PARTS OF EENT Flashcards

1
Q

are a key sensory organ, feeding information to your brain about the outside world.

A

eyes

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2
Q

This protects the inside of your eye like a windshield. Your tear fluid lubricates your _____. It also do part of the work bending light as it enters your eyes.

A

Cornea.

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3
Q

_____ do the “physical” part of seeing. The
signals they send allow your brain to “build” the picture that you see.

A

eyes

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4
Q

This clear, thin layer covers the sclera and lines the inside of your eyelids.

A

Conjunctiva.

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5
Q

This part contains the muscles that control the size of your pupil. It’s also responsible for eye color. The can be brown, blue,
green.

A

Iris.

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5
Q

This is the black circle inside the iris. It’s like an adjustable window to the inside of your eye. It widens and narrows to control
how much light enters your eye.

A

Pupil.

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5
Q

This is the white part of your eye that forms the general
shape and structure of your eyeball.

A

Sclera.

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5
Q

This focuses light that enters your eye and directs it to the back of your eye.

A

Lens.

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6
Q

This thin layer of light-sensitive cells at the back of your eyes converts light
into electrical signals. It contains rods (which help you see in low light) and cones
(which help you see colors).

A

Retina.

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6
Q

This clear, gel-like fluid fills the space between the lens and retina.
It helps your eye hold its shape. It’s also sometimes known simply as “the vitreous.”

A

Vitreous humor.

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6
Q

This small area of your retina is key to your vision. It’s responsible for the center of your visual field. It also helps you see color and fine details.

A

Macula.

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6
Q

This connects your retinas to your brain. It’s like the data cable that carries signals from your eyes, with connection points linking to multiple brain areas.

A

Optic nerve.

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6
Q

These control your eye’s position, alignment and movement. They also contribute to your eye’s shape, which is part of your ability to switch your
vision’s focus between near and far objects.

A

External muscles.

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7
Q

are paired organs, located on each side of your head, which help with hearing
and balance.

A

ears

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7
Q

There are several
conditions that can affect your
ears, including

A

infection, tinnitus, meniere’s disease,
eustachian tube dysfunction

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7
Q

Your ____ separates your outer ear and middle ear.

A

tympanic membrane (eardrum)

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8
Q

The three main parts of your ear include:

A

the outer ear, middle ear
and inner ear.

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8
Q

Your middle ears also house the _____, which help equalize the air pressure in your ears.

A

eustachian tubes

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8
Q

outer ear is also called the_____

A

auricle or pinna

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9
Q

is the part of your ear that’s visible. It’s what most people mean when they say “ear.” Consists of ridged cartilage and skin, and it contains glands that secrete earwax. Its funnel-shaped canal leads to your eardrum, or tympanic membrane.

A

outer ear

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9
Q

Your inner ear contains two main parts:

A

the cochlea and the semicircular canals.

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10
Q

begins on the other side of your tympanic membrane (eardrum). There are three tiny bones in this area — the malleus, incus and stapes. They transfer sound vibrations from your eardrum to your inner ear.

A

middle ear

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11
Q

Your ____ is the hearing organ. This snail-shaped structure contains two
fluid-filled chambers lined with tiny hairs. When sound enters, the fluid inside of
this causes the tiny hairs to vibrate, sending electrical impulses to your
brain.

A

cochlea

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12
Q

helps you to breathe and to smell.

A

nose

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12
Q

The inner part of the nose is above the ____

A

roof of the mouth.

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12
Q

The ______, also known as the labyrinthine, are responsible for balance. They tell your brain which direction your head is moving.

A

semicircular canals

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12
Q

Two chambers divided by the septum.

A

External nostrils.

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13
Q

is a ring-like muscular tube. It is the passageway for air, food, and liquid. It
also helps in forming speech.

A

throat

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13
Q

Triangular-shaped projection in the center of the face.

A

External meatus.

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14
Q

Made up mainly of cartilage and bone and covered by mucous membranes. The cartilage also gives shape and support to the outer part of the nose.

A

Septum.

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15
Q

Passages that are lined with mucous membranes and tiny hairs (cilia) that help to filter the air.

A

Nasal passages.

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16
Q

Both are made up of lymph tissue and are located at the back of the throat.

A

Tonsils and adenoids.

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17
Q

The ______ are located all the way at the back of the nose at the very
top of the throat. It shrink away by early adulthood.

A

adenoids

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17
Q

The ____ are in the back of the mouth on either side of the throat. They protect against infection but have minimal function after childhood.

A

tonsils

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18
Q

is a cylindrical grouping of cartilage, muscles, and soft tissue that contains the vocal cords. The vocal cords are the upper opening into the windpipe (trachea), the passageway to the lungs.

A

Voice box (larynx).

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18
Q

A flap of soft tissue located just above the vocal cords. It folds down over the vocal cords to prevent food and irritants from entering the lungs.

A

Epiglottis.

