Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is atherosclerosis ?

A

chronic inflam + activation of immune system => lipid deposition in artery walls => fibrous atheromatous plaques => stiffening, stenosis + rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what size vessels does atherosclerosis affect ?

A

medium and large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a thrombus in fast flowing arteries mainly made of ?

A

mainly formed of platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name modifiable CVD RF ? (8)

A
  • high cholesterol
  • smoking
  • alcohol
  • poor diet
  • poor sleep
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • stress
  • obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name non-mod CVD RF ? (3)

A
  • increasing age
  • FHx
  • Male
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is primary prevention for cardiovascular disease ?

A

QRISK > 10% => statin (atorvastatin 20mg at night)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do statins work ?

A

reduce cholesterol produced by liver by inhibiting HMG CoA reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

statin SE ? (4)

A
  • myopathy
  • rhabdomyolysis
  • T2DM
  • haemorrhagic stroke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

secondary prevention for CVD ?

A

4As
- Antiplatelet (aspirin, clopidogrel)
- Atorvastatin
- atenolol/bisoprolol
- ACEI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

stable angina pathophys ?

A

caused by atherosclerosis affecting coronary arteries => insufficient supply of blood to meet demand => chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how to differentiate between stable and unstable angina ? (2)

A

stable when: sx only come with exertion + always relieved by GTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the definitive Ix for stable angina ?

A
  • cardiac stress testing (with ECG)
  • coronary angiogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

stable angina Mx ? (3)

A

3 steps
- immediate sx relief (GTN spray)
- long term sx relief (BB or CCB - verapamil, diltiazem)
- secondary prevention (4As)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what would you consider revascularisation in a patient with stable angina ?

A

(PCI or CABG plus DAPT for 1 yr - clopi and aspirin)
- when optimal med therapy proves inadequate or if ERR bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the 3 types of ACS ? what tissue affected? ischaemia or infarction ? troponin levels

A
  • unstable angina (sub endo ischaemia): trop -ve
  • NSTEMI (sub endo infarct): trop +ve
  • STEMI (transmural infarct): trop +ve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do all ACS have in common ?

A

all share plaque rupture, thrombosis and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe ECG changes in STEMI ? (4)

A
  • ST elevation
  • Tall T waves
  • New LBBB
  • Pathological Q walves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

describe ECG changes in NSTEMI/unstable angina ?

A
  • ST depression
  • T wave inversion
  • non-specific
  • Normal !
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what blood test would you specifically get in suspected ACS ?

A

troponin
- get 2 samples few hrs apart to see increase (or trend)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what could cause a raised troponin ? (5)

A

(released when myocardial cell damage)
- Myocarditis
- Pericarditis
- MI
- ventricular strain
- PE
more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is immediate Mx of ACS ?

A

MONA
- IV morphine (+antiemetic - metaclopromide)
- Nitrate
- aspirin 300mg
(give oxy if sats < 95%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

STEMI Mx ? (after initial Mx) time frames ?

A
  • PCI within 2 hrs of presenting
  • thrombolysis > 2 hrs (streptokinase, alteplase)
    (or CABG)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ongoing mx of ACS ? generally (3)

A
  • echo to assess LVF
  • cardiac rehab
  • secondary prevention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is secondary prevention after ACS ?

