Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Define nephritis

A

Inflammation of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pyelonephritis means?

A
  • inflammation of the kidney

- infective cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Glomerulonephritis means?

A
  • inflammation of the kidney

- non-infective cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mesangial cells are found where?

A
  • in the centre of the glomerulus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain immune mediated glomerulonephritis?

A
  • directed at something in the glomerulus

- caused by circulating complexes getting stuck in the sieve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

GPA is what ANCA?

A
  • cANCA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Good pastures glomerulonephritis is associated with what?

A
  • Anti-GBM

- Collagen IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

2 factors in nephritic syndrome?

A
  • haematuria

- hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3 factors in nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • heavy proteinuria
  • non-dependant oedema
  • hyperlipidaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 investigations used in pathology?

A
  • light microscopy
  • electron microscopy
  • immunofluorescence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Linear IgG on immunofluorescence is indicative of what?

A
  • Good Pasture’s sydnrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Crescents on microscopy indicate?

A
  • rapidly progressive

- bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Granuloma on microscopy indicate?

A
  • GPA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Minimal change nephropathy associated with what age?

A
  • children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Minimal change is a __nephrotic/nephritic___ syndrome

A
  • nephrotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IgA nephropathy is a __nephritic/nephrotic___ syndrome

A
  • nephritic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is seen on silver staining of membranous nephropathy

A
  • spikes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is seen on light microscope for membranous nephropathy?

A
  • thick membrane

- sub-epithelial immune deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name a mixed nephritic and nephrotic syndrome

A
  • membranoproliferative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tram tracks on silver staining?

A
  • Membranoproliferative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Kimmel stiel Wilson lesions associated with what?

A
  • diabetic nephropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What scoring system is use for a predictor of cancer in cystic kidneys?

A
  • Bosniak score
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Autosomal dominant polycysitic kidney disease is associated with what size kidneys?

A
  • large kidneys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name the most common benign kidney tumour

A
  • oncocytoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe the macroscopic appearance of oncocytoma?
- mahogany brown | - stellate scar
26
Most common malignant kidney tumour?
- clear cell carinoma
27
Risk factor for clear cell carcinoma?
- obesity
28
Genetic link to clear cell carcinoma?
- VHL
29
Macroscopic appearance of clear cell carcinoma?
- cystic with bright yellow tumout
30
What might a clear cell carcinoma of the kidney invade?
- vena cava
31
FSGS risk factors?
- obesity - HIV - PWID
32
FSGS is a __nephritic/nephrotic__ syndrome
- nephrotic
33
What is the 2nd commonest malignant kidney tumour?
- papillary carcinoma
34
Finger like projections kidney tumour?
- papillary carcinoma
35
Difference in appearance of chromophobe carcinoma vs oncocytoma?
- perinucleral nuclei | - wrinkly
36
Manipulation of the ____ cycle increases risk of kidney cancer?
- TCA
37
What lines the bladder?
- Transitional epithelium
38
What is the muscle of the bladder
- detrusor muscle
39
Define cystitis?
- inflammation of the bladder
40
Subtypes of cystitis?
- parasite - aseptic - reaction to catheter
41
What parasite can cause cystitis?
- schistosomiasis
42
Explain the process of reaction to catheter
- persistent inflammation - squamous metaplasia - squamous cell carcinoma
43
Causes of urinary tract obstruction
- prostate enlargement - stones - tumours
44
Dilation of collecting system is called?
- hydronephrosis
45
Risk factor for urothelial neoplasia?
- smoking
46
Types of urothelial neoplasia
- transitional cell carcinoma - papillary - in situ
47
A urachal adenoma is an adenocarcinoma of what remnant?
- remnant of allantois
48
Benign prostate hyperplasia is driven by what?
- hormones
49
Benign prostate hyperplasia affects where?
- the central zone | - urine outflow obstruction
50
Treatment for benign prostate hyperplasia
- alpha blocker | - transurethral resection
51
What is the commonest cell type of prostate cancer?-
- adenocarcinoma
52
Where does prostate cancer affect?
- periphery of the gland
53
Diagnosis of prostate cancer
- PSA | - Transrectal core biopsy
54
Grading for prostate cancer
- Gleason Grading system
55
High grade prostate cancer produces __more/less__ PSA
- Less
56
Haematuria age > 40yrs what investigation?
- CT urogram
57
Emergency haematuria treatment
- 3 way catheter insertion with bladder washout
58
Blue dot sign?
- appendix testes
59
Renal calculi are formed usually from what?
- calcium oxalate and phosphate
60
Investigations for Renal colic?
- CT KUB
61
Name an inflammatory condition of the foreskin?
- balanitis xerotic obliterans (BXO)
62
Explain balanitis xerotic obliterans?
- chronic inflammatory process of the foreskin - lichen scleoris - young patients
63
Penile neoplasia can be divided into what groups?
- differentiated (non-HPV) | - Dedifferentiated (hPV)
64
Which HPV is associated with genital warts?
- HPV 6&11
65
Which HPV is associated with cancers?
- HPV 16&18
66
Describe a hydrocoele?
- accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis | - transillumination
67
Describe spermatocoele?
- cystic changes within epididymis | - full of sperm
68
Describe variocoele
- bag of worms | - asymptomatic
69
What may be described as a 'bag of worms'
- variocoele
70
Bell clapper deformity is associated with what?
- torsion of the testes
71
What are the 2 main groups of testicular cancers?
- seminomatous | - non-seminomatous
72
Seminomatous carcinomas affect what age group?
- age > 40yrs
73
Non-seminomatous carcinomas affect what age group
- age = 30
74
How are seminomatous carcinomas treated?
- radiotherapy
75
What may used as a marker of seminomatous tumours of the testes?
- LDH
76
How are non-seminomatous tumours treated?
- chemotherapy
77
What are the risks associated with non-seminomatous tumours?
- metastasis
78
What has a better prognosis seminomatous or non-seminomatous?
- seminomatous
79
Risk factor for testicular carcinoma?
- cryptorchidism
80
Teratoma is defined as what?
- cancer of the 3 layers | - endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm
81
Yolk sac testicular cancers release what tumour marker?
- alpha feto protein
82
Trophoblast tumours release what tumour marker?
- HCG