Past q 4(midterm 2) Flashcards
Of the following mydriatics/cycloplegics, \_\_\_\_ last 7-10 days (longest) and \_\_\_\_ last 6 hours (shortest). A. Atropine; Scopolamine B. Scopolamine; Homatropine C. Homatropine; Tropicamide D. Tropicamide; Atropine E. Atropine; Tropicamide
E. Atropine; Tropicamide
Butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) is a nonspecific pseudocholinesterase located in glia, plasma, liver, and other organs. What type of local anesthetics are metabolized by BuChE (e.g. procaine), along with succinylcholine (paralytic)? A. Ester B. Ether C. Amine D. Alkane E. Alcohol
A. Ester
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine intoxication? A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Endrophonium D. Donepezil E. Pyridostigmine
B. Physostigmine
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for anesthesia? A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Endrophonium D. Donepezil E. Pyridostigmine
A. Neostigmine
Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer disease? A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Endrophonium D. Donepezil E. Pyridostigmine
D. Donepezil
Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is NOT used for Myasthenia Gravis (MG)? A. Neostigmine B. Physostigmine C. Endrophonium D. Pyridostigmine
B. Physostigmine
Which of the following is NOT an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor (organophosphate AChE inhibitors)? A. Tacrine B. Echothiophate C. Sarin, toban, soman D. Malathion, parathion E. Isoflurophate
A. Tacrine
By what mechanism do irreversible ACHE inhibitors permanently bind to the esteratic site enzyme? A. Hydroxylation B. Hydrolysis C. Phosphorylation D. Peptide E. Methylation
C. Phosphorylation
A MARK-1 auto injection kit is given to certain medical and military personnel who may be exposed
to nerve agents or organophosphate pesticides. The kit has two drugs, an acetylcholine esterase
inhibitor and a cholinesterase re-activator (antidote). What two drugs would you expect to be in this kit?
A. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) and echothiophate
B. Parathion and adenosine
C. Scopolamine and tropicamide
D. Mecamylamine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
E. Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)
Some organophosphate AChE inhibitor insecticides have a 40-hour half-life. What is the approximate half-life of soman? A. 6 seconds B. 6 minutes C. 1 hour D. 6 hours E. 60 hours
B. 6 minutes
What is currently the only ganglion blocker (shuts down entire ANS) still available in the United States? A. Mecamylamine B. Scopolamine C. Echothiophate D. Pralidoxime E. Parathion
A. Mecamylamine
Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking? A. Anhidrosis and xerostomia B. Mydriasis C. Tachycardia D. Hypertension E. Cycloplegia
D. Hypertension
Which neuromuscular blocking drug can be reversed by the cholinesterase inhibitor Neostigmine A. Succinylcholine B. Suxamethonium C. Atracurium D. Endrophonium
A. Succinylcholine
How does neuromuscular blocking drugs work?
A. Decreased blood pressure – due to histamine release
B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
C. Unusual mechanism
D. Combine reversibly with the esteratic site of the acetylcholineesterase enzyme rendering it
inactive for about 30 minutes
B. Stimulate opening or closing of nicotinic Ach receptor channel and produce or prevent depolarization of the cell membrane
What are the adverse effects of anticholinesterases? A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia E. Arrhythmia
B. Bradycardia
Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the
adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
A. Alpha-agonist
B. Alpha-blocker
C. Beta-agonist
D. Beta-blocker
B. Alpha-blocker
Blocking alpha-2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following? A. Stimulate NE release B. Inhibit NE release C. Stimulate DA release D. Inhibit DA release
A. Stimulate NE release
In cats it is a useful emetic drug: A. Xylazine B. Clonidine C. Medetomidine D. Dexmedetomidine
A. Xylazine
Not allowed in pseudo-pregnant females A. Acepromazine B. Detomidine C. Ketamine D. Propofol
A. Acepromazine
Only effective according to IV application A. Detomidine B. Acepromazine C. Ketamine D. Propofol
D. Propofol
Of these four injectable anesthetics which one is effective after IM administration? A. Ketamine B. Propofol C. Thiopental D. Metomediate
A. Ketamine
In dogs the primarily chosen drug in status epileptics A. Sodium valproate B. Diazepam C. Phenobarbital D. Sodium bromide
B. Diazepam
Contraindicated in epileptic patients: A. Morphine B. Acepromazine C. Metohexital D. Ketamine
B. Acepromazine
In medicine they can be orally applied antitussive (cough suppressing) opioid agent as well A. Fentanyl B. Codeine C. Butorphanol D. Tramadol
C. Butorphanol
Which agents are antidotes of sedative drugs? A. Dexamedetomidin B. Phenycyclidine C. Antipamezole D. Flumazenil
D. Flumazenil
“Slower to act” transmitters in CNS A. Dopamine B. Endorphins C. Enkephalins D. Serotonine (5-HT)
C. Enkephalins
Ultra-short acting barbiturates A. Pentobarbital B. Thiopental C. Butobarbital D. Venobarbital
B. Thiopental
Apply the letter code of the drug preparation type to the drug products below: A. O/W emulsion B. W/O emulsion C. Oil suspension D. Real solution
Burow solution – aluminum aceticum tartaricum Ungumentum hydrophilicum nonionicum Suspensio zinici oleosa Ungumentum aluminii acetici tartarici ????
