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Pharma midterm > Past q 3 (midterm 2) > Flashcards

Past q 3 (midterm 2) Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following agonists would be used for cardiogenic shock, cardiac arrest, heart block, or
heart failure?
A. alpha-1-agonist
B. alpha-2-agonist
C. beta-1-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist
A

C. beta-1-agonist

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2
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a beta-2-agonist?
A. Terbutaline
B. Ritodrine
C. Metaproterenol
D. Albuterol
E. Phenylepherine
A

E. Phenylepherine

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3
Q 
Beta-2 stimulation leads to an increase in the cellular uptake of what ion, and thus a decrease in
plasma concentration of that ion?
A. K+
B. Ca2+
C. Cl-
D. Na+
E. Mg2+
A

A. K+

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4
Q

Dopamine receptor activation (D1) dilates renal blood vessels at low dose. At higher doses
(treatment for shock), which of the following receptor is activated?
A. alpha-1
B. alpha-2
C. beta-1
D. beta-2

A

C. beta-1

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5
Q 
Which of the following responses to sympathetic stimulation would prevent receptors from being
couples with G-proteins?
A. Sequestration
B. Down-regulation
C. Phosphorylation
A

C. Phosphorylation

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6
Q 
Which of the following is the action of the indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug cocaine?
A. Stimulator of NET (uptake 1)
B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
C. Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)
D. Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
A

B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

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7
Q 
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a great deal of side effects. Which of the following is the
action of TCAs?
A. Stimulator of NET (uptake 1)
B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)
C. Stimulator of VMAT (uptake 2)
D. Inhibitor of VMAT (uptake 2)
A

B. Inhibitor of NET (uptake 1)

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8
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a mixed sympathomimetic?
A. Amphetamine
B. Methamphetamine
C. Phenylepherine
D. Pseudoephedrine
A

C. Phenylepherine

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9
Q

Prior to an operation to remove a pheochromocytoma (neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the
adrenal glands), which of the following should be given to the patient?
A. alpha-agonist
B. alpha-blocker
C. beta-agonist
D. beta-blocker

A

B. alpha-blocker

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10
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an indication for b-blocker therapy?
A. Hypotension
B. Angina pectoris
C. Arrhythmias
D. Myocardial infarction
A

A. Hypotension

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11
Q 
Which of the following b-blockers is used for decreasing aqueous humor secretions from the ciliary
body?
A. Propranolol
B. Nadolol
C. Timolol
D. Metoprolol
A

D. Metoprolol

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12
Q 
Which of the following is NOT considered cardio selective?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Esmolol
D. Carvedilol
A

D. Carvedilol

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13
Q 
Blocking a2 presynaptic receptors will do which of the following?
A. Stimulate NE release
B. Inhibit NE release
C. Stimulate DA release
D. Inhibit DA release
A

A. Stimulate NE release

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14
Q 
Which of the following drugs irreversibly damages VMAT?
A. Tyramine
B. Guanethidine
C. Reserpine
D. Propranolol
A

D. Propranolol

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15
Q 
Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a
alpha-1-agonist drug?
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Tissue necrosis
D. Vasodilation
A

B. Hypertension

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16
Q

Which of the following agonists can have dose-related withdrawal syndrome if the drug is withdrawn
too quickly, leading to rebound hypertension?
A. alpha-1-agonist
B. alpha-2-agonist
C. beta-1-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist

A

B. alpha-2-agonist

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17
Q

Which of the following agonists can have sedation and xerostomia (dry mouth) in 50% of patients
starting therapy, sexual dysfunction in males, nauseas, dizziness, and sleep disturbances?
A. alpha-1-agonist
B. alpha-2-agonist
C. beta-1-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist

A

B. alpha-2-agonist

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18
Q 
Which of the following agonists can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics?
A. alpha-2-agonist
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-3-agonist
D. beta-2-agonist
A

D. beta-2-agonist

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19
Q 
Angina pectoris, tachycardia, and arrhythmias are possible adverse effects of which of the
following agonists?
A. alpha-2-agonist
B. alpha-1-agonist
C. beta-2-agonist
D. beta-1-agonist
A

D. beta-1-agonist

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20
Q

If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese), which of the
following acute responses is most likely? (Sympathomimetic)
A. Stimulation of NE release
B. Inhibition of NE release
C. Stimulation of ACh release
D. Inhibition of ACh release

A

A. Stimulation of NE release

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21
Q 
Which of the following occurs acutely, leading to a false neurotransmitter, with increased
guanethidine? (Sympathomimetic)
A. Stimulation of NE release
B. Inhibition of NE release
C. Stimulation of ACh release
D. Inhibition of ACh release
A

A. Stimulation of NE release

22
Q 
Major adverse affects of the a1 blockade include reflex tachycardia and which of the following?
A. Orthostatic tachycardia
B. Orthostatic bradycardia
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
A

D. Orthostatic hypotension

23
Q 
Which of the following effects would be intensified with the a2 blockade?
A. Reflex tachycardia
B. Reflex bradycardia
C. Orthostatic hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
A

A. Reflex tachycardia

24
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an adverse affect of the b1 blockade?
A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. AV node block
D. Increased arrhythmias
A

D. Increased arrhythmias

25
Q 
Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with sudden
termination of b1-blockers?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Syncope (fainting)
C. Angina
D. Sudden death
A

D. Sudden death

26
Q 
Which of the following groups of patients is most at risk for adverse effect seen in b2-blockers?
A. Asthmatics
B. Congestive heart failure patients
C. Trauma patients
D. Diabetics
A

