past paper mistakes Flashcards

1
Q

what is the HUS triad?

A
  • AKI
  • thrombocytopenia
  • normocytic anaemia
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2
Q

what blood gas could be seen in congenital adrenal hyperplasia ?

A

salt losing adrenal crisis (reduced cortisol and aldosterone)
- hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemic metabolic acidosis

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3
Q

which areas in the body are protected from chemotherapeutic agents ? (sanctuary sites) why is this ?

A

the testes and CNS (due to existence of the blood brain barrier)

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4
Q

what does double bubble sign on AXR indicate ? with what condition is this associated ?

A

duodenal atresia
- associated with downs syndrome

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5
Q

what are the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia ? (4)

A
  • 3rd person auditory hallucinations and/or thought echo
  • passivity phenomenon (believing thought or actions are being controlled day an external force)
  • thought alienation (withdrawal, broadcast, insertion)
  • delusional perception (assigning a false meaning to a real stimulus)
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6
Q

what is the train of serotonin syndrome ?

A
  • neuromuscular excitability
  • autonomic dysfunction (hypo or hypertension)
  • altered mental state
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7
Q

what would you expect to find on investigations of neuroleptic malignant syndrome ? (4) what blood gas?

A
  • raised CK (due to muscle rigidity)
  • raised WCC
  • deranged LFTs
  • acute renal failure => abnormal U+Es
  • metabolic acidosis
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8
Q

IUGR RF ?

A
  • maternal age of <16 or >35
  • low BMI (<18.5)
  • pre-pregnancy weight >75kg
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9
Q

compression of which nerve root results in foot drop ?

A

L5 nerve root compression due to weakness of foot dorsiflexor muscles

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9
Q

what drug is used to improved prognosis in ALS ?

A

riluzole

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10
Q

what is the definition of orthostatic hypotension ? give the values

A
  • 20 mm Hg or more systolic or 10 mm Hg or more diastolic within three minutes of standing from the supine position or on assuming a head-up position of at least 60 degrees during tilt table testing.
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11
Q

How does NAC work ?

A

replenishes body stores of glutathione (which is needed to detoxify intermediary product of paracetamol metabolism - NAPQI)

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12
Q

which nail change associated with IDA?

A

koilonychia

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13
Q

what is the action of aspirin ? what does it act on?

A

COX-1 inhibitor

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14
Q

what is the action of clopidogrel? what does it act on?

A

P2Y12 inhibitor

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15
Q

bence jones proteins detected in urine. what condition associated with?

A

multiple myeloma

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16
Q

explain the metformin rules for surgery ? how does the frequency affect it ?

A
  • OD or BD take as normal
  • TDS omit lunchtime dose
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17
Q

what kind of bruising is associated with basal skull fracture ? (2)

A
  • racoon eyes (peri-orbital bruising)
  • battles signs (pst-auricular bruising)
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18
Q

what infectious disease is this?
strawberry tongue, facial sparing

A

scarlet fever

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19
Q

what infectious disease is this?
herald patch followed by additional red macules ?

A

pityriasis rosea

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20
Q

describe the U+Es in paget’s disease ?

A
  • Calcium/phosphate/PTH normal
  • ALP raised
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21
Q

mechanical valves, target INR ? (2)

A
  • mitral: 3.5
  • aortic: 3
22
Q

tear drop poikilocytes on blood film associated with what condition ?

A

myelofibrosis

23
Q

otitis media pathogens ? (4) most common ?

A
  • most are bacterial: strep pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza
  • viral: RSV, adenovirus
24
what is given to patient for otitis media ? if penicillin allergy ?
- amoxicillin - clarithromycin
25
symptoms of pre-ecclpamsia ? (5) other than headache and visual disturbance
- N+V - abdo/epigastric pain - oedema - reduced urine output - brisk reflexes
26
what may you find on blood tests as a result of eclampsia ?
HELLP syndrome - haemolysis - elevated liver enzymes - low platelets
27
name some side effects of Parkinson's treatment ? (6)
- dry mouth - postural hypotension - psychosis - dystonia - chorea - dyskinesia
28
what is a seizure ?
transient episode of abnormal electrical activity in the brain
29
what are the 2 recommended tests from NICE to assess patents at risk of falls ?
- turn 180 test - timed up and go test
30
what are the 5 stages to the trans theoretical model ?
- pre-contemplation - contemplation - preparation - action - maintenance
31
what are the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia ? (4)
- auditory hallucinations - thought disorder - passivity phenomena - delusional perceptions
32
syphilis causative organism
treponema pallidum
33
what is the most common complication of measles ?
otitis media
34
what are the 4 beliefs individuals must have if they are to change their behaviour according to health belief model ?
- Believe are susceptible to the condition - believe in serious consequences - believe taking action reduces susceptibilty - believe that benefits of action outweigh the costs
35
what test do you do for infectious mononucleosis ?
monospot antibody test
36
infectious mononucleosis complications ?
- chronic fatigue syndrome - splenic rupture (so avoid contact sports) - encephalitis/meningitis
37
under what age should HTN be investigated for secondary cause ?
<40
38
what dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis ?
500 micrograms (of 1:1000 concentration / 1 mg/mLconcentration)
39
what blood test should be performed once patient with anaphylaxis has stabilised ?
serum mast cell tryptase
40
what is the surgical management of pyloric stenosis ?
laparoscopic pyelomyotomy
41
which parts of the adrenal make all of these: - aldosterone - cortisol - androgens - adrenaline
- aldosterone: zona glomerulosa - cortisol: zona fasciculata - androgens: zona reticularis - adrenaline: medulla
42
what does high vaginal charcoal swab check for ?
- BV - TV - candidiasis - GBS
43
name the pathogen for these STIs - gonorrhoea - chlamydia - syphillis
- Neisseria gonorrhoeae - chlamydia trachomatis - treponema pallidum
44
signs of PID ?
- fever - pelvic pain - cervical motion tenderness - deep dyspareunia - postcoital bleeding
45
what is the manamgnet of hypercalcaemia ? (2)
- IV normal saline - IV bisphsophonate
46
indications for ICU for pneumonia admission
- hypotensive - CURB 3-5 with comorbidities - respiaroty or metabolic acidosis - exhaustion/drowsiness
47
what is transudate, what exudate ? what values ?
trans is low protein < 30 exudate is high protein > 30 if between 25-30 do lights criteria
48
how to calculate serum osmolality ?
2 (sodium) + glucose + urea
49
what is imatinib used for ?
CML chemo
50
where are the 3 narrowing points of real tract where sones may get stuck ?
- pelvouretierc junction - crossing the pelvic brim - vesicouretiric junction
51
what are the 3 parts to cushings triad ?
- hypertension - bradycardia - irregular breathing
52
what is the classic triad of pyelonephritis ?
- loin/flnak pain - fever - nausea and vomiting