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Paper 2 recall Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Where are electron carries in photosynthesis located?

A

The thylakoid membrane

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2
Q

Where are protons pumped to and from in the chemiosmotic theory of photosynthesis?

A

They move from the stroma into the thylakoid intermembrane space

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3
Q

How are the electrons in chlorophyll replaced after photoionisation?

A

Photolysis of water splits to release electrons

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4
Q

What are all the products of the light dependent stage?

A

Oxygen, NADPH and ATP

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5
Q

What are some of the adaptations of chlorophyll for photosythesis?

A

Contain DNA and ribosomes to make proteins and enzymes, selectively permeable allows H+ gradient established, thylakoid membrane has large SA for chlorophyll, electron carriers and enzyme attachment and grana maximises light absorption

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6
Q

How is GP reduced to TP in photosynthesis?

A

Glycerate 3-phosphate is reduced to triose phosphate as NADPH is oxidised to NADP and energy is supplied from ATP

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7
Q

How is RuBP regenerated?

A

Most TP reforms Ribulose BiPhosphate using ATP

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8
Q

How is TP converted to pyruvate in glycolysis?

A

It is oxidised and NADH formed, each TP also synthesises two ATP per molecule so net gain 2 ATP for the whole of glycolysis

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9
Q

What happens in the link reaction?

A

The pyruvate is oxidised to acetate, CO2 is lost from the molecule and two hydrogens to form 1 NADH, acetate then combines with coenzyme A to form acetylcoenzyme A

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10
Q

What are the raw products for one Kreb cycle?

A

2 CO2, 3NADH, 1 FADH and one ATP

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11
Q

How are electrons released at the ETC of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

The Hydrogen atoms of NADH and FADH are released and they split to release electron which enter the carrier proteins and protons

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12
Q

How is the release of energy from electrons controlled?

A

As they move through the electron carriers, they move into lower energy levels so down an energy gradient, this causes gradual releases of energy that allow all the energy to be used

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13
Q

What are lipids and proteins converted to for use in respiration?

A

Glycerol becomes phosphorylates then becomes TP, fatty acids are converted to Acetyl Coenzyme A and proteins are converted to intermediates of the Krebs cycle

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14
Q

How is NAD regenerated in anaerobic respiration?

A

The pyruvate becomes reduced

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15
Q

What happens to lactate once oxygen becomes available again?

A

It is oxidised back to pyruvate which can then be further oxidised to release energy or converted into glycogen in the liver

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16
Q

What are saprobionts?

A

Organisms that break down the complex materials of dead organisms into simple structure that can be used by plants

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17
Q

What is biomass?

A

Total mass of living material in a specific area at a given time (mass of carbon easier measure due to water varying)

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18
Q

Why is so much of the suns energy NOT used to synthesise organic substances by plants?

A

90% of the sun energy reflected back by clouds and dust, not all wavelengths of light absorbed by plants, light may not fall on chlorophyll molecule and other factors such as CO2 may limit the rate of photosynthesis leading to 1-3% of the suns energy harnessed

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19
Q

What is the Gross Primary Production?

A

Total quantity of chemical energy store in plant biomass in a given area or volume in a given time

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20
Q

What is NPP used for?

A

Growth and reproduction

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21
Q

Why is energy transfer between trophic levels low?

A

Not all of the organism consumed, some parts not digested (faeces), energy lost in excretion (urine) and heat losses from respiration

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22
Q

How have nitrogen fertilisers reduced species diversity?

A

Soils favour the growth of grasses, nettles and other rapidly growing species, these out-compete many other species

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23
Q

What is IAA?

A

Indoleacetic acid (a plant growth factor)

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24
Q

How does IAA affect roots?

A

Inhibits cell elongation

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25
Q

What is the proposed explanation for IAA increasing plasticity of cell walls?

A

Acid growth hypothesis, active transport of H+ ions from the cytoplasm into spaces in the cell walls causing cell wall to become more plastic allowing the cell to elongate by expansion

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26
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system?

