Infectious disease Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

which class of antibiotics target cell wall synthesis ? (2)

A
  • beta lactams
  • glycopeptides
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2
Q

name some beta lactams ?

A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
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3
Q

tazocin is a mix of what ?

A
  • piperacillin (abx)
  • tazobactam (beta lactam inhibitor)
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4
Q

name some glycopeptides ?

A
  • vancomycin
  • teicoplanin
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5
Q

what is the pathogen in TB ?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis
(bacteria)

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6
Q

what staining does TB have ? (2)

A
  • acid fast bacillus with waxy coating (so gram stain ineffective)
  • zeihl-neelsen (red)
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7
Q

TB epidemiology: in who more common ?

A
  • south East Asian
  • immunocompromised (HIV)
  • close TB contact
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8
Q

what does the slow growing of TB mean ?

A

slow reproduction => slow onset of disease and slow response to treatment
- difficult to culture and treat

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9
Q

what is primary TB ?

A

bacteria has initial contact with alveolar macrophage => uses macrophages to proliferate => then to lymph nodes => cell mediated immunity

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10
Q

what is active TB ?

A

where there is active infection in parts of the body

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11
Q

what is latent TB ? bodys response ?

A

immune system encapsulates site of infection (granuloma) => slow progression

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12
Q

what happens to the granulomas in TB ?

A

provides area for TB to grow + block from systemic infection => latent, dormancy §

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13
Q

what is secondary TB ?

A

when latent TB reactivates

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14
Q

what is miliary TB ?

A

immun system unable to control disease

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15
Q

where are the most common site for TB ? why ?

A
  • lungs - apex (plenty of oxy and low blood => low immune cells)
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16
Q

name some locations of extra pulmonary TB ?

A
  • lymph nodes
  • pleura
  • CNS
  • pericardium
  • GI/GU system
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17
Q

BCG vaccine: who offered to ?

A
  • neonates with a FHx
  • healthcare workers
  • <35 with close contact to TB
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18
Q

TB Px ?

A

Hx of chronic gradually worsening sx (mostly pulmonary)
- lethary
- fever
- weight loss
- cough (+/- haemoptysis)
- lymphadenopathy
- spinal pain

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19
Q

what is gold standard Ix for active TB ?

A
  • sputum culture
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20
Q

why would you do NAAT acid fast test for TB ?

A

sputum culture takes 2-3 weeks
whereas NAAT takes 24-48 hrs (alot quicker but less specific)

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21
Q

what test is done to screen for latent TB ? (2)

A
  • Mantoux test
    (indicates prev vaccination/latent/active)
  • interferon-gamma blood test
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22
Q

what imaging would be done for active TB px ? what would this show ?

A

CXR
- primary TB: pleural effusions
- reactivated: nodular consolidation with cavitations
- disseminated miliary (millet seeds)

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23
Q

latent TB Mx ?

A

if at risk of reactivation
- isoniazid + rifampicin (3 months)

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24
Q

acute active pulmonary TB Mx ? how long of each

A

6 months
- rifampicin + isoniazid
2 months
- pyrazinamide + ethambutol

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25
Q

what else should you test for when pt has TB ? (5)

A
  • hep B/C
  • HIV
  • test contacts for TB
  • notify public health
  • isolate during active TB
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26
Q

rfiampicid SE ?

A
  • red/orange discolouration of secretions
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27
Q

isoniazid SE ?

A

peripheral neurophathy

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28
Q

which Tb med can cause peripheral neuropathy ? what do you give alongside ?

A

pyridoxone prophylaxis (isoniazid causes it)

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29
Q

ethambutol SE ?

A

colour blindness

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30
Q

which TB drugs cause hepatotoxicity ?

31
Q

what cells does HIV target ? what does this cause ?

A

damages CD4 presenting cells of the immune system
(T-helper cells, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells)
=> makes body prone to opportunistic disease + cancer

32
Q

what is AIDS ?

A

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
- describes a group of potentially life threatening infections + diseases that happen when immune system is compromised (because of HIV)

33
Q

what determines when someone has AIDS ?

A

when CD4 count is <200 (should be above 500)

34
Q

HIV sx ?

A

short flu like illness (2-6 weeks after infection)
- headache, fatigue, ulcers in mouth/anus/genitals
- red rash that doesn’t itch

35
Q

which pregnant women get HIV antenatal testing ?

A

every pregnant women

36
Q

what is first line for HIV screening ?

A

HIV antibody and HIV antigen (p24 antigen)

37
Q

HIV treatment ? aim of it ?

A

try to decrease viral load (undetectable) and increase CD4 count

38
Q

what is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV ?

A

pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

39
Q

what is kaposis sarcoma ? caused by what pathogen ?

