuver. Waddling gait. Proximal muscles affected.

A

Duchene’s Muscular dystrophy

288
Q

Autosomal dominant form of muscular dystrophy in adults. Affects face, scapula, upper arms

A

Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy

289
Q

Autosomal class of muscular dystrophy. Effects hip & shoulders

A

Limbgirdle dystrophy

290
Q

Type of muscular dystrophy where you can’t relax muscle

A

Myotonic dystrophy

291
Q

M/C form of mild mental retardation caused by fragile site at XQ27

A

Fragile X

292
Q

47XXY karotype, tall male, low IQ, testicular atrophy, gynecomastia, sterile

A

Kleinfelter’s

293
Q

45XO Karyotype, female, short, webbed neck, amenorrhea, lacks female secondary characteristics

A

Turner’s

294
Q

AKA Forrestier’s disease. Typically affects males 50+. Trouble swallowing d/t calcification of ALL. Assoc. w/ diabetes mellitus, increased appetite, thirst, urination

A

DISH (Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis)

295
Q

Calcium or bone w/i muscle d/t trauma. M/C in quads or biceps. If in adductors, known as Prussian’s disease. Example of metaplasia

A

Myossitis Ossificans

296
Q

AKA Charcot Joint. M/C location is foot/ankle, #2 is knee. Causes: diabetes, corticosteroids, syringomyelia, tabes dorsalis, alcoholic neuropath, leprosy

A

Neuropathic joint AKA Neurogenic joint AKA Neurotrophic joint

297
Q

6 D’s assoc. w/ Neurotrophic joint

A 
Destruction
Debris of bone
Density increase
Dislocation
Disorganization
Distension
298
Q

AKA Marble bone disease or Albers Schonbergs disease. Xray sign - Bone w/i a Bone (early stage), Sandwich vertebra (late stage). Pts die by age 20-30 from hepatosplenomegaly & anemia

A

Osteopetrosis

299
Q

Affects men over 50, increase hat size, enlargement/deformity of bone, cortical thickening. Pathological cell is the osteoclastic cell. Labs show increase alkaline phosphatase, increased urinary hydroxyproline, normal calcium & phosphorus

A

Pagets AKA Osteitis Deformans

300
Q

4 radiological stages assoc w/ Pagets

A
  1. Lytic Phase (osteoclastic activity)
  2. Mixed phase (combine lytic & blastic)
  3. Blastic phase (osteoblastic)
  4. Malignant degeneration (osteosarcoma)
301
Q

This is AKA Progressive systemic sclerosis. Labs show ANA, FANA, seropositive for RA. Xray shows resorption of distal tufts

A

Scleroderma

302
Q

What are the CREST signs assoc w/ Scleroderma?

A 
Calcinosis Cutis
Raynaud's phenomenon
Esophageal problems
Sclerodactely
Telangectasis (dilation of superficial blood vessels)
303
Q

dead necrotic center of bone infection

A

Sequestrum

304
Q

New bone formation assoc w/ bone infection/osteomyelitis

A

Involucrum

305
Q

Opening from bone to the skin. Seen w/ Brodie’s abscess. This is opening in Involucrum. Can get Marjolins ulcer which is a squamous cell carcinoma

A

Cloaca

306
Q

Enzyme that is elevated in prostatic cancer which has ruptured the prostate capsule

A

Acid phosphatase

307
Q

Enzyme that is elevated in liver & bone conditions

A

Alkaline phosphatase

308
Q

Build up of lipofuscin in organs. “Lipofuscin granules are old age pigments”

A

Brown Atrophy

309
Q

1 mineral deficiency in the US

A

Calcium

310
Q

1 mineral deficiency in the world

A

Iron

311
Q

AKA Marie Stumpell’s disease. Seronegative arthritides. HLA B27+. Autoimmune, inflammatory. Affects SI joints. Causes morning LBP & stiffness. Moves up the spine. Starts age 15-35 males. Can cause abdominal aortic aneurysm & iritis

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

312
Q

Coal miners lung w/ RA nodules

A

Caplan’s Syndrome

313
Q

Chronic RA w/ splenomegaly

A

Felty’s syndrome

314
Q

Type of arthritis that usually affects the knee.