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19
Q

To investigate a complaint about the eyes, ears, nose, and throat, ask about the:

A

onset
location
duration
characteristics of the symptom
what aggravates it
what relieves it

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19
Q

IN PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT INTERVIEW DATA (SUBJECTIVE ) OF EYES, ASK THE CLIENT’S HISTORY OF:

A

Corrective lenses
blurred vision
blind spots
floaters
double vision
eye injury
eye surgery

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20
Q

IN PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT INTERVIEW DATA (SUBJECTIVE ) OF EARS, ASK THE CLIENT’S HISTORY OF:

A

Ear discharge
vertigo
ear problem or injury

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21
Q

IN PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT INTERVIEW DATA (SUBJECTIVE ) OF THROAT, ASK THE CLIENT’S HISTORY OF:

A

Bleeding, sore gums
togue ulcers
bad taste
bad breath
toothaches
hoarseness
facial swelling

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21
Q

Examination of the eyes includes assessment of the external structures such as:

A

Visual acuity
Ocular movement
Visual fields

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22
Q

the degree of detail the eye can
discern in an image

A

Visual acuity

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23
Q

the ability of the eyes to
move in various directions

A

Ocular movement

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24
Q

the area an in-dividual can see
when looking straight ahead

A

Visual fields

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24
Q

Most eye assessment procedures involve
______.

A

inspection

25
Q

Many people wear eyeglasses or contact lenses to correct common refractive errors of the lens of the eye. These errors
include:

A

Myopia
Hyperopia
Presbyopia
Astigmatism

26
Q

nearsightedness

A

Myopia

26
Q

farsightedness

A

Hyperopia

26
Q

loss of elasticity of the lens and thus loss of ability to see close objects

A

Presbyopia

27
Q

begins at about 45 years of age. People notice that they have difficulty reading newsprint. When both far and near vision require correction, two lenses (bifocals)
are required.

A

Presbyopia

27
Q

Is an uneven curvature of the cornea that prevents horizontal and vertical rays from focusing on the retina, is a common problem that may occur in conjunction with myopia and hyperopia. It may be corrected with glasses or surgery.

A

Astigmatism

28
Q

Common inflammatory visual problems that nurses may encounter in
clients include:

A

conjunctivitis
dacryocystitis
hordeolum
iritis
contusions or hematomas
cataracts
glaucoma

29
Q

______ is manifested by tearing and a discharge from the nasolacrimal duct.

A

Dacryocystitis

29
Q

may result from foreign bodies, chemicals, allergenic agents, bacteria, or
viruses. Redness, itching, tearing, and mucopurulent discharge occur.
During sleep, the eyelids may become encrusted and matted together.

A

Conjunctivitis

30
Q

inflammation of the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva

A

Conjunctivitis

31
Q

inflammation of the lacrimal sac

A

Dacryocystitis

31
Q

_____ is a redness, swelling, and tenderness of the hair follicle and glands that empty at the edge of the eyelids.

A

Hordeolum (sty)

32
Q

(inflammation of the iris) may be caused by local or systemic infections and results in pain, tearing

A

Iritis

32
Q

sensitivity to light

A

Photophobia

33
Q

___ are “black eyes” resulting from injury.

A

Contusions or hematomas

33
Q

tend to occur in individuals over 65 years old although they may be present at any age. This opacity of the lens or its capsule, which blocks light rays, is frequently removed and replaced by a lens
implant.

A

Cataracts

33
Q

may also occur in infants due to a malformation of the lens if the mother contracted rubella in the first trimester of pregnancy.

A

Cataracts

34
Q

is the most frequent cause of blindness in people over age 40 although it can occur at younger ages. It can be controlled if diagnosed early.

A

Glaucoma

34
Q

a disturbance in the circulation of aqueous fluid, which causes an increase in intraocular pressure

A

Glaucoma

35
Q

Danger signs of glaucoma
include:

A

blurred or foggy vision, loss of peripheral vision, difficulty focusing on close objects, difficulty adjusting to dark rooms, and seeing rainbow-colored rings around lights.

36
Q

Pupils are normally black, are equal in size, about _______ and have round, smooth borders.

A

about 3 to 7 mm in diameter

37
Q

(constricted pupils) may indicate an
inflammation of the iris or result from such drugs as morphine/ heroin and other narcotics, barbiturates, or pilocarpine. It is also an age-related change in older
adults.

A

Miosis

37
Q

(enlarged pupils) may indicate injury or
glaucoma, or result from certain drugs.

A

Mydriasis

38
Q

Cloudy pupils are often indicative of ________.

A

cataracts

39
Q

(unequal pupils) may result from a central nervous system disorder; however, slight variations may be normal.

A

Anisocoria

39
Q

The iris is normally flat and round. A bulging toward the cornea can indicate ________

A

increased intraocular pressure.

39
Q

Miosis result from such drugs as ______

A

morphine/ heroin and other narcotics, barbiturates, or pilocarpine.

40
Q

by using the snellen chart, place the patient _______ from the snellen chart. Ask them to cover one eye and
read the letters from the lowest line they can see clearly.

A

20 feet away

40
Q

Distant vision is tested by using the _____

A

snellen chart.

41
Q

Near vision is assessed by having
a patient read from a prepared
card that is held _______
from the eyes.