A

Pairs of nerves that originate from either the brain or the spinal cord

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27
Q

What are the features of a reflex?

A

Rapid, short lived, localised and involuntary

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28
Q

What does the coordinator neurone do?

A

Links the sensory neurone to the motor neurone in the spinal cord

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29
Q

How does the Pacinian Corpuscle act as a transducer?

A

Converts the change in the form of energy by the stimulus into nerve impulses that can be understood by the body

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30
Q

What are the features of rod cells?

A

Abundant, only see black and white, many connected to one bipolar cell, low light intensity, night vision, single impulse so low visual acuity, found at the peripheries

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31
Q

What are the features of cone cells?

A

Three different types (different sensitivities to wavelengths), own bipolar cell connected, only respond to high light intensity (iodopsin broke down), multiple impulses so good visual acuity, found only at the fovea

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32
Q

How does the heart beat?

A

SAN emits wave of electricity which causes atria to contract, this reaches AVN which emits another wave through Purkyne fibres in Bundle of His to cause ventricles to contract from the bottom upwards

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33
Q

What are the 6 features of mammalian motor neurones?

A

A cell body, dendrons, an axon, Schwann cells, myelin sheath and nodes of Ranvier

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34
Q

What are dendrons?

A

Extensions of the cell body which subdivide into smaller branched fibres called dendrites, that carry nerve impulses towards the cell body

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35
Q

What is an axon?

A

A single long fibre that carries nerve impulses away from the body cell

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36
Q

What are Schwann cells?

A

Surround the axon to protect it, and provide electrical insulation, they also carry out phagocytosis, they wrap aourn the axon many times to form the myelin sheath

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37
Q

How is a potential difference established (resting potential)?

A

Three sodium ions actively transported out and two potassium ions actively transported in by sodium potassium pump, sodium ions channels closed but potassium ion channels open

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38
Q

How does hyperpolarisation occur?

A

Outward diffusion of potassium ions causes temporary overshoot in electrical gradient, with the inside of the axon being more negative than usual

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39
Q

How does depolarisation of one region on an axon transfer to the next?

A

Sodium ion channels are voltage gated so when one are has an increase in voltage it causes adjacent sodium ion channels to open

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40
Q

What factors increase the speed of action potentials along an axon?

A

Presence of a myelin sheath, larger diameter (less leakage) and higher temperatures (until denaturation)

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41
Q

How do organisms perceive the different sizes of stimuli?

A

By the number of impulses passing in a given time and by having different neurones with different threshold values

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42
Q

What are the purposes of the refractory period?

A

Ensure the action potentials are propagated in one direction only, produces discrete impulses (separates action potentials) and limits the number of action potentials passing along one axon

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43
Q

How do inhibitory synapses operate?

A

Neurotransmitters bind to chloride ion protein channels, causing them to open so Cl- move into post-synaptic neurone, K+ channels also open so K+ moves out, this causes hyperpolarisation, meaning threshold potentials harder to reach

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44
Q

What are excitatory synapses?

A

Synapses that generate a new action potential

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45
Q

What are the processes of transmission across a cholinergic synapse?

A

Action potential arrives at synaptic knob and Ca2+ channels open for Ca2+ to move into knob, causing synaptic vesicles to fuse with the membrane and acetylcholine released into synaptic cleft, diffuse and bind to receptors on Na+ channels, allowing Na+ to diffuse in, generating a new action potential, acetylcholinesterase then breaks it down and it diffuses back to the pre-synaptic neurone, ATP reforms acetyl choline and is stored for future use

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46
Q

What are the different bands in muscles?

A

I band is lighter as it consists only of the thin actin and A bands are darker as this is where the thick and thin bands overlap

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47
Q

What is the Z line?

A

Marks the end of the sarcomere

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48
Q

How are slow twitch muscle fibres adapted to aerobic respiration?

