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Flight Abdullah > Part 5 > Flashcards

Part 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Linear Fracture associated with?

A

Epidural Hematoma and infection

Linear fractures can extend towards the base of the skull.

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2
Q

What characterizes a Linear Stellate Fracture?

A

Multiple fractures radiating from a compressed area, resembling a spider web appearance

This type of fracture can occur due to significant impacts.

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3
Q

What are the signs of a Basilar Skull Fracture?

A

Battle’s Sign, Raccoon Eyes, Otorrhea, clear rhinorrhea, hemotympanum

These symptoms indicate possible cerebrospinal fluid leaks and other complications.

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4
Q

What is the management protocol for a Basilar Skull Fracture?

A

NO Nasotracheal intubation, Nasopharyngeal airways, Nasogastric tubes

These interventions can worsen the injury.

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5
Q

What is an Orbital Fracture?

A

A fracture of the orbital rim caused by a direct blow

It can lead to serious complications, such as the inferior rectus muscle becoming trapped.

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6
Q

What indicates a surgical emergency in the case of an Orbital Fracture?

A

If one eye doesn’t move up when the patient looks up, causing double vision

This suggests possible muscle entrapment.

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7
Q

What is a Depressed Skull Fracture caused by?

A

A blow to the head, often with a hammer or similar object

It can lead to complications like Pneumocephalus.

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8
Q

What is Pneumocephalus?

A

Air trapped inside the skull

It can worsen at high altitudes, leading to brainstem herniation.

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9
Q

What is the leading cause of death in trauma victims?

A

Head injuries

This highlights the critical nature of assessing and managing head trauma.

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10
Q

What are the two types of Concussions?

A

Mild (knocked out, no memory loss) and Classic (memory loss)

Diffuse Axonal injury can lead to coma.

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11
Q

What does the Glasgow Coma Scale measure?

A

Eye opening, verbal response, best motor response

It assesses the level of consciousness in a patient.

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12
Q

What are the levels of consciousness classified by the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A

Minor Injury 13-15, Moderate Injury 9-12, Severe Injury <8

These scores help in determining the severity of brain injury.

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13
Q

Define Hypertensive Urgency.

A

Extremely elevated blood pressure with NO signs of end organ damage

Blood pressure should be lowered slowly.

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14
Q

What is a Hypertensive Crisis?

A

Extremely elevated blood pressure with signs of end organ damage

Symptoms include headache, nausea/vomiting, visual changes.

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15
Q

What is Subdural Hematoma (SDH)?

A

Results from tearing of bridging veins to the subdural space

It has a slow onset and is more common in the elderly and children.

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16
Q

What is Epidural Hematoma associated with?

A

Arterial bleed, commonly from the middle meningeal artery

It often presents with a lucid interval after loss of consciousness.

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17
Q

What is a common symptom of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)?

A

Described as the ‘worst headache of my life’

It is a life-threatening cause of headache.

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18
Q

What is the treatment for Subarachnoid Hemorrhage?

A

Keep systolic B/P below 140mmHg and treat with Nimodipine

Nimodipine helps prevent cerebral vasospasm.

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19
Q

What is Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A

Common occurrence in paralyzed patients without a Foley catheter

It can cause increased blood pressure and heart rate.

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20
Q

What does Babinski’s Sign indicate?

A

A reflex where the big toe moves upward when the foot’s sole is stroked

This is a significant finding in spinal cord injuries.

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21
Q

What is Brown Sequard Lesion?

A

Ipsilateral motor & vibratory sense loss, contralateral pain & temperature loss

This reflects the nature of spinal cord injuries.

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22
Q

What is Central Cord Injury characterized by?

A

Greater motor weakness in upper extremities than lower extremities

This is often referred to as ‘they can walk to you but can’t shake your hand.’

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23
Q

What is the prognosis for Anterior Cord Syndrome?

A

Worst prognosis due to loss of pain & temperature sensation below the injury

Proprioception and vibration sense are spared.

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24
Q

What is Spinal Shock?

A

Decreased systemic vascular resistance and hypotension due to spinal cord swelling

Treatment includes IV fluids and vasopressors.

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25
Q

What characterizes Meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges and presence of nuchal rigidity, photophobia, headache

Treatment depends on the cause (bacterial, viral, fungal).

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26
Q

What is the triad of symptoms for Meningitis?

A

Nuchal rigidity, photophobia, headache

These are key indicators of meningitis.

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27
Q

What is a Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)?

A

Also known as a ‘brain attack’

Patients should be kept slightly hypertensive to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure.

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28
Q

What is the only approved medical therapy for acute ischemic stroke?

A

Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA)

tPA is a thrombolytic agent that targets thrombus within blood vessels.

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29
Q

What is the time frame for administering IV tPA?

