Part 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the indications for an emergency C-section?

A

Multiple decelerations with poor rate/variability, sustained bradycardia (<120 BPM for >10 minutes), sinusoidal waveform

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2
Q

What characterizes true labor?

A

Regular uterine contractions with cervical change (effacement)

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3
Q

What is the most common cause of preterm labor?

A

Hypovolemia

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4
Q

What is the definition of preterm delivery?

A

Delivery before 38 weeks gestation

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5
Q

Name two tocolytics used in preterm labor.

A
  • Terbutaline
  • Magnesium Sulfate
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6
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Magnesium Sulfate?

A

CNS depressant, smooth muscle relaxant

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7
Q

What is the loading dose of Magnesium Sulfate?

A

4-6 grams IV over 30 minutes

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8
Q

What should be monitored for signs of Magnesium toxicity?

A

Decreased DTRs, pulmonary edema

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9
Q

What is the antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity?

A

Calcium Gluconate

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10
Q

What does PROM stand for?

A

Premature Rupture of Membranes

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11
Q

What is the primary concern if PROM occurs in a preterm baby?

A

Prepare for delivery

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12
Q

What is Anaphylactoid Syndrome of Pregnancy?

A

Caused by maternal exposure to fetal cells, not an amniotic fluid pulmonary embolus

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13
Q

What are the symptoms of Anaphylactoid Syndrome of Pregnancy?

A
  • Sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain
  • Tachypnea
  • Tachycardia
  • Fever
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14
Q

What is the treatment for Umbilical Cord Prolapse?

A
  • Elevate the cord
  • Use saline soaked gauze
  • Move to Trendelenburg position or knees to chest
  • Give Tocolytics
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15
Q

What does PIH stand for?

A

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension

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16
Q

What is HELLP Syndrome?

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver Enzymes, Low Platelets

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17
Q

What are the key signs of PreEclampsia?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Proteinuria
  • Edema
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18
Q

What differentiates Eclampsia from PreEclampsia?

A

Eclampsia includes generalized seizures

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19
Q

What is the first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Vigorous fundal massage

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20
Q

What is the role of Oxytocin in labor?

A

Facilitates birth after cervix and uterus distension

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21
Q

When should Rhogam be administered?

A
  • At 28 weeks gestation
  • After delivery
  • After any trauma/bleeding
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22
Q

What is the primary cause of maternal death?

A

Trauma

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23
Q

What is the most common cardiac defect in newborns?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

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24
Q

What is the treatment for neonatal sepsis?

A

Ampicillin + Gentamycin

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25
Q

What are the signs of infant seizures?

A
  • Lip smacking
  • Tongue thrusting
  • Eye fluttering
  • Lowered O2 sats
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26
Q

What is the definition of Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS)?

A

Surfactant deficiency leading to increased work of breathing

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27
Q

What is Omphalocele?

A

Protrusion of viscera attached to the umbilical cord

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28
Q

What is the treatment for Gastroschisis?

A
  • Maintain body temperature
  • Cover with moist, sterile dressings
  • Keep NPO
  • Surgical repair
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29
Q

What is the most important factor in febrile seizures?

A

Rate of temperature increase

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30
Q

What does PDA stand for?

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

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31
Q

What is the primary treatment for closing a PDA?

A

Indomethacin (Indocin)

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32
Q

What are ‘Tet Spells’ associated with?

A

Sudden cyanosis and syncope in Tetralogy of Fallot

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33
Q

What is the most common cause of seizures in newborns?

A

Hypoglycemia

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34
Q

What is the role of a VP Shunt?

A

Treatment for increased CSF in congenital hydrocephalus

35
Q

What is a Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)?

A

A congenital heart defect characterized by a hole in the septum separating the heart’s ventricles.

36
Q

What are ‘Tet Spells’?

A

‘Tet Spells’ are characterized by sudden cyanosis and syncope.

37
Q

How should a ‘Tet Spell’ be treated?

A

Treat with knees to chest and Morphine; if unresolved, perform RSI, intubate, and provide 100% O2.

38
Q

What is the normal structure of an umbilical cord?

A

An umbilical cord normally has 2 arteries and 1 vein.

39
Q

What does a single artery cord indicate?

A

If the newborn only has 1 artery and 1 vein in the cord, the renal system is likely to be affected.

40
Q

What is the age range for a Neonate?

A

Birth to 28 days.

41
Q

What is the age range for an Infant?

A

29 days to 1 year old.

42
Q

What is the age range for a Toddler?

