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Part 2 Video series Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of action of aztreonam?

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting cross linking

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2
Q

Mechanism of action of azithromycin?

A

inhibit 50S subunit

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3
Q

Mechanism of action of doxycyline?

A

inhibit 30S subunit

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4
Q

Mechanism of action of dicloxacillin

A

blocks peptoglycan cross-linking

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5
Q

Mechanism of action of moxifloxacin

A

block topo II/IV

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6
Q

Mechanism of action of TMP?

A

inhibit DHF reductase

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7
Q

Mechanism of action of amiodarone?

A

class 3 K channel

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8
Q

Mechanism of action of atenolol

A

class 2 beta blocker

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9
Q

Mechanism of action of disopyramide

A

class 1A Na channel

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10
Q

Mechanism of action of diltiazem

A

class 4 Ca channel

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11
Q

Mechanism of action of procainamide

A

Class 1A Na channel

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12
Q

Mechanism of action of propafenone

A

Class 1C Na channel

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13
Q

Mechanism of action of aspirin

A

COX1 and COX2 inhibitor

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14
Q

Mechanism of action of clopidogrel

A

ADP receptor blocker

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15
Q

Mechanism of action of heparin

A

antithrombin activation

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16
Q

Mechanism of action of rivaroxaban

A

direct xa inhibitor

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17
Q

Mechanism of action of tirofiban

A

G2b/3a

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18
Q

Mechanism of action of warfarin

A

vit K factor inhibitor

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19
Q

Child at well child. Anxious, able to stand unassisted, walk with assistance, say “mama” and “dada” and stack two blocks. Development of child?

A

12 months

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20
Q

Causes of macrocephaly?

A

ICH, acromegaly, Tay Sachs

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21
Q

Most common treatment for amblyopia?

A

eye patching good eye

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22
Q

APGAR score, stands for?

A 
Appearance
pulse
grimace
activity
respirations
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23
Q

Infant has pink trunk but blue extremities. Breathing infrequently and has a weak cry. FLexion of his limbs, no resistance. Pulse is 105. Baby grimaces, does not move away. APGAR score?

A

6

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24
Q

Infant is breathing 62 breaths/min, displaying nasal flaring, and grunting. CXR shows hazy interstitial infiltrates. Next steps in management?

A

CPAP, intubation

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25
Q

2 year old girl has low grade fever, runny nose and a bark-like cough for the past 3 days. Tired but has been playing regularly during the day and cough worsens at nighttime. On exam, patient has coarse breath sounds but no wheezing or stridor. Oxygen is 99%. Next step?

A

decadron

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26
Q

8 year old boy with asthma goes to well child visit. Uses albuterol inhaler 3-4 times per month. PEx is normal. Next step?

A

add low dose inhaled steroid

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27
Q

Empiric abx management for patient with epiglottitis?

A

clinda/vanc and cefepime/ceftriaxone

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28
Q

9 year old boy is seen for tachy and lightheadedness. PMH of severe asthma on multiple meds. Asthma good control. Lungs clear, oxygen sat 99%. Pulse is 150 beats/min, BP is 72/40. What med is causing sx?

A

theophylline

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29
Q

4 day old has 101.2 fever with witnessed seizure. What anti-infective tx is most appropriate?

A

amp, cefotaxime/gent, acyclovir

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30
Q

2 year old has 2 day fever 103. Parents report no other ill-like sx. Normal PEx and vital signs stable. WBC is 22,000. UA is normal. Blood and urine cx obtained. Next most appropriate step?

A

CXR, maybe admission, iv abx

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31
Q

3 week old is brought in for frequent projectile vomiting. Patient formula fed and vomits right after all meals. Patient losing weight. What metabolic abnormalities might be present?

A

hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

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32
Q

2 day old 30 week gestational age newborn has bilious vomiting and lethargy. An abd xray reveals air in the wall of intestines. Appropriate next step?

A

stop feeds, amp/cefotaxime/metronidazole

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33
Q

Primary risk factors for NEC?

A

preterm birth

enteral feeding

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34
Q

2 month old intant boy is having frequent spitting up of milk based formula. Infant gaining normal weight. Appropriate next step?

A

reassurance, lactose free formula, upright feedings, thicken feeds

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35
Q

mechanism of action of antidiabetic drug that increases insulin release?