A

6As
- Aspirin
- Another antiplatelet (ticagrelor/clopi)
- Atorvastatin
- ACEI (ramipril)
- Atenolol (or other BB)
- Aldosterone antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are the complications of MI (STEMI/NSTEMI) ? (5) which most liekly in first 24 hrs *
DREAD - Death - Rupture syndromes - oEdema (HF) * - Arrhythmias * - Dresslers
26
what is rupture syndromes ? name some, think about anatomy
(Complication of MI) - LAD occlusion => intra-ventricular infarct => VSD => murmur + HF - RCA occlusion => papillary muscle infarct => acute MR - big LAD occlusion => free wall infarct => free all rupture => cardiac tamponade
27
how does MI cause HF ? Mx ?
HF/oEdema - LAD occlusion => LV infarction => pulm oedema + reduced EF => reduced CO => hypotension => acute LVHF (+cardiogenic shock) - Mx: oxy, diuretics, stop IV fluids
28
how does MI cause arrhythmias ? describe some
- RCA occlusion => AV node desctruction => heart block => bradycardia - LAD/LCx occlusion => LV re-entrant circuit => VT => VF => cardiac arrest
29
what is dresslers syndrome ? complication of what ? how long after ?
14 days post MI - pericarditis as a result of injury to pericardium (localised immune response => inflam of pericardium)
30
dresslers syndrome Mx ?
- ECG - NSAIDs (aspirin, ibuprofen) - or if more severe: steroids
31
name some indications for permanent pacemaker ? (4)
- complete AV node block - mobitz type II - persistent AV block after anterior MI - symptomatic bradycardia
32
What is an arrhythmia ?
abnormal heart rhythms caused by interruptions to normal electrical signals that coordinate heart contraction
33
what can braqdyarrhythimas be split into ? what HR ?
- sinus Brady - AV node block (HR <60)
34
sinus Brady pathophys ?
usually San dysfunction => reduce SA node firing => reduce electrical signals to atria and ventricles
35
causes of sinus bradycardia ? think drugs (4)
- Beta blocker - CCB (verapamil, diltiazem) - digoxin - hyperkalaemia (increase vagal tone - PSNS)
36
what can cause AV node block ?
inferior MI => AV node ischaemia => A node destruction => reduced nodal conduction
37
describe the different types of Heart block ?
- First degree (prolonged PR interval) - Second degree Mobitz I (wenkebach) (PR intervals gradually elongate until a P wave is completely blocked) - Second degree Mobitz II (PR interval is consistent but some P waves don't conduct) - third degree (complete AV dissociation)
38
Mx of unstable patient presenting with arrhythmia at risk of asystole ? (3)
- IV atropine - Inotropes - pacemaker
39
what is tachycardia ? what can it be broadly split into ?
HR > 100 - narrow complex tachy (QRS < 0.12s) - Broad complex tachy (QRS > 0.12 s)
40
name some narrow complex tachycardias ? (4)
- sinus tachycardia (not an arrhythmia) - SVT - A Fib - A flutter
41
what is SVT ? is it broad or narrow complex ?
supraventricular tachycardia: abnormal electrical signals from above ventricles - electrical signals re-enter atria from ventricle => AVN => vent => self-perpetuating (narrow complex tachycardia)
42
what two types does SVT include ?
- AVRT (atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia) - AVNRT (AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia)
43
SVT ECG changes ?
QRS followed by T then QRS then T (P waves buried in T)
44
what is WPW ? what kind of arrhythmia ?
congenital assessor conduction pathway (bundle of Kent) connecting A + V - SVT - AVRT (narrow complex tachycardia)
45
What ECG changes does WPW cause ?
- short PR (<0.12) - narrow QRS complex (>0.12) - delta wave
46
SVT Mx ? (4)
- vagal manoeuvres - adenosine - verapamil or BB - DCC
47
name some vagal manoeuvres ? (2)
- valsalva manœuvre - carotid sinus massage
48
how do you manage narrow or broad complex tachycardia with life threatening features ?
synchronised DC cardio version under GA/sedation - IV amiodarone if unsuccessful
49
what is broad complex tachycardia ?
HR >100 QRIS > 0.12s
50
Name some types of broad complex tachycardia ? most common ?
- Ventricular tachycardia (commonest cause) - polymorphic ventricle tachycardia
