Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Flight Abdullah > Part 2 > Flashcards

Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ketamine in trauma?

A

Ketamine does not suppress laryngeal reflexes, helping to maintain the patient’s airway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the dose of Morphine for mild pain control?

A

2 mg IV/IM/IO (Q4H as needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the preferred route for administering Morphine?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are common side effects of Morphine?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Pruritis
  • Nausea
  • Flushing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the reversal agent for Morphine?

A

Naloxone (Narcan) 0.4-2 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fentanyl is how many times more powerful than Morphine?

A

100 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the available strengths of Fentanyl lozenges (Actiq)?

A
  • 400 mcg
  • 800 mcg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the onset time and duration of Fentanyl?

A

Onset: 1-2 minutes, Duration: 45-60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the tidal volume (Vt) definition?

A

The amount of air the patient breathes in a normal breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can excessive tidal volume cause?

A

Ventilator-Induced Lung Injury (VILI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the formula for Vital Capacity (VC)?

A

VC = Tidal Volume (Vt) + Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) + Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where are central chemoreceptors located?

A

In the medulla/pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What drives the response of central chemoreceptors?

A

CO2 and H+ levels in cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the definition of V/Q in respiratory physiology?

A

Ventilation/Perfusion ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the Fick formula used for?

A

To measure oxygen uptake by the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What characterizes hypercarbic respiratory failure?

A

Inability to remove CO2, evidenced by respiratory acidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment for hypoxic respiratory failure?

A

Increase tidal volume and O2 concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are apneustic respirations characterized by?

A

Deep, gasping inspiration with a pause at full inspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary goal of ventilator management?

A

Ensure adequate tidal volume and respiratory rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does PEEP stand for?

A

Positive End Expiratory Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the normal range for tidal volume (Vt) settings?

A

6-8 cc/kg of ideal body weight (IBW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the purpose of CPAP?

A

To maintain a continuous level of PEEP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the acronym DOPE stand for in ventilator alarms?

A
  • Dislodged
  • Obstructed
  • Pneumothorax
  • Equipment failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the definition of Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR)?

A

Maximum speed of expiration, measured with a peak flow meter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the typical PEFR range for males?

A

500 to 700 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the primary treatment for asthma exacerbation?

A
  • Increase I:E ratio to 1:4
  • High flow O2
  • Bronchodilators
  • IV Fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What characterizes COPD?

A

The problem is breathing out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia?

A

Viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does ARDS stand for?

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the main focus in managing ARDS?

A

Oxygenation with increased PEEP and high tidal volumes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the typical cardiac output (CO) values?

32
Q

What does stroke volume (SV) depend on?

A
  • Preload
  • Contractility
  • Afterload
33
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

A

A condition where pulmonary arteries constrict.

34
Q

What is the relationship between systemic perfusion and blood vessels?

A

In response to decreased systemic perfusion, blood vessels constrict.

35
Q

What happens to cardiac output (CO) with increased systemic vasoconstriction?

A

Cardiac output increases.

36
Q

How is cardiac output (CO) calculated?

A

CO = HR x SV.

37
Q

What is the normal range for cardiac output (CO)?

A

4-8 L/min.

38
Q

What does stroke volume (SV) depend on?

A

Preload, contractility, and afterload.

39
Q

Define preload.

A

The load that stretches cardiac tissue before contraction.

40
Q

What is contractility?

A

The intrinsic ability of the myocardium to contract.

41
Q

What does the Frank-Starling law state?

A

Stroke volume increases in response to an increase in blood volume filling the heart.

42
Q

What is afterload?

A

The degree of vascular resistance to ventricular contraction.

43
Q

What factors affect right heart afterload?

A

Pulmonary arteries.

44
Q

What factors affect left heart afterload?

A

Systemic vascular resistance.

45
Q

What is pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)?

A

A measure of afterload of the right heart.

46
Q

What is the normal range for pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)?

A

50-250 dynes.

47
Q

What can increase pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)?

A
  • Acidosis * Hypercapnia * Hypoxia * Atelectasis * ARDS
48
Q

What decreases pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)?

A
  • Alkalosis * Hypocapnea * Vasodilating drugs
49
Q

What is systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?

A

A measure of afterload of the left heart.

50
Q

What is the normal range for systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?

A

800-1200 dynes.

51
Q

What factors can increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?

A
  • Hypothermia * Hypovolemic shock * Decreased CO
52
Q

What factors can decrease systemic vascular resistance (SVR)?

A
  • Anaphylaxis * Neurogenic shock * Spinal shock * Septic shock * Vasodilating drugs
53
Q

What does S1 heart sound represent?

A

Closure of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves.

54
Q

What does S2 heart sound represent?

A

Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves.

55
Q

What does S3 heart sound indicate?

A

Excess filling of the ventricles.

56
Q

What are common causes of S3 heart sound?

A
  • Congestive heart failure * Chordae tendineae dysfunction
57
Q

What does S4 heart sound indicate?

A

Blood forced into a stiff ventricle.

58
Q

What are common causes of S4 heart sound?

A
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy * Hypertension * Myocardial infarction
59
Q

What is the Right Coronary Artery (RCA) responsible for?

A

Supplying the right ventricle and SA node in most of the population.

60
Q

What is the significance of a blockage in the Left Coronary Artery (LCA)?

A

It is called the ‘widow maker’ due to its critical importance.

61
Q

What does STEMI stand for?

A

ST Segment Elevation Myocardial Infarction.

62
Q

What is a hallmark of STEMI on an EKG?

A

ST elevation in 2 contiguous leads >2mm.

63
Q

What are positive cardiac markers associated with STEMI?

A
  • CK-MB * Troponin * MB
64
Q

What differentiates Non-STEMI from STEMI?

A

ST depression or dynamic T wave changes in 2 contiguous leads.

65
Q

What is the main characteristic of unstable angina?

A

Angina not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.

66
Q

What does a cardiac panel typically include?

A
  • Troponin I * CK-MB * MB
67
Q

How long after onset can Troponin I be detected?

68
Q

When does Myoglobin peak after an event?

A

4 to 9 hours.

69
Q

What is the approach to interpreting a 12 lead EKG?

A

Be consistent and identify normal/abnormal patterns.

70
Q

What does the PAILS approach refer to in EKG interpretation?

A

A systematic method for identifying MI types.

71
Q

What is the treatment for an inferior MI?

A

2L fluid challenge, no nitro or beta blockers.

72
Q

What are reciprocal changes in EKG?

A

Inverted QRS complex or ST segment depression.

73
Q

In what leads would you find ST segment changes for an anterior MI?

A

V2, V3, V4.

74
Q

What is the treatment for lateral MI?

75
Q

Fill in the blank: The degree of vascular resistance to ventricular contraction is called _______.

A

[afterload]

Flight Abdullah (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions