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Pharma midterm > Past q 2 (midterm 2) > Flashcards

Past q 2 (midterm 2) Flashcards

1
Q 
Butyrophenone, mainly used in swine for stress reduction:
A. Fentanyl
B. Azeperone
C. Azepromazine
D. Droperidol
A

B. Azeperone

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2
Q 
Which drug group has analgesic effect?
A. None of them
B. Alpha-2-agonists
C. Both
D. Benzodiazepines
A

B. Alpha-2-agonists

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3
Q 
Which effect is characteristic for Medetomidine?
A. Anti-inflammatory properties
B. Serious respiratory depression
C. Muscle relaxant activity
D. Causing general anaesthesia
A

C. Muscle relaxant activity

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4
Q

In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation…(?) the data of clinical
trials according to EUDRALEX requirements?
A. Part 1
B. Part 2
C. Part 4
D. Part 3

A

C. Part 4

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5
Q 
Their sedative effect is well related to the applied dose:
A. Tranquilizers
B. Fenothiazines
C. Alpha-2-RC-agonists
D. Butyrophenones
A

C. Alpha-2-RC-agonists

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6
Q 
This dosage form is the alcoholic extract of medicinal plants:
A. Solution
B. Tincture
C. Suspension
D. Emulsion
A

B. Tincture

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7
Q 
Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?
A. Milk, egg, honey
B. Edible tissue
C. Blood, urine
D. Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey
A

D. Edible tissue, milk, egg, honey

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8
Q 
The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation:
A. Metomidate
B. Tiletamine
C. Ketamine
D. Alphaxalone
A

A. Metomidate

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9
Q 
Which ointment is washable with water?
A. Hydrous ointment
B. Simple ointment
C. Hydrophilic ointment
D. Paraffin ointment
A

C. Hydrophilic ointment

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10
Q

What is the regular process of applying the intra-mammary infusion?
A. Udder-disinfection, udder wash, milking out, administration of infusing
B. Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration
C. Milking, wash, administration, disinfection,
D. Wash, milking, administration, disinfection

A

B. Udder wash, disinfection, milking out, administration

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11
Q 
Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combined with medetomidine:
A. Fentanyl
B. Ketamine
C. Diazepam
D. Butorphenol
A

D. Butorphenol

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12
Q

Which statement is not true?
A. Fluanison is useful for neuroleptanalgesia of laboratory animals in combination with fentanyl
B. Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose
C. Azaperon is useful for sedation of pigs and reducing of stress
D. Butyrophenones have slight analgesic effect

A

B. Butyrophenones cause hypnosis in high dose

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13
Q 
What may be the property of the dispersed phase in the emulsion?
A. None
B. Hydrophilic
C. Lipophilic
D. Both
A

D. Both

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14
Q

Which statement is true?
A. Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect
E. Swine is the most sensitive to Xylazine
B. The effect of benzodiazepines can be suspended with Atipamezole
C. Diazepam has pronounced emetic (?) effect in cat

A

A. Phenobarbital has CYP450-enzyme inductor effect

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15
Q 
Its important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression, and hypotension:
A. Butorphanol
B. Ketamine:
C. Atropine
D. Fentanyl
A

D. Fentanyl

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16
Q 
Injectable anaesthetic, its re-administration is prohibited:
A. Thiopental
B. Propofol
C. Ketamine
D. Methohexital
A

A. Thiopental

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17
Q

The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system are divisions of which
of the following?
A. Somatic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
B. Somatic nervous system division of central nervous system
C. Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
D. Autonomic nervous system division of central nervous system

A

C. Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system

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18
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic
sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic receptors).
A. ACh; ACh; NE
B. ACh; NE; Ach
C. NE; ACh; NE
D. NE; NE; Ach

A

A. ACh; ACh; NE

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19
Q 
Which of the following adrenergic receptors is most commonly found pre-synaptic?
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta-1
D. beta-2
A

B. alpha-2

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20
Q

Which of the following describes the result of adrenal medulla stimulation?
A. Mass parasympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
B. Mass parasympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi
C. Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi
D. Mass sympathetic discharge, 15:85 ratio of epi:norepi

A

C. Mass sympathetic discharge, 85:15 ratio of epi:norepi

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21
Q

Match the sympathetic response with the receptor:
A. Increased lipid breakdown
B. Peripheral vasoconstriction
C. Increased heart rate and blood pressure
D. Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion

A

A. Increased lipid breakdown - beta-3
B. Peripheral vasoconstriction - alpha-1
C. Increased heart rate and blood pressure - beta-1
D. Bronchial dilation, coronary dilation, glucose conversion - beta-2

22
Q 
What amino acids are converted into catecholamine’s (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?
A. Alanine
B. Proline
C. Lysine
D. Tyrosine
E. Valine
A

D. Tyrosine

23
Q 
Which of the following is transported into vesicles via the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT),
uptake 2, and a proton antiporter:
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Adrenalin
A

C. Dopamine

24
Q 
Which of the following is co-stored and co-released with ATP?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Adrenalin
A

B. Norepinephrine

25
Q

Which of the following form varicosities or en passant synapses, with the arrival of an action
potential leading to Ca2+ influx and exocytosis?
A. Presynaptic sympathetic
B. Presynaptic parasympathetic
C. Postsynaptic sympathetic
D. Postsynaptic parasympathetic