A. Asthmatics

27
Q 
Which of the following can be detrimental in diabetics and also can lead to masking of tachycardia,
which is indicative of hypoglycemia?
A. alpha-1-blocker
B. alpha-2-blocker
C. beta-1-blocker
D. beta-2-blocker
A

D. beta-2-blocker

28
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the parasympathetic nervous system?
A. Is considered cranio-sacral
B. Involves rest and digestion functions
C. Has nicotinic receptors on cell bodies of all postganglionic neurons
D. Target organs have muscarinic receptors for ACh
E. Innervation of vascular smooth muscle

A

E. Innervation of vascular smooth muscle

29
Q 
Where is acetyl CoA synthesized (pre-synthesis for ACh)?
A. Synaptic cleft
B. Cytosol
C. Mitochondria
D. Extracellular matrix
E. Lysosomes
A

C. Mitochondria

30
Q 
Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?
A. Milk
B. Liver
C. Eggs
D. Peanuts
E. Blood plasma
A

E. Blood plasma

31
Q 
What part of the cholinergic synapse is affected by botulinum toxin?
A. ACh increased
B. ACh decreased
C. Muscarinic ACh receptor modified
D. Nicotinic ACh receptor modified
E. AChE inhibited
A

B. ACh decreased

32
Q 
ACh is packaged into vesicles via what ACh ion antiporter?
A. K+
B. Ca2+
C. Cl-
D. Na+
E. H+
A

E. H+

33
Q 
Influx of what ion causes ACh release into the synaptic cleft, prior to ACh being terminated by
acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
A. K+
B. Ca2+
C. Cl-
D. Na+
E. H+
A

B. Ca2+

34
Q 
Nicotinic N2 receptors are the \_\_\_\_ subtype and nicotinic N1 receptors are the \_\_\_\_subtype.
A. Neuronal; Muscular
B. Muscular; Neuronal
C. Nodal; Neuronal
D. Neuronal; Nodal
E. Sympathetic; Parasympathetic
A

A. Neuronal; Muscular

35
Q 
Which of the following best description of the drug nicotine?
A. Muscular subtype nicotinic agonist
B. Muscular subtype nicotinic antagonist
C. Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist
D. Neuronal subtype nicotinic antagonist
A

C. Neuronal subtype nicotinic agonist

36
Q 
Amanita muscaria (fly Amanita) is a fungal muscarinic agonist, which is most often associated with
which side effect?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Euphoria
D. Sedation
E. Hallucinations
A

E. Hallucinations

37
Q

Which of the following G-protein is associated with smooth muscle and glandular tissue, muscarinic
receptor M3, mobilizing internal Ca2+ and the DAG cascade?
A. Gs
B. Gi
C. Gq
D. Go

A

C. Gq

38
Q 
Which of the following G-protein is associated with heart and intestines, muscarinic receptor M2,
decreasing adenylyl cyclase activity.
A. Gs
B. Gi
C. Gq
D. Go
A

B. Gi

39
Q 
The drugs bethanechol and pilocarpine are:
A. Acetylcholine agonists
B. Acetylcholine antagonists
C. Muscarinic agonists
D. Muscarinic antagonists
E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A

C. Muscarinic agonists

40
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
A. Release of nitric oxide (vasodilation)
B. Iris contraction (miosis)
C. Ciliary muscle contraction and accommodation of the lens (near vision)
D. Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions
E. Salivary/lacrimal thin and watery secretions

A

D. Bronchi dilation and decreased bronchiole secretions

41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary effect of stimulating muscarinic M receptors?
A. Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity
B. Increased GI tract tone and secretions
C. Diaphoresis from sweat glands
D. Penile erection
E. Contraction of urinary detrusor muscle and relaxation of urinary sphincter

A

A. Tachycardia, increased conduction velocity

42
Q

What is bethanechol most commonly used for?
A. For decreasing heart rate
B. To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
C. For urinary retention
D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
E. For erectile dysfunction

A

C. For urinary retention

43
Q

What is pilocarpine most commonly used for?
A. For decreasing heart rate
B. To decrease blood pressure (vasodilation)
C. For urinary retention
D. Decreasing intraocular pressure
E. For erectile dysfunction

A

D. Decreasing intraocular pressure

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as would be seen with a
nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?
A. Diarrhea
B. Diaphoresis
C. Mydriasis
D. Nausea
E. Urinary urgency

A

C. Mydriasis

45
Q 
What type of drugs are atropine, scopolamine, and pirenzepine?
A. Acetylcholine agonists
B. Acetylcholine antagonists
C. Muscarinic agonists
D. Muscarinic antagonists
E. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A

D. Muscarinic antagonists

46
Q 
What drug is a natural alkaloid found in Solanaceae plants (deadly nightshade)?
A. Bethanechol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Pirenzepine
D. Scopolamine
E. Atropine
A

E. Atropine

47
Q

What two clinical results of atropine facilitate opthalmoscopic examination?
A. Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation
B. Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)
C. Miosis and increased lacrimation
D. Mydriasis and cycloplegia
E. Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and mydriasis

A

D. Mydriasis and cycloplegia

48
Q 
Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?
A. Increased salivation
B. Blurred vision
C. Bradycardia
D. Diaphoresis
E. Decreased intraocular pressure
A

B. Blurred vision

49
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a major symptom of atropine toxicity?
A. Blind as a bat
B. Red as a beet
C. Mad as a hatter
D. Hot as a hare
E. Wet as a towel
A

E. Wet as a towel

50
Q 
Which of the following topical ophthalmic drugs is also used for motion sickness? (injection, oral, or
transdermal patch)
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Homatropine
D. Tropicamide
A

B. Scopolamine

Pharma midterm (6 decks)

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