A

Within 3 hours from the incident

IA tPA can be given up to 6 hours post-event.

30
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis in the U.S.?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) type 1

Patients often present with fever, seizures, headache, and decreased LOC.

31
Q

What distinguishes Generalized Seizures?

A

Affect the entire brain and include types such as Tonic-Clonic and Absence seizures

These are the most commonly associated with epilepsy.

32
Q

What is Status Epilepticus?

A

Continuous seizure lasting longer than 30 minutes

It is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.

33
Q

What are the normal ranges for Arterial Blood Gases (ABGs)?

A

pH 7.35-7.45, CO2 35-45 mmHg, HCO3 22-26 mEq/L, PaO2 80-100 mmHg

These values help assess a patient’s acid-base status.

34
Q

What is the formula to calculate Bicarb needed based on Base Excess?

A

0.1 x (-BE) x patient weight in kg

This formula is useful for determining bicarbonate replacement.

35
Q

What is the Anion Gap formula?

A

Anion Gap = (Na+) - (Cl- + HCO3-)

An Anion Gap ≥16 indicates metabolic acidosis.

36
Q

What does MUDPILES stand for in the context of profound Anion Gap Acidosis?

A

Methanol, Uremia, Diabetic Ketoacidosis, Paraldehyde, Infection, Lactic Acidosis, Ethanol, Salicylates

These are common causes of an increased anion gap.

37
Q

What is the formula for calculating the Anion Gap?

A

Anion Gap = (Na+) - (Cl- + HCO3-)

Anion Gap is used to assess metabolic acidosis.

38
Q

What indicates a patient has an anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

Anion Gap ≥ 16

Normal Anion Gap is 12 (+/- 4).

39
Q

What does a larger Anion Gap indicate?

A

Worse acidosis

40
Q

What does ‘MUDPILES’ stand for in the context of profound Anion Gap Acidosis?

A

Methanol, Uremia, DKA, Propylene Glycol, Isoniazid, Lactate, Ethylene Glycol, Salicylates

41
Q

What is the treatment for Methanol poisoning?

A

IV Ethanol (ETOH) or Fomepizole

42
Q

What causes Uremia?

A

Kidney failure

43
Q

What is the treatment for Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A

IV Fluid Resuscitation & Insulin

44
Q

What is the treatment for Propylene Glycol toxicity?

A

Flumazenil (Romazicon)

45
Q

What is the treatment for Isoniazid overdose?

A

INH- Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) and Iron-Deferoxamine

46
Q

What is the underlying cause of lactate accumulation?

A

Anaerobic metabolism

47
Q

What is the treatment for Ethylene Glycol poisoning?

A

IV Ethanol (ETOH) or Fomepizole

48
Q

What is the first step in treating Anion Gap Acidosis?

A

Secure ventilation

49
Q

What should be administered if the cause of high anion gap acidosis is unknown?

A

Narcan and Flumazenil

50
Q

When is Bicarb used in Anion Gap Acidosis treatment?

A

If pH < 7.0

51
Q

What is the replacement formula for Bicarb therapy?

A

0.1 x (-BE) x kg = Bicarb required

52
Q

What is the normal range for Sodium (Na+) in a Basic Metabolic Panel?

A

135-145 mEq/L

53
Q

What does Potassium (K+) regulate in the body?

A

Cell excitability and resting membrane potential

54
Q

What is the normal range for Chloride (Cl-)?

A

95-105 mEq/L

55
Q

What does CO2 help maintain in the body?

A

Acid-base balance

56
Q

What does BUN indicate?

A

Renal (kidney) clearance

57
Q

What is the normal range for Creatinine (Cr)?

A

.7 to 1.4 mg/dL

58
Q

What is the average urine output for an adult?

A

30-50 cc/hr

59
Q

What is osmolality?

A

The measure of solute concentration in blood

60
Q

What is the normal serum osmolality range?

A

280-295 mOsm/L

61
Q

What is the first line treatment for Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A

Fluid administration and IV insulin

62
Q

What is HHNK?

A

Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Non-Ketosis

63
Q

What is the typical fluid deficit in HHNK?

64
Q

What is the cause of SIADH?

A

Excessive Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH)

65
Q

What sodium level indicates symptoms of hyponatremia?

A

<130 meq/L

66
Q

What is the maximum rate for correcting sodium levels?

A

0.5 meq/l/hr

67
Q

What are the symptoms of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Polydipsia, Polyuria, Polyphagia

68
Q

What is the treatment for Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Vasopressin / Desmopressin (DDAVP)

69
Q

What is the treatment for Esophageal Varices?

A

Octreotide (Sandostatin)

70
Q

What does Octreotide do?

A

Reduces splanchnic and hepatic blood flow

Flight Abdullah (9 decks)

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