A

sulfonylureas

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36
Q

mechanism of action of antidiabetic drug that agonist at PPAR gamma receptors?

A

TZDs

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37
Q

mechanism of action of antidiabetic drug decreases heaptic gluconeogenesis?

A

metformin

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38
Q

mechanism of action of antidiabetic drug increases insulin sensitivity?

A

TZDs

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39
Q

antidiabetic drug that recommended first line tx for type 2 diabetes?

A

metformin

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40
Q

class of oral antibiabetic drugs that commonly causes hypoglycemia

A

sulfonylureas

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41
Q

antidiabetic drug that causes lactic acidosis?

A

metformin

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42
Q

antidiabetic drug that is not safe in patients with advance CHF

A

TZDs

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43
Q

antidiabetic drug that should not be used in patients with elevated serum creatinine

A

metformin

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44
Q

antidiabetic drug that is metabolized bny liverkl so can be used in patients with renal disease

A

TZDs

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45
Q

antidiabetic drug that should be stopped following administration of IV contrast

A

metformin

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46
Q

drug class that helps slow progression of diabetic nephropathy?

A

ARB/ACEI

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47
Q

greatest risk for sudden cardiac death in a patient who has just suffered an acute MI in the last few hours?

A

VT/VFib

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48
Q

meds that reduce mortality in patients with CHF

A

ACEI, beta blockers, aldosterone inhibitors

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49
Q

tx of HOCM?

A

beta blocker, restrict phys activity, avoid volume depletion

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50
Q

immediate tx for flash pulm edema from CHF

A

nitrates, PPV

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51
Q

most likely cause of LOC when high school athlete loses consciousness during a football game

A

HOCM

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52
Q

most likely cause of elderly man loses consciousness only when wearing a tie and a tight fitting collar

A

hypersensitivity carotid sinus

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53
Q

most likely cause of LOC and loss of bladder control and delayed return to baseline

A

seizure

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54
Q

most likely cause of LOC during venipuncture and diaphoresis pallor bradycardia

A

neurocardiogenic syncope

55
Q

most likely cause of gradual LOC with diaphoresis and tachycardia in a type 1 diabetic

A

decreased BSG

56
Q

most likely cause of gradual LOC with hyperglycemia and abd pain in a type 2 diabetic

57
Q

Murmur of opening snap and rumbling late diastolic murmur at the apex

A

mitral stenosis

58
Q

Murmur of bounding radial pulses and early diastolic murmur along the left sternal border

A

aortic regurg

59
Q

Murmur of mid systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur

60
Q

Murmur of weak radial pulses and crescendo/decrescendo systolic murmur at the RUSB radiating to the carotids

A

aortic stenosis

61
Q

Murmur of holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the left axilla

A

mitral regurg

62
Q

Which endocrine disorder is most likely to cause a fib?

A

TSH, hyperthyroidism

63
Q

Drugs used to control heart rate in patient in a flutter?

A

dilt or metop

64
Q

First line pharmacotherapy for a patient with paroxysmal SVT?

A

IV adenosine

65
Q

First line tx for a patient with vtach without a pulse?

66
Q

Microorganism associated with travel in the desert southwest?

A

coccidiodes

67
Q

Microorganism associated with rust colored sputum?

A

strep pneumo

68
Q

Microorganism associated with cave exploring?

A

histoplasma

69
Q

Microorganism associated with PNA in HIV patient with CD4 less than 200

70
Q

antiretroviral avoided during pregnancy?

71
Q

antiretroviral class known to cause lactic acidosis?

A

NRTI - zidovudine, didanosine, stavudine, lamivudine, emtricitabine, abacavir, tenofovir

72
Q

antiretroviral class known to cause elevated glucose and lipids

A

protease inhibitors - darunavir, ritonavir, indinavir, atazanavir, saquinavir, nelfinavir, fosamprenavir, tipranavir

73
Q

antiretroviral class known to cause rash

A

NNRTI - efavirenz, nevirapine, rilpivirine, etravirineq

74
Q

antiretroviral class known to cause diarrhea

A

protease inhibitors - darunavir, ritonavir, indinavir, atazanavir

75
Q

antiretroviral agent causing fatal hypersens reaction?