A

AIDs defining illness
- causes by HHV 8

40
Q

what pathogen causes cold sores on the mouth ?

A

mainly HSV1

41
Q

what pathogen causes genital herpes ?

A

mainly HSV 2

42
Q

name some pathogens that cause diarrhoea without blood ? (4)

A
  • norovirus
  • rotavirus
  • enterotoxigenic E.Coli
  • cholera
43
Q

name some pathogens that cause bloody diarrhoea ?

A
  • shigella
  • shiva-toxin producing E.Coli (STEC)
  • campylobacter
  • salmonella
44
Q

in a bacterial eye disease, describe:
the secretions ?
other features ?

A

secretions: prurulent
features: red and swollen

45
Q

in a viral eye disease, describe:
the secretions ?
other features ?

A

secretions: watery
features: +/- corneal lesion

46
Q

bacterial eye disease tx ?

A

topical abx for 5 days

47
Q

viral eye disease tx ?

A

symptomatic

48
Q

chlamydial eye disease presentaiton ?

A

mucopurulent secretions
- follicles + papillae on lid

49
Q

chlamydial eye disease tx ?

A

azithromycin

50
Q

what is malaria ? caused by what sort of pathogen ?

A

infectious disease caused by plasmodium family of protozoan parasites ?

51
Q

what is the most common pathogen of malaria ? most dangerous ?

A

most common and dangerous is plasmodium falciparum

52
Q

how is malaria spread ?

A

spread through bites from female anopheles mosquito

53
Q

describe the life cycle of a mosquito in terms of malaria transmission ?

A
  • mosquito bite, usually at night
  • sporozoites lie dormant in liver
  • mature to merozoites + infect RBC
  • RBC rupture
  • merozoites relate into blood stream
    => haemolytic anaemia
54
Q

malaria px ?

A

lives or travelled to endemic area, 1-4 weeks incubation
- fever, sweats, riggers, malaise, myalgia, headaches, vomiting
- pallor (due to haemolytic anaemia)
- hepatosplenomegaly
- jaundice

55
Q

how is malaria diagnosis made ? how is dx excluded ?

A

giemsa-stained thick and thin blood smears (shows ring trophozoites)
- to exclude diagnosis: 3 samples over 3 consecutive days (48 hr cycle)

56
Q

malaria mx ?

A

IV artesunate
- IV fluids
- blood transfusion if necessary

57
Q

falciparum complications ?

A
  • cerebral malaria
  • siezures
  • reduced consciousness
  • AKI
  • DIC
  • death
58
Q

what can be used for malaria prophylaxis ?

A

none 100% effective
- malarone
- nefloquein
- doxycycline

59
Q

Lyme disease Mx ?

A

oral doxycycline

60
Q

how is dengue diagnosed ?

A

PCR for virus

61
Q

what pathogen causes typhoid ? what type of pathogen

A

salmonella typhi
- gram -ve bacillus

62
Q

typhoid px ?

A
  • gradual onset fever, malaise, dry cough
  • rose spots on trunk
63
Q

important complication of typhoid ?

A

intestinal perforation => death

64
Q

what test to diagnose typhoid ?

A
  • blood culture
65
Q

typed mx ?

A
  • IV ceftriaxone + supportive care (IV fluids, paracetamol, isolation)
66
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis ? aka? what pathogen ?

A

kissing disease, glandular fever, mono
- caused by infection with Epstein Barr virus (EBV)

67
Q

what is typical infectious mononucleosis px? presents following what ?

A

adolescent with a sore throat who develop itch rash (v v itchy) after taking amoxicillin
(99% of pts with mono who take amoxicillin develop pruritic maculopapular rash)

68
Q

infectious mononucleosis presentation? (6) typical triad

A
  • fever*
  • sore throat*
  • lymphadenopathy *
  • tonsillar enlargement
  • splenomegaly
  • fatigue
69
Q

how is infectious mononucleosis diagnosed ? (2)

A
  • FBC and monospot in the 2nd week of illness
70
Q

infectious mononucleosis mx ? (3)

A
  • supportive (usually self limiting: 2-3 weeks)
  • don’t give amoxicillin
  • avoid playing contact sport for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce risk of spenic rupture
71
Q

EBV causes what condition ? which what cancer is it associated ?

A
  • EBV infection in kids is mild, subclinical
  • presents as infectious mononucleosis in adolescence
  • associated with burkitts lymphoma
72
Q

Otitis externa px? (3)

A
  • ear pain
  • itch
  • discharge
73
Q

what is seen in otitis external on otoscopy ? (3)

A
  • red
  • swollen
  • or eczematous canal
74
Q

otitis externa mx ? if this doesn’t work ?

A
  • topical abx or combine topical abx with a steroid
  • if pt fails to respond to topical abx then the patient should be referred to ENT