Page 30 Flashcards

1
Q

When can someone have indemnity?

A

If defendant is only secondarily liable for plaintiff’s injury but is forced to pay a judgment, he can recover indemnification against the primarily responsible party

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2
Q

What is the primary purpose of indemnification?

A

To prevent unjust enrichment

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3
Q

What are the two major circumstances that indemnity comes up in?

A
  • when D is only vicariously liable

- when a contract requires one party to indemnify the other

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4
Q

What is a release?

A

The surrender of the plaintiff’s claim against only one or more of the tortfeasors

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5
Q

What are two ways that the court can proceed if a plaintiff signs a release with one or more of the tortfeasors?

A
  • the settled payment is deducted from the final total, so other tortfeasors pay the full amount minus that settlement
  • the settled tortfeasor’s percentage is subtracted from the damages the P got from that tortfeasor, so this risks losing part of his recovery if he settles for too small a payment
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6
Q

What is a Mary Carver agreement?

A

Sometimes private agreements are made between the plaintiff and defendant where the defendant remains in litigation even though he agreed on a settlement contingent on the trial’s outcome

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7
Q

How do courts deal with Mary Carver agreements?

A
  • some prohibit them
  • some allow them
  • others say they’re okay as long as the public knows about them and they aren’t secret
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8
Q

What is Contribution?

A

Collection between tortfeasors

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9
Q

What are the common law and modern views on contribution?

A
  • CL: not allowed
  • Modern: allowed against negligent, but not intentional tortfeasors and only works when joint and several liability is applied
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10
Q

Who does professional negligence apply to?

A
  • doctors
  • lawyers
  • accountants
  • architects
  • engineers
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11
Q

Why is there professional negligence?

A

Because these people have specialized skills and training, so courts have to defer to expert testimony to figure out the appropriate standard of care and custom in the field

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12
Q

If a professional defendant deviates from the appropriate standard of care and custom in the field, what is that considered?

A

A breach of duty

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13
Q

If a professional defendant complies with the appropriate standard of care and custom in the field, what does that do?

A

Makes him safe from liability

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14
Q

What is the rule for medical malpractice?

A

Doctors must possess and use the knowledge and skill common to ordinary members of the profession in good standing when on the job

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15
Q

If a doctor fails to act with minimal competence that would be exercised by other doctors in good standing, what is that considered?

A

Breach

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16
Q

It is important to remember that for medical malpractice we are talking about what kind of members of the profession?

A

Ordinary, not average, so you must have the customary level of intent and knowledge

17
Q

Doctors are free to use what types of ways to practice medicine?

A

Any accepted or reputable way

18
Q

If a doctor complies with the customary practice, can he be liable for malpractice?

A

No, no matter how small the burden was

19
Q

If an expert is used to testify in medical malpractice case, what is important?

A
  • what the custom of other doctors in that medical community is (it doesn’t matter how the expert would have personally behaved).
  • the expert must be familiar with the custom applicable to the defendant’s practice in the same or similar locality
20
Q

Medical specialists are held to what standard?

A

National standard

21
Q

If testifying experts disagree, what happens?

A

Jury decides which person to believe

22
Q

Chiropractors are allowed to practice what?

A

According to their school’s belief and are not held to medical standards

23
Q

What is the duty of a pharmacist to warn of side effects or excessive dosage?

A

No duty, because this is the doctor’s job

24
Q

If a pharmacist voluntarily undertakes to give warnings about side effects or the excessive dosage of a prescription, and negligently does this, what happens?

A

He is liable

25
Q

Some courts say if the pharmacist knows of contraindications or that the plaintiff has an allergy, he must do what?

A

Warn the patient or the doctor

26
Q

How can Res Ipsa be used in a medical malpractice situation?

A
  • to show the harm suffered doesn’t usually happen without negligence
  • the situation probably involves medical malpractice
  • the defendant was probably the responsible party
27
Q

What is usually required in medical malpractice situations?

A

Expert testimony

28
Q

Can a patient terminate treatment at any point?

A

Yes

29
Q

When can a doctor or hospital abandon a patient?

A

Only once treatment is complete

30
Q

What does the EMTALA stand for?

A

Emergency medical treatment and active labor act

31
Q

What is EMTALA?

A

If any person walks into an emergency department and requests an exam/treatment, the hospital must provide appropriate medical screening exams and necessary stabilizing treatment for the emergency condition, or transfer the patient to another facility

32
Q

Is labor considered an emergency condition?

A

Yes

33
Q

What is the only time that a hospital or doctor can transfer a patient to another facility?

A

Once the patient has stabilized

34
Q

What is elder abuse liability?

A

Each resident must receive, and facility must provide the necessary care/services to maintain the highest physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of its patients that is possible

35
Q

Does the Good Samaritan statute in reference to doctors apply only for roadside accident emergencies?

A

No, sometimes it can involve hospital care, like the case where the doctor showed up in an emergency and wasn’t held liable

36
Q

How can not getting informed consent become a battery?

A

If a doctor performs a substantially different procedure than what was agreed to and exceeds the scope of the plaintiff’s consent

37
Q

What is informed consent?

A

If an undisclosed complication arises, and the plaintiff complained he didn’t get enough information about the risks of the treatment/procedure to be able to make an intelligent decision about his medical care

38
Q

What are defenses to comparative fault?

A
  • Plaintiff’s incapacity
  • Defendant has greater knowledge/experience
  • Defendant is a professional rescuer
  • Litigation would harm the litigants
  • Determining this would breach constitutional values
  • Plaintiff’s conduct only caused harm to himself