Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Boyle’s Law?

A

The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the volume of a gas at a constant temperature

P1V1 = P2V2. Affects ETT cuffs, MAST trousers, air splints, IV drip rates

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2
Q

What does Dalton’s Law state?

A

The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of all the gases in the mixture

Pi = P1 + P2 + P3 + … + Pn. Responsible for soft tissue swelling at altitude.

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3
Q

What is Charles’ Law?

A

At a constant pressure, the volume of gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas

V1 / T1 = V2 / T2. Example: Oxygen tank gets hot when charged.

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4
Q

Describe Gay-Lussac’s Law.

A

Directly proportional relationship between temperature and pressure

P1 / T1 = P2 / T2. Example: Oxygen cylinder pressure drops overnight.

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5
Q

What is Graham’s Law?

A

Law of Gaseous Diffusion

The rate of diffusion of a gas through a liquid medium is directly related to the solubility of the gas and inversely proportional to the square root of its density.

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6
Q

What does Henry’s Law explain?

A

The quantity of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid

Affects divers, can lead to decompression sickness ‘the bends’.

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7
Q

What is decompression sickness commonly known as?

A

‘The bends’

Related to Henry’s Law.

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8
Q

What are the symptoms of Type I decompression sickness?

A

Painful joints, mottled skin, pruritic symptoms

Nitrogen related, may feel like ‘ants crawling on the skin’.

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9
Q

What are the symptoms of Type II decompression sickness?

A

Neurologic signs, hypovolemic shock, pulmonary ‘chokes’

Symptoms include cough, hemoptysis, dyspnea.

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10
Q

What causes Arterial Gas Embolism (AGE)?

A

Breath holding during ascent on a dive

Causes air to enter blood vessels, leading to ischemia.

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11
Q

What is the pressure at sea level?

A

760 torr or mmHg (1 ATM)

Every 33 feet underwater = 1 ATM.

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12
Q

What is the physiological zone in altitude physiology?

A

Sea Level to 10,000 ft MSL

Night vision decreases beginning at 5,000 ft MSL.

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13
Q

What happens in the physiologically deficient zone?

A

10,000 to 50,000 ft MSL requires oxygen or pressurization to survive

Sudden decompression significantly reduces time of useful consciousness.

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14
Q

What is the oxygen adjustment calculation formula?

A

(FiO2 x P1) / P2 = FiO2 required for ascent

FiO2 = Fraction of inspired oxygen.

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15
Q

What is hypemic hypoxia?

A

Reduction in the O2 carrying capacity of blood

Causes include anemia and hemorrhage.

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16
Q

What are the stages of hypoxia?

A
  • Indifferent
  • Compensatory
  • Disturbance
  • Critical

Indifferent stage is most important because reasoning abilities are still intact.

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17
Q

What is the #1 cause of crashes in aviation?

A

Weather

#2 cause is night flight.

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18
Q

What is the significance of the sterile cockpit rule?

A

Only essential communication during critical phases of flight

Applies during takeoff, landing, refueling, and taxi.

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19
Q

What is the maximum duty day under FAR Part 135?

A

14 hours

Applies to flying passengers for money.

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20
Q

What is the role of AMRM?

A

Distributes workload and involves all members in mission planning

Also referred to as Crew Resource Management (CRM).

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21
Q

What are the weather minimums for flying in mountainous areas during the day?

A

1,000 ft - 3 miles

Applies to cross country flights.

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22
Q

What is required for a pilot in command of a helicopter?

A

2,000 hours total flight time, 1,200 hours in a helicopter

Must be instrument rated.

23
Q

What is barodontalgia?

A

Tooth pain due to air trapped in fillings expanding on ascent

Also referred to as ‘Aerodontaligia’.

24
Q

What is barotitis?

A

Ear pain due to air pressure changes during descent

Caused by Eustachian Tube Dysfunction.

25
What does VMC stand for?
Visual Meteorological Conditions
26
True or False: Under VMC, a pilot can fly using instruments.
False
27
What are Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)?
Conditions where weather does not allow safe flight by sight alone, requiring instrument use.
28
Define IMC.
Instrument Meteorological Conditions
29
What does IIMC stand for?
Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions
30
What is a Hasty or Unsecured HLZ?
A landing zone that must have communication with the ground and is large enough to land, generally 100' x 100'.
31
What is the purpose of a high and low pass before landing at an HLZ?
To look for hazards on the HLZ.
32
What is the recommended procedure if an aircraft experiences an engine failure?
Land immediately.
33
List the steps in the pre-crash sequence.
* Lay the patient flat * Turn off any oxygen * Secure seat belt * Sit up straight * Tighten helmet strap * Position knees together * Position feet flat on the floor * Cross arms on chest * Chin to chest
34
What frequency does an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) transmit on?
121.5 MHz
35
What is the upgraded transmit frequency for an ELT?
406 MHz
36
What does EMTALA stand for?
Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
37
What is the '250 Yard rule' under EMTALA?
If someone is injured within 250 yards of a hospital, they must be treated.
38
What are the elements of Standard of Care in negligence?
* Presence of duty * Breach of duty * Foreseeability * Causation * Injury * Damages
39
What must be reported under the Duty to Report?
* Child abuse * Elder abuse * Violent crime
40
What does the acronym LEMON stand for in airway assessment?
* Look * Evaluate 3-3-2 * Mallampati classification * Obstructions * Neck Mobility
41
Describe Mallampati I classification.
Soft palate, uvula, anterior/posterior tonsillar pillars visible.
42
What is the gold standard for placement confirmation of an ETT?
Chest X-Ray
43
What is the purpose of Sellick’s Maneuver during intubation?
To occlude the esophagus and prevent aspiration.
44
What is the correct cuff inflation pressure for an ETT?
20-30 mmHg
45
How does Capnography measure ETCO2?
By attaching an electronic device to the ETT.
46
What is the purpose of the 7 P's in intubation?
* Preparation * Preoxygenate * Pretreatment * Paralysis with induction * Protect and position * Placement with proof * Post intubation management
47
What is the role of Lidocaine in RSI pretreatment?
To blunt the cough reflex preventing ICP increase.
48
What is the onset time for Succinylcholine?
1-2 minutes
49
What are the signs of Malignant Hyperthermia?
* Masseter spasm * Rapid increase in temperature * Increased ETCO2 * Tachycardia * Mixed acidosis
50
What is the dose for Vecuronium?
0.04-0.06 mg/kg IVP if following succinylcholine
51
What is a key characteristic of Ketamine?
It preserves laryngeal reflexes.
52
Fill in the blank: Propofol is known as '_______ of Amnesia'.
Milk
53
What is the duration of action for Midazolam?
15-30 minutes
54
What is the primary use of Atropine in infants?
To prevent reflexive bradycardia.