51
what is prolonged QTc ? give reference ranges and explain pathophys ? what does it increase the risk of ?
prolonged QTc: >440 men, >40 women - prolonged repolarisiotn after heart muscle contraction => spontaneous depolarisation in some muscles => TdP (polymorphic vent tachycardia) => ventricular tach (=> cardiac arrest) or revert to sinus
52
causes of prolonged QTc ?
- long QT syndrome - APs - citalopram - flecanide - sotalol - amiodarone
53
briefly explain Mx for narrow context tachycardias: - sinus tachycardia ? - Atrial flutter ? - Atrial fibrillation ? - SVT ?
- sinus tachycardia: treat underlying cause (stress, infection) - AF/Aflut: Rate + rhythm control - SVT: vagal manœuvre + adenosine
54
briefly explain Mx for broad complex tachycardias: - ventricular tachycardia ? - polymorphic ventricular tachycardia ?
- vent tachycardia: IV amiodarone - polymorphic vent tachycardia (TdP): IV magnesium
55
there is a pulseless patient (cardiac arrest): what are the shockable rhythms ? (2)
- VT - V Fib
56
there is a pulseless patient (cardiac arrest): what are the non-shockable rhythms ? (2)
- asystole - pulseless electrical activity
57
what is atrial fibrillation ? and what arrhythmia category is it in ?
chaotic irregular atrial rhythm - SVT (originates in atria)
58
and what bpm is af usually ?
300-600 bpm
59
name some of the cardiac and non cardiac causes of af ?
- cardiac causes: increase LA pressure (due to CHF, mitral stenosis or ischaemia - seen in 22% of MI patients) - non-cardiac: hypoxia, electrical disturbances
60
how does increases LA pressure cause AF ?
increased LA pressure => atrial dilatation => atrial remodelling => re-entry circuits
61
what are the different types of AF ? (3) describe a bit
- paroxysmal (cardiac remodelling not complete): ep 30s - 48 hrs that self resolve - persistent - chronic: 7 days - 1 yr
62
paroxysmal AF Mx ?
pill in pocket approach (flecanide)
63
name and explain some complications of AF ?
- thromboembolisi: blood pools (usually atrial appendage) => stasis => thrombus => VTE/stroke/TIA/mesenteric ischaemia - Acute HF: increase HR => reduce diastolic time => reduce CO => shock - chronic tachycardia => dilated cardiomyopathy
64
what investigations for AF ?seen on ECG for AF ?
- irregularly irregular ventricular contraction - absent P waves - narrow QRS complex tachycardia (SVT)
65
what could be seen on echo in patient with AF ? (2)
- LA thrombus - valvular disease
66
what are the 4 parts to AF control ?
- Rate control (first line) - Rhythm control - anticoagulate - Ablation (if rate/ryhthm control not effective)
67
describe rate control in AF ? options (3)
- BB (bisoprolol) - CCB (verapamil, diltiazem) - digoxin (only in sedentary ppl as stops HR increasing even when exercising)
68
describe rhythm control in AF ? time frames
- if haemodynamically unstable or <48 hrs or anti coagulated for 3-4 weeks + TTE: DCC, then antiocoagulate for 4 weeks - pharma cardioversion: amiodarone, flecanide (but can increase risk of TdP
69
describe the anticoagulation in AF Mx ?
CHA2DS2-VASc score >/=2 : anticoagulant
70
how does ablation work in AF Mx ? when consider ?
when rate/rhythm control not tolerated - creates scar tissue to prevent re-entry
71
what is atrial flutter ? arrhythmia type ?
(SVT - narrow complex tachycardia) - regularly occurring atria activity (>240 flutter waves/min)
72
describe he relevance of cavotircuspid isthmus to A flutter ?
in some patients electrical impulses cross isthmus slowly compared to rest of atrial tissue => develop re-entrance circuit
73
what is the classification of A flutter ? most common ? describe a bit
- isthmus dependant (most common): flutter circuit travels through CTI) - isthmus indepedant
74
describe typical ECG findings in Atrial flutter ? (4)
- narrow complex tachycardia - regular atrial activity at 300bpm - low of isoelectric baseline - saw tooth waves
75
A fib presentaiton ? (4)
- palpitations - sob - dizziness - syncope
76
Atrial flutter Px ?
- worsening HF + pulmonary symptoms - palpitations - fatigue
77
overview of atrial flutter Mx ?
- haemodynamically unstable: emergency electrical cardioversion - stable: same as AF (rate + rhythm control + anticoagulation)
78
What is Heart Failure ?
inability o heart to meet tissues demands
79
how does excessive preload affect ventricle ?
=> vent dilatation
80
how does excessive afterload affect ventricle ?
=> vent hypertrophy
81
what is systolic HF ?
inability of ventricle to contract normally
82
what is diastolic HF ?
inability of ventricles to relax + fill normally
83
LHF Sx ? (5)
- dyspnoea - poor exercise toarence - orthopnea - PND - fatigue
84
how do you distinguish systolic and diastolic HF ? explain this pathophys
ejection fraction - Systolic HF: due to drop in LV contractility => reduced LVEF (<40%) => reduce CO - Diastolic HF: due to increased afterload => hypertrophic LV => reduce CO with preserved LVEF (HFpEF)
85
name some causes of systolic LHF ? (3)
(things that drop LV contractility) - MI - cardiomyopathy (often dilated) - IHD
86
name some causes of diastolic LHF ? (4)
(things that cause increased afterload) - chronic HTN - aortic stenosis - ventricular hypertrophy - tamponade
87
explain pathphys of RHF ? cause ?
due to reduced contractility => dilated RV => reduced RV EF - caused by MI
88
explain pathophys of diastolic RHF ?
- anything that increased afterload (pulmonary hypertension) => RV hypertrophy
89
complications of LHF ?
- pulm congestion - cariogenic shock
90
explain how LHF causes pulmonary congestion ?
blood congests back form LV to LA => pulm veins => increase pulm wedge pressure => fluid leak + pulm oedema => dyspnoea (PND + orthopnoea)
91
explain how LHF causes cariogenic shock ?
massive CO reduction => reduced systemic perfusion => increase SVR (to compensate for low BP) => vasocontrciton + cold peripheries
92
complications of RHF ?
increases CVP => raised JVP + raised peripheral oedema + ascites + hepatomegaly
93
HF investigations (4)
- CXR - NT-pro BNP - Echo: systolic (HFrEF), diastolic (HFpEF) - NYHA classification
94
how does BNP affect Hf Mx ?
determines when seen >2000mg/l => wishing 2 weeks - also measure of prognosis
95
what are the CXR changes seen in patient with HF ?
ABCDE - Alveolar oedema - Kerley B lines - Cardiomegaly - Dilated upper lobe vessels - Pleural Effusions
96
Acute HF Mx ?
Pour SOD - Pour away (stop) IV fluids - Sit up - Oxygen - Diuretics (furosemide)
97
long term HF Mx ? step wise (4)
- ACEI (ramipril) or ARB - Add BB (bisoprolol) or SGLT-2 inhibitor - add aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone) - furosemide for oedema (procedural: surgical procedure for valvular disease)
98
What counts as high blood pressure ?
>140/90 in clinic or >135/85 with ambulatory or home readings
99
what is most common cause of hypertension ?
95 % primary hypertension (essential hypertension) - developed on its own
100
list the secondary causes of hypertension ? which most common
ROPE - Renal disease (most common), like glomerulonephritis - Obesity - Pregnancy - Endocrine (Cushings/conns)
101
what is malignant hypertension ? what value ? px ? prognosis ?
>200/130 - px: headache, visual disturbance, papilloedema - untreated 90% die in 1 yr
102
what is HTN a big RF for ? what else ?
biggest CVD RF - IHD, CVA, hypertensive retinopathy, nephropathy
103
how is HTN diagnosed ?
if clinic reading between 140/90-180/120 then ambulatory BP or home readings to confirm diagnosis
104
describe the HTN staging ? systolic and diastolic
- stage 1 (>140/90) - stage 2 (>160/100) - stage 3 (>180/120)
105
describe stepwise HTN Mx ?
Step 1: <55 and not black: ACEI or ARB (if ACEI intolerant) - >55 or black: CCB (amlodipine) Step 2: A/ARB + CCB Step 3: A/ARB + CCB + Diuretic (indapamide) Step 4: A/ARB + CCB + D + additional (Sprinolactone, BB)
106
describe blood flow in mitral regurgitation ? during which heart phase ?
back flow of blood form LV => LA (during systole)
107
what are the causes of mitral regurgitation ? (5)
- annular calcification (elderly) - rheumatic fever - IE - MV prolapse - EDS