A

C. Postsynaptic sympathetic

26
Q

Which of the following methods of terminating axon response is NOT a target for drug action?
A. Reuptake via NE transporter (NET): Uptake 1
B. Metabolism of NE of inactive metabolite
C. NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft

A

C. NE diffusion away from synaptic cleft

27
Q 
NET is a symporter of what ion?
A. K+
B. Ca2+
C. Cl-
D. Na+
E. Mg2+
A

D. Na+

28
Q 
Which of the following is recycled via VMAT into vesicles after response termination?
A. NE
B. L-DOPA
C. NET
D. EPI
E. DOPGAL
A

A. NE

29
Q

Which of the following is broken down by MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) more than the others?
A. Serotonin (5-HT)
B. Norepinepherine (NE)
C. Dopamine (DA)

A

C. Dopamine (DA)

30
Q 
Where is the cytosolic catecholamine metabolizing enzyme catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT)
primarily found?
A. Liver
B. GI tract
C. Placenta
D. Blood platelets
A

A. Liver

31
Q 
Which of the following receptor subtypes relaxes smooth muscle and causes liver glycogenolysis
and gluconeogenesis?
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

D. beta-2 (Gs)

32
Q 
Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction and
genitourinary smooth muscle contraction?
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)

33
Q 
Which of the following receptor subtypes increases cardiac chronotropy (rate) and inotropy
(contractility), increases AV-node conduction velocity, and increases rennin secretion in renal
juxtaglomerular cells?
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)
A

C. beta-1 (Gs)

34
Q

Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic b-cells,
decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release, and contracts vascular smooth muscle?
A. alpha-1 (Gq/Gi/Go)
B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)
C. beta-1 (Gs)
D. beta-2 (Gs)
E. beta-3 (Gs)

A

B. alpha-2 (Gi/Go)

35
Q 
What type(s) of second messenger(s) interact with adenylyl cyclase?
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta
D. beta and alpha-1
E. beta and alpha-2
A

E. beta and alpha-2

36
Q 
What type(s) of second messenger(s) are associated with phospholipase C (PLC)?
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta
D. beta and alpha-1
E. beta and alpha-2
A

A. alpha-1

37
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with ephedrine,
amphetamine, and tyramine?
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

A

B. Promoting release of norepinephrine

38
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors?
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

A

D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

39
Q

Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with tricyclic
antidepressants and cocaine?
A. Direct binding to the receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine

A

C. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine

40
Q 
Which of the following is NOT true of catecholamines?
A. Non-polar
B. Cannot cross the blood-brain barrier
C. Cannot be used as an oral drug
D. Have brief duration
E. MAO and COMT act rapidly
A

A. Non-polar

41
Q 
Match the catecholamine with the receptor(s):
A. Isoproterenol 
B. Dobutamine 
C. Norepinepherine 
D. Dopamine 
E. Epinepherine
A 
A. Isoproterenol - beta
B. Dobutamine - beta-1
C. Norepinepherine - alpha and beta
D. Dopamine - delta-1 and delta-2
E. Epinepherine - alpha and beta
42
Q 
The basic structure of a catecholamine involves a catechol ring and which of the following types of
amines?
A. Methyl amine
B. Ethyl amine
C. Butyl amine
D. Tert-butyl amine
E. Propyl amine
A

B. Ethyl amine

43
Q

Match the noncatecholamines with the receptor agonist:
A. Clonidine
B. Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine
C. Phenylephrine

A

A. Clonidine - alpha-2-agonist
B. Metaproterenol, terbutaline, ritodine - beta-2-agonist
C. Phenylephrine - alpha-1-agonist

44
Q 
Which of the following are a long-acting (oral) a1-agonist and not a short-acting (nasal spray,
ophthalmic drops) a1-agonist?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Oxymetazoline
C. Tetrahydrazaline
D. Pseudoephedrine
A

D. Pseudoephedrine

45
Q 
Which of the following would NOT be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis
(nasal pack soaked in drug)?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Epinepherine
C. Oymetazoline
D. Isoproterenol
A

D. Isoproterenol

46
Q

Alpha-1 drugs can be given with local anesthetics to vasoconstrictor and decrease blood flow to the
side of administration. Which of the following should not be given above the web space?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Methoxamine

A

B. Epinephrine

47
Q 
Which of the following is the a1 drug of choice (DOC) for retinal exams and surgery, giving mydiasis
(dilation of iris)?
A. Ephedrine
B. Epinepherine
C. Oymetazoline
D. Isoproterenol
E. Phenylephrine
A

E. Phenylephrine

48
Q

Alpha-2-agonists are only approved for hypertension and work by decreasing sympathetic tone and
increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a a2-agonist?
A. Clonidine
B. Methyldopa
C. Guanabenz
D. Guanfacine
E. Epinephrine

A

E. Epinephrine

49
Q 
At the adrenergic synapse, what does alpha-2 do?
A. Stimulates NE release
B. Inhibits NE release
C. Stimulates ACh release
D. Inhibits ACh release
A

B. Inhibits NE release

50
Q 
Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay premature labor?
A. alpha-2-agonist
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-2-agonist
D. beta-1-agonist
A

C. beta-2-agonist

Pharma midterm (6 decks)

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