Which one cannot be an attribute of ointments?
A. Homogenous
B. Does dissolve on body temperature
C. Cocoa-butter can be used as vehicle base
D. Does not contain solid particles
B. Does dissolve on body temperature
How frequent should be the intra-mammary infusions re-applied in case of lactating cows? A. Every 3 hours B. Every 6 hours C. Every 12 hours D. Only once
C. Every 12 hours
It is a GSH-category? A. Nutagenic B. Nou toxic for fish C. Unknown mechanism of effect D. Highly toxic
D. Highly toxic
What does “hypnotic” effect of a substance mean? A. Pain killing effect B. Causes sleeping C. Causes hallucinations D. Causes catalepsy
B. Causes sleeping
Less soluble liquid active ingredient is dispersed in the liquid vehicle:
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
B. Emulsion
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties: A. Chlorpromazine B. Promethazine C. Acepromazine D. Thiethylperazine
A. Chlorpromazine
Can be combined with carcinogenicity studies:
A. Acute toxicity studies
B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
C. Teratogenicity studies
D. Preclinical and pharmalogical investigations
B. Repeated-dose toxicity studies
Inhalational anesthetics. It is potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic and immunotoxic effect, lead to its being banned in EU: A. Halothane B. Desflurane C. Isoflurane D. Seuoflurane
A. Halothane
Sedative that can cause Paradoxical in horses: A. Romifidine B. Detomidine C. Nidazolam D. Acepromazine
D. Acepromazine
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy. A. Diazepam B. Acepromazine C. Xylazine D. Phenobarbital
B. Acepromazine
Gels are dosage form with the following attribute: A. High water content B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins C. Only oral application D. None of these
B. Its vehicle is gel of other origins
Duration of action of thiopental: A. 5-10 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 10-20 minutes
A. 5-10 minutes
Because of its anxiolytic effect, this substance can be used in stress-related diseases (e.g stress- related colitis). A. Diazepam B. Ketoprofen C. Xylazine D. Acepromazine
A. Diazepam
Sedative that decreases blood pressure hence cannot be administrated to seriously dehydrated animals. A. Azepromazine B. Diazepam C. Chlorpromazine D. Ketamine
A. Azepromazine
Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine? A. Natoxone B. Flumazenil C. Xylometazoline D. Glycopirrholate
B. Flumazenil
Duration of action of propofol: A. 5-8 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes
A. 5-8 minutes
How long is the tested substance applied to expiration duration in chronic toxicity studies? A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 10 years
A. 2 years
A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties: A. Xylazine B. Butorphanol C. Ketamine D. Propofol
B. Butorphanol
In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently? A. Rat B. Rabbit C. Beagle D. Mouse
B. Rabbit
Most important side effects of ultra-short acting barbiturates: A. Respiratory depression B. Vomiting C. Paralysis D. Blindness
A. Respiratory depression
Which of the following administrations of Diazepam would you recommend in a case of status epilepticus: A. Rectal B. Subcutaneous C. Oral D. Intramuscular
A. Rectal
Effect characteristics for medetomidine:
A. Muscle relaxant activity