108
what can mitral regurgitation cause ? describe pathophys ?
LV volume overload => dilatation => progressive HF - compensatory mechanisms (LA enlargement, LV increase contractility)
109
mitral regurgitation Px ? (5)
- dyspnoea - fatigue - palpitations - asymptomatic - sx of causative factor (infection, EDS)
110
what is the most important Ix for heart murmurs ?
do an echo for all of em
111
what would be seen on these Ix in mitral regurg - CXR - Echo
- CXR: LA enlargement, central pulmonary artery enlargement - Echo: estimation of LA, LV size + function
112
what heart on auscultation of mitral regurgitation ? heard loudest where ?
- pan systolic murmur - heard loudest in mitral area (5th ICS, L MCL)
113
Mitral regurgitation Mx ?
- vasodilators (ACEI) - BB - antiocoagulants - if valve badly destroyed then valve replacement + life long warfarin
114
what is rheumatic heart disease ? caused by what pathogen ?
caused by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus infection (often in children) that affects + damages heart valves => MR
115
what is mitral stenosis ? during which phase of cardiac cycle ?
obstruction of LV inflow during diastole
116
what murmur associated with mitral stenosis ? what other sign ?
- mid-diastolic murmur - malar flush (due to reduced CO)
117
describe aortic stenosis ? and the compensatory mechanisms ? (pathophys)
(congenital or acquired, disease of the ageing) - as borrowing increases => restricts blood flow between LV + aorta => initially compensated by hypertrophy (to maintain pressure for CO) - when this fails: LV function declines + symptoms develop
118
aortic stenosis px ?
- exertion syncope - angina - dyspneoa (typically in an old person) (can cause sudden death !!)
119
aortic stenosis murmur on auscultation ? where loudest ? what signs associated ?
- ejection systolic murmur (loudest aortic area) loudest 2nd ICS at right sternal border - slow rising carotid pulse (narrower so harder for blood to get through), decreased amplitude (takes longer for smaller amount of blood to get through)
120
aortic stenosis mx ?
- good dental hygienist (poor dental health increases risk of bacterial infection in blood stream) - IE prophylaxis - aortic valve replacement (if symptomatic prognosis is port without surgery)
121
what is aortic regurgitation ? during which phase of cardiac cycle ?
leakage of blood from aorta => LV during diastole
122
aortic regurgitation murmur on auscultation ?heard loudest where ? what sings ?
- early diastolic murmur (2nd ICS, R sternal border) - signs: collapsing pulse + hyper dynamic apex beat
123
what congenital conditions is pulmonary stenosis associated with ? (3) what murmur
- Turner - ToF - Williams (ejection systolic murmur)
124
patient presents with fever + new murmur. this is what until proven otherwise ?
endocarditis until proven otherwise
125
what is infective endocarditis ?
infection of heart valves (or other endocardial lined structures - septal defect, pacemaker) - like bad infection (shivers + sick) + showers of infectious maternal into blood stream
126
what pathogen most likely in IE ? in drug users ? in prosthetic valves ?
- viridens group step (dental) - s.aureus (IV drug users) - staph epidermis (prosthetic valves)
127
IE Px ?
(depends on site and organism) - systemic infection - embolisation (=> stroke, MI, kidney dystfunction) - valve dysfunction (HF, arrhythmia, murmur)
128
what signs might you see in IE ?
- splinter haemorrhages - jaenway lesions - oilers nodes - Roth spots - heart murmur
129
what is used to diagnose IE (what tool) ? what investigations would you do ?
modified duke criteria - blood cultures: 3 sets at different times form different sites) - echo (TTE/TOE) may show vegetations - FBC, U+E, CRP
130
IE Mx ?
- IV Abx (choose drug depending on bug) for 6 weeks ! - surgery to get ride of infected lateral (not always) - prevention (good dental hygiene)
131
describe the pathophysiology of dilated cardiomyopathy ? causes what in the end ?