A

14 inches away

41
Q

If the patient is wearing glasses
or contact lens during this assessment (snellen chart), document the results as ______ when wearing these assistive devices.

A

“corrected vision”

41
Q

A person with ________ is not able to
distinguish the numbers or paths
from the other colored dots on the
plate.

A

color blindness

42
Q

If a Near vision card is not available, the patient can be asked to read from a _____ as an alternative quick screening tool.

A

newspaper

42
Q

_____ are commonly used to assess color vision. Each of the colored dotted plates shows either a number or a path.

A

Ishihara plates

43
Q

instrument for examining the interior of the ear, especially the eardrum, consisting essentially of a magnifying lens and a light

A

otoscope

43
Q

Assessment of the ear includes:

A
  1. direct inspection and palpation of the external ear
  2. inspection of the internal parts of the ear by an otoscope
  3. determination of auditory acuity.
44
Q

In brief, sound can be transmitted by _____ or ________

A

air conduction or bone conduction.

44
Q

The external ear canal is curved, is about ______

A

2.5 cm (1 in.)

44
Q

Air-conducted transmission occurs by this process:

A
  1. A sound stimulus enters the external canal and reaches the tympanic membrane.
  2. The sound waves vibrate the tympanic membrane and reach the ossicles.
  3. The sound waves travel from the ossicles to the opening in the inner ear (oval window).
  4. The cochlea receives the sound vibrations.
  5. The stimulus travels to the auditory nerve (the eighth cranial nerve) and the cerebral cortex.
45
Q

__________, which measure hearing at
various decibels, are recommended for children and older adults.

A

Audiometric evaluations,

45
Q

_____ is the result of interrupted transmission of sound waves through the outer and middle ear structures. Possible causes are a tear in the tympanic membrane or an obstruction, due to
swelling or other causes, in the auditory canal.

A

Conductive hearing loss

45
Q

______ is the result of damage to the inner ear, the auditory nerve, or the hearing center in the brain.

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

45
Q

_______ is a combination of conduction and sensorineural loss.

A

Mixed hearing loss

46
Q

_____ is an effective screening test used to detect hearing impairment if performed accurately.

A

whispered voice test

46
Q

A _______ evaluates hearing loss by comparing air conduction to bone conduction.

A

rinne test

47
Q

________ hearing occurs through air near the ear, and it involves the ear canal and eardrum.

A

Air conduction

47
Q

______ hearing occurs through
vibrations picked up by the ear’s specialized nervous system.

A

Bone conduction

47
Q

rinne test happens by this process:

A
  1. The doctor strikes a tuning fork and places it on the mastoid bone behind one ear.
  2. When you can no longer hear the sound, you signal to the doctor.
  3. Then, the doctor moves the tuning fork next to your ear canal.
  4. When you can no longer hear that sound, you once again signal the doctor.
  5. The doctor records the length of time you hear each sound.
48
Q

A ______ is another way to evaluate conductive and sensorineural
hearing losses.

A

weber test

48
Q

weber test happens by this process:

A
  1. The doctor strikes A tuning fork and places it on the middle of your head.
  2. You note where the sound is best heard: the left ear, the right ear, or both equally.
49
Q

If the client reports difficulty or abnormality in smell, the nurse may test the client’s _____ by asking the client to identify common odors such as coffee or mint.

A

olfactory sense

49
Q

The _____ empties through wharton’s duct, which is situated on either side of the frenulum on the floor of the mouth.

A

submandibular gland

49
Q

The _____ is the largest and empties through stensen’s duct opposite the second molar.

A

parotid gland

50
Q

three pairs of salivary glands empty
into the oral cavity:

A

the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands.

51
Q

This is done by asking the client to close the eyes and placing vials containing the scent under the client’s nose.

A

test the client’s olfactory sense

52
Q

is an invisible soft film that adheres to the enamel surface of teeth; it consists of bacteria, molecules of saliva, and remnants of epithelial cells and leukocytes.

A

Plaque

52
Q

inflammation of the tongue

A

glossitis

52
Q

The ______ lies in the floor of the mouth and has numerous openings.

A

sublingual salivary gland

52
Q

______ are the two problems that most frequently affect the teeth.

A

Dental caries (cavities) &
Periodontal disease (or pyorrhea)

53
Q

Periodontal disease is characterized by ____ (red, swollen gingiva [gum]), bleeding, receding gum lines, and the formation of pockets between the teeth
and gums.

A

gingivitis

53
Q

is a visible, hard deposit of plaque and
dead bacteria that forms at the gum lines. Its buildup can alter the fibers that attach the teeth to the gum and eventually disrupt bone tissue.

A

Tartar

54
Q

inflammation of the oral mucosa

A

stomatitis

55
Q

inflammation of the parotid salivary gland

A

parotitis

55
Q

The accumulation of foul matter (food, microorganisms, and epithelial
elements) on the teeth and gums is referred to as ________.

A

sordes

56
Q

In inspecting and palpating the external nose, note the following:

A

nasal color
shape
consistency
tenderness.

57
Q

Check the ______ by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the client to sniff.

A

patency of airflow through the nostrils