A

A large store of myoglobin, a rich supply of blood vessels to deliver oxygen and glucose and numerous mitochondria to produce ATP

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49
Q

How are fast twitch muscle fibres adapted to their role?

A

Thicker and more numerous myosin filaments, high concentration of glycogen, high concentration of enzymes for anaerobic respiration and a store of phosphocreatine

50
Q

What structures of muscles change during contraction?

A

H zone, I band and Z lines all narrow

51
Q

What happens in muscle contraction?

A

Action potential travels deep into a fibre through tubules (extensions of membrane of sarcomere), opening Ca2+ channels on the ER causing Ca2+ to diffuse out, these cause tropomyosin on actin binding sites to pull away, myosin head form crossbridge, heads change their angle to pull the actin along and release ADP, ATP attaches to head and they release actin, Ca2+ activate ATPase and ATP energy release causes head to return to original position

52
Q

What happens in muscle relaxation?

A

Ca2+ actively transported into ER and tropomyosin block actin binding sites

53
Q

What is ATP used for in muscle contraction?

A

The movement of the myosin heads and the reabsorption of calcium ions by the ER

54
Q

What is the second messenger model?

A

Adrenaline binds to transmembrane protein receptors on liver cells, changing protein shape inside the membrane, this activates adenyl cyclase which converts ATP to cAMP, the cAMP acts as a second messenger and binds to protein kinase activating it, this catalyses the conversion of glycogen to glucose which moves into the blood by facilitated diffusion

55
Q

What are the Islets of Langerhans and what do they produce?

A

They are groups of hormone producing cells, alpha cells produce glucagon and beta cells produce insulin

56
Q

What can be used for gluconeogenesis?

A

Glycerol and amino acids

57
Q

How does insulin reduce blood glucose concentration?

A

Changes tertiary structure of glucose channel proteins causing them to open, causes vesicles with transport proteins inside to fuse with the membrane and activates enzymes to convert glucose to glycogen and fat

58
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

Attaches to specific protein receptors on liver cells, activates enzymes that convert glycogen to glucose and activates enzymes for gluconeogenesis

59
Q

What are the features of the kidney?

A

Fibrous capsule, cortex, medulla, renal pelvis, ureter, renal artery and renal vein

60
Q

What is the renal pelvis?

A

A funnel shaped cavity that collects urine into the ureter

61
Q

What does the Renal capsule consist of?

A

Network of capillaries known as the glomerulus and the inner layer is made up of specialised cells called podocytes

62
Q

What are the blood vessels associated with each nephron?

A

The afferent arteriole, which form the glomerulus, which leads into the efferent arteriole before it becomes the blood capillaries surrounding the nephron before leading into the renal vein

63
Q

What is formed in ultrafiltration?

A

The glomerular filtrate which is a solution containing water, glucose, urea and mineral ions, that move out of the glomerulus through pores in the endothelial cells

64
Q

How are substances reabsorbed by the PCT?

A

Na+ actively transported out of endothelial cells into capillaries so Na+ facilitated diffusion into endothelial cells with glucose, amino acids or chloride ions

65
Q

What ‘s the differences between the descending and ascending limb?

A

The descending is narrow, thin and highly permeable to water, whereas ascending is wider, thick and impermeable to water

66
Q

How is ADH released?

A

Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus shrink, causing the posterior pituitary gland to release ADH

67
Q

What is autosomal linkage?

A

Any to genes that occur on the same chromosome that aren’t sex chromosomes

68
Q

How does ADH increase water potential?

A

Binds to protein receptors on cell-surface membranes causing activation of phosphorylase which causes vesicles to move and fuse with the membrane increasing aquaporins of collecting duct and DCT also send nerve impulses to thirst centre of the brain

69
Q

What is epistasis?

A

When the allele of one gene affects or masks the expression of another in the phenotype

70
Q

What is allelic frequency?