A

Gonococcal

315
Q

Uric acid (tophi - crystal deposits in tissues) in blood. In big toe = podagra. M/C cause is diet increase purines; red wine & meat, aged cheese. Labs show increased ESR, increased uric acid. Xray shows it destroys from outside in, juxtaarticular erosions, overhanging edge sign

A

Gouty arthritis

316
Q

Usually affects the knee. Causes enlarged intercondylar notch

A

Hemophilia

317
Q

Unilateral distribution in weight bearing joints. Subchondral sclerosis, osteophytes. Heberden’s nodes (DIP) & Bouchard’s (PIP) M/C location is hip then knee. M/C type of arthritis

A

OA/DJD

318
Q

Seronegative arthritide. HLA B27+. Xray shows periarticular erosions, mouse ear erosions, pencil in cup deformities, Ray’s sign. Symptoms include cocktail sausage digits, silver scales, pitted nails, pull off a scale & it bleeds (Auspitz sign)

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

319
Q

Seronegative arthritide. HLA B27+. Caused by Chlamydia. Symptoms include white pus, Conjunctivits/Uveitis (can’t see), Urethritis (Can’t pee), Arthritis (can’t dance w/ me), heel spur & plantar fasciitis (Lover’s heel)

A

Reiter’s AKA reactive arthritis AKA venereal arthritis

320
Q

Inflammatory condition, usually begins in hands. Symmetrical distribution. Ulnar deviation of wrist. Ankylosis of spine. Pannus formation (hypertrophy of synovium of joint) over the joints. Haygarth’s nodes (MCP) & Bouchard’s nodes (PIP). Juxtaarticular osteoporosis, rat bite, or marginal erosions. Seropositive. Boutonniere & Swan neck deformities. Bilateral symmetrical involvement

A

RA

321
Q

Types of seronegative arthritis. All are HLA B27 positive. All RA latex negative.

A 
"PEAR" 
Psoriatic
Enteropathic arthropathy
Ankylosing spondylitis
Reiter's syndrome
322
Q

Types of seronegative arthritis. All are RA latex positive

A 
RSSS
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjogren's
Scleraderma
Systemic Lupus Erthematosis
323
Q

Dry eyes (xeropthalmia), Dry mouth (xerostomia), Seropositive for RA latex

A

Sjogren’s

324
Q

JRA is AKA?

A

Still’s disease

325
Q

Photosensitivity, Libman Sach’s endocarditis, autoimmune disease, antibodies against DNA. Use the ANA or FANA test. Butterfly rash (Malar rash)

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosis

326
Q

Death of bone d/t lack of blood. M/C cause is trauma. Also caused by corticosteroids

A

Avascular necrosis AKA osteonecrosis

327
Q

AVN of the spine

A

Sheuermann’s

328
Q

AVN of the lunate

A

Keinboch’s

329
Q

AVN of the hip

A

Legge Calve Perthe’s

330
Q

AVN of the navicular

A

Kohler’s

331
Q

AVN of the scaphoid

A

Priesser’s

332
Q

M/C fx of the wrist. Fx of distal radius w/ pos. displacement. “Dinner fork deformity”

A

Colles Fx

333
Q

Avulsion of tibial tuberosity of knee in young athletic children

A

Osgood Schlatter’s AKA Tibial Apophysitis

334
Q

Fx of distal radius w/ ant. displacement. “Garden Spade Deformity”

A

Smith’s Fx AKA Reverse Colles

335
Q

“Blue Bloaters” Chronic cough, sputum blood-streaked, wheezing, dyspnea

A

Chronic Bronchitis

336
Q

“Pink Puffer” Enlargement of airspaces. Primary cause is smoking. Barrel-chested

A

Emphysema

337
Q

“Dead lung” irreversible, focal bronchial dilation w/ infection & necrosis of tissue

A

Bronchiectasis

338
Q

Lung & bone (lytic, typically in skull), exophthalmosis & diabetes insipidus

A

Hand-Schuller Christian syndrome

339
Q

Benign prostate hypertrophy typically affects which lobe of the prostate?

A

Lateral lobe

340
Q

Prostate cancer is usually found in which lobe of the prostate?

A

Posterior lobe

341
Q

Inflammation of the glans penis & prepuce

A

Balanitis

342
Q

Testicular inflammation

A

Orchitis

343
Q

Constriction of the foreskin, can’t be retracted

A

Phimosis

344
Q

Painful, persistent, abnormal erecton

A

Priapism

345
Q

Dysplasia of cavernous sheaths w/ fibrosis AKA “crooked penis”

A

Peyronie’s Disease

346
Q

Generalized swelling in the scrotum

A

Hydrocele

347
Q

Localized swelling in the scrotum

A

Spermatocele

348
Q

Blood in the testes

A

Hematocele

349
Q

“Turtle neck” (?)

A

Paraphimosis

350
Q

Infection of the fallopian tubes, under 35yrs, IUD increases risk

A

Salpingitis

351
Q

Instead of a fetus a cancerous mass develops

A

Choriocarcinoma

352
Q

M/C primary bone tumors

A

Multiple Myeloma
Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Ewing’s Sarcoma

Part 1 Board Review (7 decks)

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