reduced contractility => reduce CO => reduce BP => increase SVR (to compensate low BP) => increase preload => overloads the weak heart => dilates => HFrEF
132
causes of dilated cardiomyopathy ? (5)
(all cause reduced contractility) - alcohol - cocaine - chagras - coxsackie B - takotsubos
133
what is takatsubo ?
rapid onset (stress) induced LV dysfunction, mimic MI - tends to resolve spontaneously with time
134
what is HOCM ? what does it cause ?
(hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) - genetic mutation (usually autosomal dominant) => inter-ventricular septum hypertrophy => LV outflow tract obstruction => HFpEF (leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young!)
135
HOCM complications ? (5)
- HF - MI - arrhythmias (a fib) - sudden cardiac death - MR
136
HOCM Px ? O/E ?
- asymptomattic - sob - fatigue - dizziness - chest pain - palpitations - HF sx O/E: ejection systolic murmur at lower left sternal border (louder with valsalva)
137
HOCM Mx ? (3)
aim to reduce ventricular contractility: BB or verapamil - surgical myomectomy - avoid intense exercise
138
what is pathophys of hypertrophic cardiomyopathies ?
hypertrophy => thick interventiruclar septum => reduce atria + ventricle size => almost closing in on itself at end of systole => decrease cardiac output
139
what is myocarditis ? causes ? (2)
inflam of myocardium, often associated with pericardial inflammation - causes: idiopathic (about 50%), infective (viral, bacteria)
140
myocarditis px ? similar to what ?
- similar to ACS Px - HF - palpitations - tachycardia
141
myocarditis Ix ? gold standard ?
- ECG (ST changes and T wave invention, AV block) - end-myocardial biopsy (gold standard)
142
myocarditis Mx ? risk of what ?
supportive, treat underlying cause - risk of developing dilated cardiomyopathy
143
what is pericarditis ? causes ? (3)
inflammation of the pericardium - cause: viral (common), underlying systemic (SLE), traumatic/iatrogenic (increasingly important - caused by previous procedures)
144
pericarditis clinical presentation ? (3) some strange ones too. what is important differential ?
- severe and sharp chest pain: pleuritic (worse with inspiration, received by sitting forward, worse supine (this rarely seen in IHD)) - pain in shoulder + hiccups (phrenic nerve) - hoarse voice (recurrent laryngeal) (usually flowing seven preceding illness: fever, rash, joint pain) (need to distinguish from ischaemic chest pain)
145
describe how to diagnose pericarditis ? (4)
(2/4) - chest pain - pericardial effusion (seen on echo) - ECG changes - pericardial friction rub
146
describe ECG changes in pericarditis ? (2)
- widespread ST elevation, PR depression
147
what causes pericardial rub ?
pericardium inflammation => friction => sand paper sound
148
pericarditis Mx ? if tamponade ?
- NSAID (ibuprofen) + colchicine + PPI (omeprazole) - if tamponade: urgent percardiocentesis
149
What is pericardial effusion
where excess fluid collects within pericardial sac (acute or chronic) - can fill entire pericardial cavity or localised section
150
describe the contents of the two types of pericardial effusion ?
- transudates (low protein) - exudates (high protein, associated with inflam, blood, pus)
151
pericarditis pathophys ?
extra fluid in potential space (pericardial cavity) => inward pressure on heart => harder to expand during diastole
152
describe pathophys of pericardial tamponade ?
pericardial effusion is large enough to increase intrapercardial pressure => squeeze heart => reduce filling during diastole => reduce CO during systole
153
causes of pericardial effusion ?
- (high venous pressure => reduced pericardial drainage): congestive HF, pulm HTN - pericarditis: infection (TB, HIV), autoimmune (SLE), injury (MI)
154
pericardial effusion px ?
- chest pain - sob (worse lying flat) - fullness feeling - hiccups (compression of phrenic nerve) - dysphagia (compression of oesophagus) - hoarse voice (compression of recurrent laryngeal)
155
pericardial effusion Ix ?
- ECG - fluid analysis (bacterial culture, viral PCR) - TTE - CXR (enlarged cardiac silhouette)