A

The number of times an allele occurs within a gene pool

71
Q

What are the 5 conditions for the Hardy-Weinberg equation?

A

No mutations arise, population is isolated, no selection pressures, large population and mating is random

72
Q

What causes genetic variation?

A

Mutations, meiosis (independent segregation and crossing over) and random fertilisation

73
Q

What are the different forms of selection?

A

Stabilising, directional and disruptive

74
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

Small population have few breeding individuals, meaning smaller variety of alleles and reduced genetic diversity, however fast genetic drift can increase speed of speciation

75
Q

What is sympatric speciation?

A

The formation of a species from reproductive isolation, yet the same area geographically, mutations leads to the evolution of genetic differences

76
Q

What are the three possible consequences of base substitution?

A

Formation of the stop codon, meaning polypeptides made shorter, code fora different amino acid or codes for the same amino acid as the genetic code is degenerate

77
Q

What are the different gene mutations?

A

Substitution, deletion, addition, duplication, inversion and translocation

78
Q

What is translocation mutation?

A

When a group of bases become separated from the DNA sequence on one chromosome and insert onto a different chromosome (cancer and infertility)

79
Q

What are totipotent cells?

A

Cell which can divide and differentiate into any type of cell (fertilised egg)

80
Q

What are the various sources of stem cells in mammals?

A

Embryonic, umbilical cord blood, placental and adult

81
Q

What are pluripotent cells and where are they found?

A

In the embryos and can differentiate into almost any type of cell

82
Q

What are multipotent cells and where are they found?

A

In adults and umbilical cord blood and can differentiate into a limited number of cells

83
Q

What are unipotent cells and where are they found?

A

Derive from multipotent stem cells and are made in adult tissue, they can only differentiate into a single type of cell

84
Q

What are induced pluripotent cells?

A

Extracted and lab treated unipotent cells (any adult tissue), they’re self-renewing meaning they have the same applications as embryonic stem cells, but none of the ethical issues

85
Q

How is transcription controlled?

A

Transcriptional factors move into the nucleus from the cytoplasm and bind to a specific base sequence of the DNA, mRNA is produced, when a gene is switched off, the site of the transcriptional factor is not active as it’s not bound

86
Q

How does oestrogen act through second messenger models?

A

It’s lipid soluble so diffuses through phospholipid membrane, and binds with a site on a receptor molecule of the transcriptional factor, this causes the shape of the DNA binding site on the transcriptional factor to change shape and is now complimentary to DNA

87
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

The influence that environmental factors have causing heritable changes in gene functions without changing the base sequences of DNA

88
Q

What is the epigenome?

A

A second layer surrounding the DNA-histone complex made of chemical tags, this determines the shape of the complex
The epigenome of a cell is the accumulation of the signals it has received during it’s lifetime and it therefore acts like cellular memory

89
Q

How can condensation of DNA to reduce transcription occur?

A

Decreased acetylation of the histones or increased methylation of DNA

90
Q

How does decreased acetylation affect DNA?

A

Increases the positive charges on histones and therefore increases the attraction of the phosphate groups on DNA, making the association stronger and the DNA not accessible to transcription factors

91
Q

How does increased methylation affect DNA?

A

Added to the cytosine bases to either: prevent the transcriptional factors binding to the complex or attracting proteins that condense the complex making it inaccessible

92
Q

How does small interfering (si)RNA impact translation?

A

An enzyme cuts large double-stranded molecules of RNA into smaller siRNA, one siRNA bind with an enzyme, the siRNA guides the enzyme to mRNA by base pairing, enzymes then cut the mRNA into smaller sections so it cannot be translated

93
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

Most are mutations of proto-oncogenes (stimulate cell division) oncogenes are permanently activated for two reasons: receptor protein on membrane permanently activated or may code for a growth factor

94
Q

What do tumour-suppressor genes do?