76
Q

antiretroviral agent causing hyperbili

A

atazanavir

77
Q

antiretrotival agent boosting levels of other protease inhibitor

78
Q

65 year old man presents with hematuria and vague back pain. WBC is 5500 and hgb is 21. Dx?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

79
Q

38 year old man presents with hemoptysis and recurrent sinusitis. Urine shows microscopic hematuria. Type of glomerulonephritis? tx?

A

grandulomatosis with polyangiitis

cyclophosphamide and steroids

80
Q

most common cause of upper GI bleeding?

A

PUD, esophagitis, esophagel varices

81
Q

Most likely cause of anemia with restless legs syndrome

82
Q

most likely cause of anemia in a patient who east ice

83
Q

most likely cause of anemia that develops after taking sulfa drug

84
Q

most likely cause of microcytic anemia in an alcoholic

A

sideroblastic

85
Q

most likely cause of microcytic anemia in a patient with RA

86
Q

most likely cause of microcytic anemia with neuro sx

A

lead poisoning

87
Q

most likely cause of megaloblastic anemia with neuro sx

88
Q

most likely cause of megaloblastic anemia without neuro sx

89
Q

malignancy which is always positive for t(9;22)

A

CML

philadelphia chromosome

90
Q

malignancy of 10 year old boy with trisomy 21

91
Q

malignancy treated with bortezomib plus melphalan

92
Q

malignancy treated with ATRA

93
Q

malignancy treated with thalidomide

94
Q

malignancy treated with rituximab

A

non-hodgkin CD20

95
Q

malignancy treated with imatinib

96
Q

Cause of amenorrhea for ballet dancer with eating disorder

A

functional hypothalamic

97
Q

Cause of amenorrhea for short stature, low set ears and webbed neck

A

turner syndrome

98
Q

Cause of amenorrhea following dilation and curettage after spontaneous abortion

A

ashermann syndrome

99
Q

Cause of amenorrhea with cyclic pelvic pain and blue bulge at introitus on exam

A

imperforate hymen

100
Q

Cause of amenorrhea with elevated testosterone level and no axillary or pubic hair on exam

A

androgen insens

101
Q

Cause of amenorrhea with overweight female with acne and hirsutism

102
Q

Cause of amenorrhea with postpartum patient with inability to breastfeed

A

sheehan syndrome

103
Q

Cause of amenorrhea with patient with anosmia

A

kallmann syndrome

104
Q

Cause of amenorrhea with patient with galactorrhea

A

pituitary adenoma

105
Q

Cause of amenorrhea, most common cause

106
Q

antidepressant choice for depressed patient with insomnia

107
Q

antidepressant first line for most cases of unipolar depression

108
Q

antidepressant good choice for patient who cannot tolerate SSRI sexual dysfunction

109
Q

antidepressant good choice for patient with appetite suppression and weight loss

A

mirtazapine

110
Q

antidepressant that may helpo with smoking cessation

111
Q

antidepressant in overdose may cause sedation and life threatening arrhythmias

112
Q

medication used to prevent vasospasm after a subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

nimodipine

113
Q

HA made worse by foods containing tyramine

114
Q

HA obese woman with papilledema

115
Q

HA jaw muscle pain when chewing

A

temporal arteritis

116
Q

HA periorbital pain with ptosis and miosis

A

cluster HA

117
Q

HA photophobia and or phonophobia

118
Q

HA most common cause of HA

119
Q

HA lacrimation and or rhinorrhea

120
Q

HA elevated ESR

A

temporal arteritis

121
Q

HA worse headache of my life

122
Q

HA scintillating scotomas prior to HA

123
Q

HA responsive to 100% oxygen supplementation

124
Q

tx of dig tox

A

dig immune FAB

125
Q

tx of warfarin tox

A

vit K, FFP

126
Q

tx of heparin tox

A

protamine sulfate

127
Q

tx of tPA tox

A

aminocaproic acid

128
Q

tx of anticholinergic tox

A

physostigmine

129
Q

tx of organophosphates tox

A

atropine, pralidoxime

130
Q

tx of carbon monoxide

A

100% oxygen

131
Q

tx of lead poisoning

A

EDTA, succimer, dimercaprol

132
Q

tx of mercury poisoning

A

dimercaprol, penicillamine

133
Q

tx of copper poisoning

A

penicillamine

134
Q

tx of iron poisoning

A

defuroxamine, deferasirox, deferiprone

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