Past q 1 (midterm 2) Flashcards
Tranquilizer sedative with mild analgesic action: A. Acepromazin B. Droperidol C. Diazepam D. Midazolam
B. Droperidol
It can cause prolapse of the third eyelid in dogs, cats and horses: A. Acepromazine B. Detomidine C. Xylazine D. Diazepam
A. Acepromazine
In the absence of special label instruction, the multi-dose injections can be used ...days after being opened for the first time: A. 21 B. Unlimited C. 28 D. 4
C. 28
What is “GMP”? A. Good veterinary practice B. Good clinical practice C. Good manufacturing Practice D. Good laboratory Practice
C. Good manufacturing Practice
Sedative drugs with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics: A. Xylazine B. Acepromazine C. Medetomidine D. Buprenorphine
B. Acepromazine
Which animal species is most sensitive to Xylazine? A. Horse B. Cattle C. Dog D. Swine
B. Cattle
Which type of alterations can be caused by the mutagens on the chromosomes? A. Numerical abnormalities B. Structural abnormalities C. None of them D. Both
D. Both
Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?
A. Examination of drug manufacturing processes
B. Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
C. Kinetics and residual drug examinations
D. Toxicology examinations
B. Human and veterinary clinical drug examination
Pre- and post narcotic excitation is the least frequently seen when using this inhalational anaesthetic A. Halothane B. Isoflurane C. Sevoflurane D. Methoxyflurane
C. Sevoflurane
It can cause penile prolapse in male swine: A. Diazepam B. Azeperone C. Detomidine D. Xylazine
B. Azeperone
When applying this anaesthetic, the animal shows signs of catalepsy; its muscles are usually rigid, hypertonic A. Methohexial B. Morphine C. Ketamine D. Propofol
C. Ketamine
What is the physical state of the dispersed phase in the suspension? A. Liquid B. Solid C. None D. Both
B. Solid
What kind of examinations has to be conducted according to the rules and regulations of GLP?
A. Examination of drug manufacturing processes
B. Human clinical drug examination
C. Veterinary clinical drug examinations
D. Preclinical examinations: toxicology (?), Kinetics, and residual drug examination
D. Preclinical examinations: toxicology (?), Kinetics, and residual drug examination
The injections have to be always: A. Sterile B. Isoionic C. Clear solution D. pH neutral
A. Sterile
What is the extracting agent to prepare exact? A. None of them B. Watery C. Alcoholic D. Both
D. Both
Which ointment is not washable with water? A. Cetomacrogol emulsifying ointment B. Hydrophilic ointment C. Paraffin ointment D. Emulsifying wax
C. Paraffin ointment
Alpha-2 agonist, which is not used in horses: A. Detomidine B. Xylazine C. Medetomidine D. Romifidine
C. Medetomidine
Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to dehydrated animals A. Ketamine B. Diazepam C. Acepromazine D. Butorphanol
C. Acepromazine
Which drug causes cardiovascular depression? A. Propofol B. Both C. None of them D. Etomidate
A. Propofol
Which matrices are investigated in a pharmacokinetic examination? A. Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs B. Blood C. Edible tissues D. Urine
A. Blood, urine, stool, milk, eggs
Their sedative effect is less related to the applied dose: A. Barbiturated B. Tranquilizers C. Alpha2-RC-agonists D. Benzodiazepines
B. Tranquilizers
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsion, hence not suitable for administration to patient with epilepsy: A. Acepromazine B. Phenobarbital C. Diazepam D. Xylazine
A. Acepromazine
Which drug group has analgesic effect? A. Both B. None of them C. Alpha-2 agonists D. Benzodiazepines
C. Alpha-2 agonists
This ultra short acting barbiturate can be re-administered within one day: A. Thiamilal B. Methohexital C. Pentobarbital D. Thiopental
B. Methohexital
What is the formulation type of Cremor aqueous? A. Solution type B. Suspension type C. Water in oil (W/O) emulsion cream D. Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
D. Oil in water (O/W) emulsion cream
Which investigation does not belong to the toxicological studies?
A. Following pf the unwanted side effect after authorization
B. Mutagenicity study
C. Local tolerance study
D. Teratogenic investigation
A. Following pf the unwanted side effect after authorization
Thiopental can be administered: A. IV/IM/SC B. IV/IM C. IM D. IV
D. IV
The solid matter content of liquid extraction is: A. 50-70% B. 50 % C. > 94 % D. > 70 %
B. 50 %
Which Butyrophenone (tranquilizer) is mainly used in lab rodents: A. Azaperone B. Acepromazine C. Fluanisone D. Tiethylperazine
C. Fluanisone
Which attribute of a new chemical is tested in the AMES test? A. Environment toxicity B. Dermal toxicity C. Mutagenicity D. Teratogenicity
C. Mutagenicity
The extravascular administration of this anaesthetic drug causes strong tissue irritation: A. Tiletamine B. Ketamine C. Alphaxalone D. Thiamilal
D. Thiamilal
The micronucleus test:
A. Is an electron microscope method for determining teratogenicity
B. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
C. Is an electron microscope method for determining mutagenicity
D. Is a light microscope method for determining teratogenicity
B. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
Which ingredient of ointment base belongs to the hydrocarbons? A. Wool wax B. Hard paraffin C. Methylcellulose D. Flax oil
B. Hard paraffin
Which of the following is considered as a water-insoluble base? A. Hydroxyethyl cellulose B. Macrogol 400 C. Cocoa butter D. Gelatine
C. Cocoa butter
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties: A. Butorphenol B. Xylazine C. Chlorpromazine D. Romifidine
C. Chlorpromazine
Alpha-2 agonist NOT used in horses A. Medetomidine B. Romifidine C. Xylazine D. Detomidine
A. Medetomidine
Serious tissue irritation is not characteristic for this anaesthetic, hence it can be applied IM: A. Ketamine B. Etomidate C. Metomidate D. Thiopental
A. Ketamine
Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment? A. White vaseline B. Simple ointment C. Cocoa butter D. Paraffin ointment
A. White vaseline
Generally, how often should inflammatory infusion be administered in lactating cows? A. Every 3 hours B. Only once C. Every 8-12 hours D. Every 6 hours
C. Every 8-12 hours
Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?
A. Cocoa butter can be used as a vehicle base
B. Dissolves at BT
C. Homogenous
D. Does not contain solid particles
B. Dissolves at BT
It increases the release of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animal A. Xylazine B. Phenobarbital C. Diazepam D. Chlorpromazine
D. Chlorpromazine
Which investigation belongs to the clinical phase? A. Pharmacological study B. Field trial C. Environmental toxicity study D. Food safety study
B. Field trial
Which statement is not true?
A. The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirements for injections
B. If the pH of the injection is too low or too high it is given slowly IV
C. Highly tissue irritative injections should be applied IV only
D. Oily solution and suspension, emulsion are generally contraindicated IV
A. The sterility and pyrogen free are not special requirements for injections
The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on: A. 3 animal species B. 1 animal species C. 4 animal species D. 2 animal species
D. 2 animal species
Sedative that decreases BP, hence cannot be administrated to dehydrated animals: A. Butorphenol B. Acepromazine C. Diazepam D. Ketamine
B. Acepromazine
What is a goal of pharmacological investigations in drug research? A. Repeated-dose toxicity studies B. Determination of mechanism .. C. Bioequivalence studies D. Target-animal tolerance investigation
B. Determination of mechanism ..
In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can ...? A. Naloxone B. Flumazenile C. Atipamezole D. Yohimbine
A. Naloxone
Sedative drug with pronounced antiemetic action A. Xylazine B. Acepromazine C. Pheobarbital D. Diazepam
B. Acepromazine
What is the formulation type of Suspensio terpini? A. Emulsion B. Aquous suspension C. Solution D. Oily suspension
B. Aquous suspension
This base ointment is applicable of O/W type of ointments: A. Hydrophilic ointment B. Vaseline C. Paraffin ointment D. Simple ointment
A. Hydrophilic ointment