A

Slow down cell division, repair mistakes in DNA and cause apoptosis

95
Q

What happens in hypermethylation of tumour-suppressor genes?

A

Methylation occurs in a specific region of the gene, causing it to become inactive

96
Q

What is bioinformatics?

A

The collection and analysis of complex biological data such as genetic codes, using computers to read, store and organise biological data

97
Q

What is recombinant DNA?

A

DNA from two organisms that has been combined using technology

98
Q

What are the 5 stages of making proteins from DNA technology?

A

Isolation, insertion, transformation, identification and growth

99
Q

What are three methods of producing DNA fragments?

A

Conversion of mRNA to cDNA (complimentary), restriction endonuclease and synthesis is gene machine

100
Q

What are sticky ends?

A

When restriction endonuclease cut DNA to leave staggered ends rather than straight, the two ends produced must be palindromes of one another

101
Q

How does the gene machine work?

A

Computer is given the DNA nucleotide chain needed to produce, the computer designs a series of small overlapping single strands known as oligonucleotides, they’re assembled then joined together to make a gene, which is replicated in PCR, the gene can then be inserted into bacterial plasmid, using sticky ends which can be stored, cloned or transferred to another organism

102
Q

What are the two methods of gene cloning?

A

In vivo, by transferring into host cells using vector
In vitro, by using PCR

103
Q

What enzyme joins together sticky ends?

A

DNA ligase binds the phosphate sugar framework to join them as one

104
Q

Why are stick ends important?

A

Provided the same restriction endonuclease is used, the DNA of one organism can join with the DNA of another

105
Q

What is the promotor?

A

The binding site of mRNA polymerase on DNA and transcriptional factors binding sites

106
Q

What is the terminator?

A

Region of DNA that released RNA polymerase and stops RNA synthesis

107
Q

How is DNA inserted into the vector?

A

The carrier (usually plasmids) is cut with the same restriction endonuclease, DNA ligase joins them and the plasmid now had recombinant DNA

108
Q

How are plasmids inserted back into bacteria?

A

Plasmids and bacteria are mixed in a solution containing Ca2+ ions, the ions and increasing temperature increase the permeability of membranes allowing the plasmids to pass through

109
Q

What are some marker genes?

A

Second genes incorporated that are easily identifiable, for example, genes for antibiotic resistance, create fluorescent proteins or produces enzymes that actions can be identified

110
Q

What is replica plating?

A

The use of antibiotic resistant genes to cut at the site and insert so they’re no longer resistant

111
Q

What does the polymerase chain reaction require?

A

The DNA fragment, DNA polymerase, primers, nucleotides and a thermocycler

112
Q

What form of DNA polymerase is used and why?

A

Taq polymerase, it’s collected from bacteria on volcanic vents so can withstand high temperature

113
Q

What happens in PCR?

A

Vessel reaches 95C, causing H bonds to break, cooled to 55C causing primers to anneal, providing starting sequences for DNA polymerase, the temp is increased to 72C as this is optimum for polymerase

114
Q

What are the advantages of in vitro cloning?

A

Rapid, doesn’t require living cells

115
Q

What are the advantages of in vivo cloning?

A

Useful for transfer genes into another organism, no risk of contamination, very accurate, cuts out specific genes and produces transformed bacteria that can be used to produce large quantities

116
Q

What are DNA probes?

A

Short single-stranded DNA that is radioactively labelled (P-32) or fluorescent

117
Q

What happens in DNA hybridisation?

A

DNA heated into two complimentary single strands then cooled to allow annealing to DNA probes as well as reforming original strand

118
Q

What are VNTR?

A

Variable number tandem repeats are DNA bases that are non-coding

119
Q

What are the 5 main stages of genetic fingerprinting?

A

Extraction, digestion, separation, hybridisation and development

120
Q

What are the uses of DNA fingerprinting?

A

Genetic relationships and variability, forensic science, medical diagnosis and plant and animal breeding

Biology (22 decks)

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