A

1 year old to 2 years old.

43
Q

What is the age range for a Child?

A

> 2 years old.

44
Q

What is the formula for calculating ETT Diameter?

A

ETT Diameter = 16 + (Age / 4).

45
Q

When should a cuffed ETT be used?

A

If the required ETT size is ≥5.5mm.

46
Q

Fill in the blank: If the required ETT size is <5.5mm, use an _______.

A

UNCUFFED ETT.

47
Q

What is the ‘2/3/4 Rule’ related to ETT size?

A

x ETT Size = Suction/NG Foley diameter, ETT Insertion depth, Chest Tube.

48
Q

What is the normal systolic blood pressure formula for children?

A

Normal Systolic B/P = 90 + (2 x Age).

49
Q

What is the hypotensive systolic blood pressure formula?

A

Hypotensive Systolic B/P = 70 + (2 x Age).

50
Q

What is the pediatric fluid resuscitation amount for a Neonate/Infant?

A

10cc/kg for those <1 year old.

51
Q

What is the pediatric fluid resuscitation amount for a Toddler/Child?

A

20cc/kg for those >1 year old.

52
Q

What is the average circulating blood volume in a child?

A

80-90 ml/kg.

53
Q

What is the ‘4/2/1’ rule for pediatric maintenance fluids?

A

1-10 kg: 4cc/kg/hr, 10-20 kg: 2cc/kg/hr, >20 kg: 1cc/kg/hr.

54
Q

What is the D stick threshold for pediatric glucose management?

55
Q

What is the treatment for a Neonate with low blood sugar?

A

2cc/kg D10.

56
Q

What is the treatment for an Infant/Toddler with low blood sugar?

A

2cc/kg D25.

57
Q

What is the treatment for a Child with low blood sugar?

A

2cc/kg D50.

58
Q

What does Stridor indicate?

A

An inhalation problem involving the upper airway.

59
Q

What does Wheezing indicate?

A

An exhalation problem involving the lower airway.

60
Q

What is Bronchiolitis?

A

Swelling of the bronchiole walls, usually not life-threatening and often caused by RSV.

61
Q

What are the symptoms of Bronchiolitis?

A

Cough, shortness of breath, nasal flaring, wheezing/crackling.

62
Q

What is Croup?

A

Swelling around the vocal cords, characterized by a ‘seal-like’ barking cough.

63
Q

What is the treatment for Croup?

A

Racemic epinephrine and steroids (Decadron).

64
Q

What is Epiglottitis?

A

Swelling of the epiglottis, which is life-threatening.

65
Q

What are common signs of Epiglottitis?

A

Sudden onset, drooling, tripod position.

66
Q

What is the typical treatment for Epiglottitis?

A

Antibiotics and humidified O2.

67
Q

What is the primary concern with Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)?

A

Can cause apnea, especially in those with congenital heart defects.

68
Q

What is Waddel’s Triad?

A

Injury pattern in children hit by a car: car hits them, they hit the car, then they hit the ground.

69
Q

What is the most common cause of traumatic death in pediatrics?

A

Motor Vehicle Accidents.

70
Q

What is the most commonly injured organ in children during trauma?

71
Q

How do children compensate for blood loss?

A

They do not show signs of hypotension until >25% blood loss, compensating with tachycardia.

72
Q

What are signs of pediatric abuse?

A

Multiple fractures or bruises in different stages of healing, retinal hemorrhages.

73
Q

What is the formula for Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?

A

MAP = (SBP + (2 x DBP))/3.

74
Q

What is the normal range for MAP?

A

80 to 100 mmHg.

75
Q

What is Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP.

76
Q

What is the normal ICP value?

A

0 – 10 mmHg.

77
Q

What does Cushing’s Triad indicate?

A

Results from increased ICP leading to brainstem herniation.

78
Q

What are the components of Cushing’s Triad?

A

Hypertension, Bradycardia, Increased Pulse Pressure.

79
Q

What are the signs of herniation?

A

Change in LOC, fixed & dilated pupil, decorticate/decerebrate posturing.

80
Q

What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

A

Breathing becomes shallower until it stops, then starts again, rapidly increasing to a peak before decreasing.

81
Q

What is Central Pontine Myelinolysis?

A

Caused by reversing hyponatremia too quickly, leading to brain shrinkage.

82
Q

What is the risk of using hypotonic solutions or glucose in brain injury?

A

It can worsen brain injuries.

83
Q

What characterizes a Diastatic Fracture?

A

Fracture along the suture lines of the skull, leading to separation of the sutures.