156
pericardial effusion mx ?
- treat underlying cause (infection) and drainage of effusion - if pericarditis: NSAID + colchicine + PPI - draining: needles pericardiocentiusis, surgical drainage
157
explain pathophys of chronic pericardial effusions ?
chronic pericardial effusion allows adaptation of parietal pericardium (rubber stretches) => rarely causes tamponade (compression of the heart)
158
what is AAA ? over what size ?
abdominal aortic aneurysm: dilation of the abdominal aorta (>50% of original diameter) - usually become aware when it ruptures (life threatening bleeding - 80% mortality)
159
describe AAA screening
all men at 65
160
AAA px ?
- asymptomatic - non-specific abdo pain - pulsatile mass - incidental finding
161
AAA Dx ? what are the different sizes and what do you do ?
- ultrasound - < 3cm: normal - 3-4.4cm: small aneurysm, rescan in 12 months - 4.5-5.4: medium aneurysm, rescan in 3 months - >5.5 large aneursym, refer to vascular surgery to be seen wihtin 2 weeks
162
AAA Mx ?
- treat reversible RF (smoking, HTN) - elective repair (if symptomatic or large) - screening and surveillance
163
how does ruptured AAA present ? Mx ?
px: severe abdo pain radiating to back, haemodynamic instability, pulsatile + expansive mass, collapse, LOC - Mx: surgical emergency
164
What is aortic dissection ? between which layers
it is when a break of tea forms in the inner layer of aorta => blood flows between layers of th wall of aorta (between intima + media)
165
what are the 2 types of aorta dissection ?
stanford system classification - A (ascending aorta) - B (descending) (ascending not involved)
166
aortic dissection presentation ?
- Ripping tearing chest pain (anterior => ascending, posterior => descending) - hypertension - radial pulse defecit - diastolic murmur - focal neurological defects
167
aortic dissection Mx ? for which classification ?
surgical emergency (high mortality) - analgesia (morphine) - BP + HR control (BB, verapamil) - surgical intervention: if standard type A of complicated type B
168
what is peripheral arterial disease ?
borrowing of arteries applying limbs + peripheries => reduced blood supply - common (>20% in over 80 yo)
169
what is intermittent claudication ? describe pathophys
muscle pain due to lack of oxy - triggered by activity, relieved by rest - lactic acid build up + anaerobic metabolism leads to K build up => leg pain (cramps, achey pain, usually calf, thigh, buttox)
170
what is critical limb ischaemia ? px ? (3)
inadequate blood at rest - pain at rest > 2 weeks - non-healing luvers - gangrene
171
critical limb ischaemia Mx ?
emergency and may require open surgery of angioplasty
172
what test can be done to elicit signs of PAD ?
buergers test - supine, leg at 45 degrees: pallor of leg suggests PAD
173
Ix for PAD ? first line ?
- duplex US (first line) - ABPI - angiography - donation classification for PAD
174
intermittent claudication Mx ? (4)
- lifestyle changes (reduce risk factors, optimise med treatment) - exercise training - naftidrofuryl oxalate (peripheral vasodilator) - bypass surgery
175
what is acute limb ischaemia ? Mx ? (3)
rapid onset of ischaemia in limb due to thrombus - Mx: end-vascular thrombolysis, bypass surgery, amputation
176
post MI complication: how would VSD present ?
- acute HF - with a pan-systolic murmur
177
post MI complication: how would acute MR present ?
- acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema - early/med systolic murmur - more common with infer-posterior infarction
178
post MI complication: how would left ventricular free wall rupture present ?
(occurs around 1-2 weeks afterwards) - acute HF (secondary to cardiac tamponade - raised JVP, pulses paradoxes, diminished heart sounds)
179
post MI complication: how would left ventricular aneurysm present ?
- persistent ST elevation and LV failure
180
post MI complication: how would dresslers syndrome present ?
2-6 weeks post-MI (pericarditis) - fever - pruritic pain - pericardial effusion - raised ESR
181