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Renal > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Define nephritis

A

Inflammation of the kidney

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2
Q

Pyelonephritis means?

A
  • inflammation of the kidney

- infective cause

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3
Q

Glomerulonephritis means?

A
  • inflammation of the kidney

- non-infective cause

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4
Q

Mesangial cells are found where?

A
  • in the centre of the glomerulus
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5
Q

Explain immune mediated glomerulonephritis?

A
  • directed at something in the glomerulus

- caused by circulating complexes getting stuck in the sieve

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6
Q

GPA is what ANCA?

A
  • cANCA
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7
Q

Good pastures glomerulonephritis is associated with what?

A
  • Anti-GBM

- Collagen IV

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8
Q

2 factors in nephritic syndrome?

A
  • haematuria

- hypertension

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9
Q

3 factors in nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • heavy proteinuria
  • non-dependant oedema
  • hyperlipidaemia
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10
Q

What are the 3 investigations used in pathology?

A
  • light microscopy
  • electron microscopy
  • immunofluorescence
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11
Q

Linear IgG on immunofluorescence is indicative of what?

A
  • Good Pasture’s sydnrome
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12
Q

Crescents on microscopy indicate?

A
  • rapidly progressive

- bad

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13
Q

Granuloma on microscopy indicate?

A
  • GPA
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14
Q

Minimal change nephropathy associated with what age?

A
  • children
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15
Q

Minimal change is a __nephrotic/nephritic___ syndrome

A
  • nephrotic
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16
Q

IgA nephropathy is a __nephritic/nephrotic___ syndrome

A
  • nephritic
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17
Q

What is seen on silver staining of membranous nephropathy

A
  • spikes
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18
Q

What is seen on light microscope for membranous nephropathy?

A
  • thick membrane

- sub-epithelial immune deposits

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19
Q

Name a mixed nephritic and nephrotic syndrome

A
  • membranoproliferative
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20
Q

Tram tracks on silver staining?

A
  • Membranoproliferative
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21
Q

Kimmel stiel Wilson lesions associated with what?

A
  • diabetic nephropathy
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22
Q

What scoring system is use for a predictor of cancer in cystic kidneys?

A
  • Bosniak score
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23
Q

Autosomal dominant polycysitic kidney disease is associated with what size kidneys?

A
  • large kidneys
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24
Q

Name the most common benign kidney tumour

A
  • oncocytoma
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25
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of oncocytoma?

A
  • mahogany brown

- stellate scar

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26
Q

Most common malignant kidney tumour?

A
  • clear cell carinoma
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27
Q

Risk factor for clear cell carcinoma?

A
  • obesity
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28
Q

Genetic link to clear cell carcinoma?

A
  • VHL
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29
Q

Macroscopic appearance of clear cell carcinoma?

A
  • cystic with bright yellow tumout
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30
Q

What might a clear cell carcinoma of the kidney invade?

A
  • vena cava
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31
Q

FSGS risk factors?

A
  • obesity
  • HIV
  • PWID
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32
Q

FSGS is a __nephritic/nephrotic__ syndrome

A
  • nephrotic
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33
Q

What is the 2nd commonest malignant kidney tumour?

A
  • papillary carcinoma
34
Q

Finger like projections kidney tumour?

A
  • papillary carcinoma
35
Q

Difference in appearance of chromophobe carcinoma vs oncocytoma?

A
  • perinucleral nuclei

- wrinkly

36
Q

Manipulation of the ____ cycle increases risk of kidney cancer?

A
  • TCA
37
Q

What lines the bladder?

A
  • Transitional epithelium
38
Q

What is the muscle of the bladder

A
  • detrusor muscle
39
Q

Define cystitis?

A
  • inflammation of the bladder
40
Q

Subtypes of cystitis?

A
  • parasite
  • aseptic
  • reaction to catheter
41
Q

What parasite can cause cystitis?

A
  • schistosomiasis
42
Q

Explain the process of reaction to catheter

A
  • persistent inflammation
  • squamous metaplasia
  • squamous cell carcinoma
43
Q

Causes of urinary tract obstruction

A
  • prostate enlargement
  • stones
  • tumours
44
Q

Dilation of collecting system is called?

A
  • hydronephrosis
45
Q

Risk factor for urothelial neoplasia?

A
  • smoking
46
Q

Types of urothelial neoplasia

A
  • transitional cell carcinoma
  • papillary
  • in situ
47
Q

A urachal adenoma is an adenocarcinoma of what remnant?

A
  • remnant of allantois
48
Q

Benign prostate hyperplasia is driven by what?

A
  • hormones
49
Q

Benign prostate hyperplasia affects where?

A
  • the central zone

- urine outflow obstruction

50
Q

Treatment for benign prostate hyperplasia

A
  • alpha blocker

- transurethral resection

51
Q

What is the commonest cell type of prostate cancer?-

A
  • adenocarcinoma
52
Q

Where does prostate cancer affect?

A
  • periphery of the gland
53
Q

Diagnosis of prostate cancer

A
  • PSA

- Transrectal core biopsy

54
Q

Grading for prostate cancer

A
  • Gleason Grading system
55
Q

High grade prostate cancer produces __more/less__ PSA

A
  • Less
56
Q

Haematuria age > 40yrs what investigation?

A
  • CT urogram
57
Q

Emergency haematuria treatment

A
  • 3 way catheter insertion with bladder washout
58
Q

Blue dot sign?

A
  • appendix testes
59
Q

Renal calculi are formed usually from what?

A
  • calcium oxalate and phosphate
60
Q

Investigations for Renal colic?

A
  • CT KUB
61
Q

Name an inflammatory condition of the foreskin?

A
  • balanitis xerotic obliterans (BXO)
62
Q

Explain balanitis xerotic obliterans?

A
  • chronic inflammatory process of the foreskin
  • lichen scleoris
  • young patients
63
Q

Penile neoplasia can be divided into what groups?

A
  • differentiated (non-HPV)

- Dedifferentiated (hPV)

64
Q

Which HPV is associated with genital warts?

A
  • HPV 6&11
65
Q

Which HPV is associated with cancers?

A
  • HPV 16&18
66
Q

Describe a hydrocoele?

A
  • accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis

- transillumination

67
Q

Describe spermatocoele?

A
  • cystic changes within epididymis

- full of sperm

68
Q

Describe variocoele

A
  • bag of worms

- asymptomatic

69
Q

What may be described as a ‘bag of worms’

A
  • variocoele
70
Q

Bell clapper deformity is associated with what?

A
  • torsion of the testes
71
Q

What are the 2 main groups of testicular cancers?

A
  • seminomatous

- non-seminomatous

72
Q

Seminomatous carcinomas affect what age group?

A
  • age > 40yrs
73
Q

Non-seminomatous carcinomas affect what age group

A
  • age = 30
74
Q

How are seminomatous carcinomas treated?

A
  • radiotherapy
75
Q

What may used as a marker of seminomatous tumours of the testes?

A
  • LDH
76
Q

How are non-seminomatous tumours treated?

A
  • chemotherapy
77
Q

What are the risks associated with non-seminomatous tumours?

A
  • metastasis
78
Q

What has a better prognosis seminomatous or non-seminomatous?

A
  • seminomatous
79
Q

Risk factor for testicular carcinoma?

A
  • cryptorchidism
80
Q

Teratoma is defined as what?

A
  • cancer of the 3 layers

- endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm

81
Q

Yolk sac testicular cancers release what tumour marker?

A
  • alpha feto protein
82
Q

Trophoblast tumours release what tumour marker?

A
  • HCG

Renal (14 decks)

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