past paper mistakes Flashcards

1
Q

what is the HUS triad?

A
  • AKI
  • thrombocytopenia
  • normocytic anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what blood gas could be seen in congenital adrenal hyperplasia ?

A

salt losing adrenal crisis (reduced cortisol and aldosterone)
- hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemic metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which areas in the body are protected from chemotherapeutic agents ? (sanctuary sites) why is this ?

A

the testes and CNS (due to existence of the blood brain barrier)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does double bubble sign on AXR indicate ? with what condition is this associated ?

A

duodenal atresia
- associated with downs syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia ? (4)

A
  • 3rd person auditory hallucinations and/or thought echo
  • passivity phenomenon (believing thought or actions are being controlled day an external force)
  • thought alienation (withdrawal, broadcast, insertion)
  • delusional perception (assigning a false meaning to a real stimulus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the train of serotonin syndrome ?

A
  • neuromuscular excitability
  • autonomic dysfunction (hypo or hypertension)
  • altered mental state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what would you expect to find on investigations of neuroleptic malignant syndrome ? (4) what blood gas?

A
  • raised CK (due to muscle rigidity)
  • raised WCC
  • deranged LFTs
  • acute renal failure => abnormal U+Es
  • metabolic acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IUGR RF ?

A
  • maternal age of <16 or >35
  • low BMI (<18.5)
  • pre-pregnancy weight >75kg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

compression of which nerve root results in foot drop ?

A

L5 nerve root compression due to weakness of foot dorsiflexor muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what drug is used to improved prognosis in ALS ?

A

riluzole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the definition of orthostatic hypotension ? give the values

A
  • 20 mm Hg or more systolic or 10 mm Hg or more diastolic within three minutes of standing from the supine position or on assuming a head-up position of at least 60 degrees during tilt table testing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does NAC work ?

A

replenishes body stores of glutathione (which is needed to detoxify intermediary product of paracetamol metabolism - NAPQI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which nail change associated with IDA?

A

koilonychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the action of aspirin ? what does it act on?

A

COX-1 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the action of clopidogrel? what does it act on?

A

P2Y12 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bence jones proteins detected in urine. what condition associated with?

A

multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

explain the metformin rules for surgery ? how does the frequency affect it ?

A
  • OD or BD take as normal
  • TDS omit lunchtime dose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what kind of bruising is associated with basal skull fracture ? (2)

A
  • racoon eyes (peri-orbital bruising)
  • battles signs (pst-auricular bruising)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what infectious disease is this?
strawberry tongue, facial sparing

A

scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what infectious disease is this?
herald patch followed by additional red macules ?

A

pityriasis rosea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe the U+Es in paget’s disease ?

A
  • Calcium/phosphate/PTH normal
  • ALP raised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

mechanical valves, target INR ? (2)

A
  • mitral: 3.5
  • aortic: 3
22
Q

tear drop poikilocytes on blood film associated with what condition ?

A

myelofibrosis

23
Q

otitis media pathogens ? (4) most common ?

A
  • most are bacterial: strep pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza
  • viral: RSV, adenovirus
24
Q

what is given to patient for otitis media ? if penicillin allergy ?

A
  • amoxicillin
  • clarithromycin
25
Q

symptoms of pre-ecclpamsia ? (5) other than headache and visual disturbance

A
  • N+V
  • abdo/epigastric pain
  • oedema
  • reduced urine output
  • brisk reflexes
26
Q

what may you find on blood tests as a result of eclampsia ?

A

HELLP syndrome
- haemolysis
- elevated liver enzymes
- low platelets

27
Q

name some side effects of Parkinson’s treatment ? (6)

A
  • dry mouth
  • postural hypotension
  • psychosis
  • dystonia
  • chorea
  • dyskinesia
28
Q

what is a seizure ?

A

transient episode of abnormal electrical activity in the brain

29
Q

what are the 2 recommended tests from NICE to assess patents at risk of falls ?

A
  • turn 180 test
  • timed up and go test
30
Q

what are the 5 stages to the trans theoretical model ?

A
  • pre-contemplation
  • contemplation
  • preparation
  • action
  • maintenance
31
Q

what are the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia ? (4)

A
  • auditory hallucinations
  • thought disorder
  • passivity phenomena
  • delusional perceptions
32
Q

syphilis causative organism

A

treponema pallidum

33
Q

what is the most common complication of measles ?

A

otitis media

34
Q

what are the 4 beliefs individuals must have if they are to change their behaviour according to health belief model ?

A
  • Believe are susceptible to the condition
  • believe in serious consequences
  • believe taking action reduces susceptibilty
  • believe that benefits of action outweigh the costs
35
Q

what test do you do for infectious mononucleosis ?

A

monospot antibody test

36
Q

infectious mononucleosis complications ?

A
  • chronic fatigue syndrome
  • splenic rupture (so avoid contact sports)
  • encephalitis/meningitis
37
Q

under what age should HTN be investigated for secondary cause ?

38
Q

what dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis ?

A

500 micrograms
(of 1:1000 concentration / 1 mg/mLconcentration)

39
Q

what blood test should be performed once patient with anaphylaxis has stabilised ?

A

serum mast cell tryptase

40
Q

what is the surgical management of pyloric stenosis ?

A

laparoscopic pyelomyotomy

41
Q

which parts of the adrenal make all of these:
- aldosterone
- cortisol
- androgens
- adrenaline

A
  • aldosterone: zona glomerulosa
  • cortisol: zona fasciculata
  • androgens: zona reticularis
  • adrenaline: medulla
42
Q

what does high vaginal charcoal swab check for ?

A
  • BV
  • TV
  • candidiasis
  • GBS
43
Q

name the pathogen for these STIs
- gonorrhoea
- chlamydia
- syphillis

A
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • chlamydia trachomatis
  • treponema pallidum
44
Q

signs of PID ?

A
  • fever
  • pelvic pain
  • cervical motion tenderness
  • deep dyspareunia
  • postcoital bleeding
45
Q

what is the manamgnet of hypercalcaemia ? (2)

A
  • IV normal saline
  • IV bisphsophonate
46
Q

indications for ICU for pneumonia admission

A
  • hypotensive
  • CURB 3-5 with comorbidities
  • respiaroty or metabolic acidosis
  • exhaustion/drowsiness
47
Q

what is transudate, what exudate ? what values ?

A

trans is low protein < 30
exudate is high protein > 30
if between 25-30 do lights criteria

48
Q

how to calculate serum osmolality ?

A

2 (sodium) + glucose + urea

49
Q

what is imatinib used for ?

50
Q

where are the 3 narrowing points of real tract where sones may get stuck ?

A
  • pelvouretierc junction
  • crossing the pelvic brim
  • vesicouretiric junction
51
Q

what are the 3 parts to cushings triad ?

A
  • hypertension
  • bradycardia
  • irregular breathing
52
Q

what is the classic triad of pyelonephritis ?

A
  • loin/flnak pain
  • fever
  • nausea and vomiting