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Phase 3a > Paeds (things I forget) > Flashcards

Paeds (things I forget) Flashcards

1
Q

What is a dermoid cyst?

A
  • Mass
  • Multiloculated and heterogenous
  • Located above hyoid
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2
Q

What is a cystic hygroma?

A
  • Neck swelling
  • Soft and transilluminate
  • Located in posterior triangle
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3
Q

What is a branchial cyst?

A
  • Mass in neck
  • Fluid-filled. anechoic appearance on USS
  • Located laterally and derived from second brachial cleft
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4
Q

At what age does a child start to talk in short sentences?

A

2.5-3 years

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5
Q

At what age does a child have a vocabulary of 2-6 words?

A

12-18 months

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6
Q

At what age does a child start to respond to their own name?

A

9-12 months

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7
Q

At what age does a child start to ask ‘what’ and ‘who’ questions?

A

3 years

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8
Q

At what age does a child start to combine 2 words?

A

2 years

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9
Q

At what age does a child start to ask ‘why’, ‘when’ and ‘how’ questions?

A

4 years

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10
Q

At what age does a child start to sit without support (with a straight back)?

A

7-8 months

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11
Q

At what age does a child start to run?

A

16 months-2 years

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12
Q

At what age does a child start to ride a tricycle using pedals?

A

3 years

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13
Q

Describe the typical features of chicken pox

A
  • Rash usually starts on trunk/face
  • Widespread, erythematous, raised, vesicular blistering lesions
  • Itch
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14
Q

Describe the typical features of Coxsackie’s

A
  • Viral sx
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Blistering red spots/vesicles on hands/feet/mouth
  • Itchy
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15
Q

What are the differences between Kawasaki’s disease and Scarlet fever?

A

Kawasaki - longer fever (>5 days); desquamation (skin peeling); conjunctivitis

Scarlet - sandpaper rash, tonsilitis

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16
Q

Describe the typical features of measles

A
  • Fever
  • Coryzal sx
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Koplik spots (blue/white spots in cheek)
  • Rash starts behind ears and spreads
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17
Q

Describe the typical features of roseola infatum

A

High grade fever followed by rash –> febrile convulsions/seizures

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18
Q

Describe the typical features of rubella

A
  • Low grade fever
  • Rash starts on face
  • Lymphadenopathy
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19
Q

What is an umbilical granuloma?

A
  • Overgrowth of tissue which occurs during healing process of umbilicus
  • Most common in first few weeks of life
  • Small, red growth of tissue in centre of umbilicus
  • Wet and leaks small amounts of clear/yellow fluid
  • Treated by regular application of salt - if not then cauterised with silver nitrate
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20
Q

What is osteochondritis dissecans?

A
  • Fragment of bone in knee joint becomes detached due to lack of blood supply
  • Chronic knee pain typically after exercise
  • Swelling and locking of joint
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21
Q

What is the most common cause of stridor in neonates?

A

Laryngomalacia

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22
Q

What does spastic cerebral palsy result from?

A

Damage to upper motor neurones in the periventricular white ball/pyramidal tracts

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23
Q

What does ataxic type cerebral palsy result from?

A

Damage to upper motor neurones in the cerebellum

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24
Q

What does dyskinetic cerebral palsy result from?

A

Damage to the basal ganglia and substantia nigra - athetoid movements and oromotor problems

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25
Q

What is seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A
  • Common in infants - often presents within first few weeks of life
  • Greasy/yellow rash with flaky scales
  • Most common on scalp/face/ears/neck
  • Treat with baby shampoo and baby oil
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26
Q

What is mesenteric adenitis?

A
  • Inflamed mesenteric lymph nodes
  • Often preceded by viral infection
  • Abdominal pain
  • Normal eating/drinking/bowel movements/no vomiting
  • Self limiting
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27
Q

Describe the typical features of Edward’s syndrome (18)

A
  • Small mouth/chin
  • Flexed, overlapping fingers
  • Rocker-bottom feet
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28
Q

Describe the typical features of Patau’s syndrome (13)

A
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • Scalp defects
  • Small eyes/eye defects
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29
Q

Describe the typical features of Fragile X syndrome

A
  • Intellectual disability
  • Long narrow face
  • Large ears
  • Large testicles
  • Associated with mitral valve prolapse
30
Q

Describe the typical features of Noonan syndrome

A
  • Short
  • Broad forehead
  • Webbed neck
  • Low set ears
31
Q

Describe the typical features of Prader Willi syndrome

A
  • Imprinting pattern
  • Obesity
  • Dysmorphic features
32
Q

Describe the typical features of Turner syndrome

A
  • Short
  • Webbed neck
  • Broad chest
  • Late/incomplete puberty/infertility
  • ESM
  • Associated with bicuspid aortic valve/coarctation of aorta/aortic stenosis
33
Q

Describe the typical features of Williams syndrome

A
  • Bubbly, trusting personality
  • Learning difficulty
  • Elfin facies
  • Associated with supravalvular aortic stenosis/pulmonary stenosis
34
Q

What are the main complications of measles?

A

Otitis media and pneumonia

35
Q

What should you not give when treating chickenpox?

A

NSAIDs e.g. ibuprofen - increase risk of necrotising fasciitis

36
Q

Why is aspirin not commonly given to children and what is the exception?

A

Risk of Reye’s syndrome - Kawasaki’s disease

37
Q

What murmur is heard in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Ejection systolic murmur in pulmonary area

38
Q

What is heard in TGA?

A

Loud S2 sound

39
Q

What murmur is heard in VSD?

A

Pansystolic murmur

40
Q

What murmur is heard in ASD?

A
  • Ejection systolic murmur
  • Fixed wide split S2
41
Q

What murmur is heard in PDA?

A

Continuous machinery murmur

42
Q

When is the 6-in-1 vaccine given?

A

2/3/4 months

43
Q

When is the rotavirus vaccine given?

A

2/3 months

44
Q

When is the MenB vaccine given?

A

2/4 months and 1 year

45
Q

When is the pneumococcal vaccine given?

A

3 months and 1 year

46
Q

When is the HiB/Men C vaccine given?

A

1 year

47
Q

When is the MMR vaccine given?

A

1 year and 3 years 4 months

48
Q

When is the HPV vaccine given?

A

12-13 years

49
Q

When is the MenACWY vaccine given?

A

18 years

50
Q

What is the management for whooping cough?

A

Macrolide abx - azithromycin/clarithromycin

51
Q

What is the typical presentation for roseola infantum?

A
  • 1 year old
  • 2-3 day history of malaise/reduced eating/cough
  • High grade fever that is worse in evenings
  • Maculopapular rash
52
Q

What is the typical presentation for parvovirus-19?

A
  • Biphasic
  • School aged child
  • Many are asx or non-specific viral sx (low grade fever/headache)
  • Rose-red rash on cheeks that spreads to body (lace-like)
53
Q

What is the typical presentation for rubella?

A
  • Unvaccinated
  • Rash starts on face then spreads to rest of body (pink)
  • Forchheimer spots (spots on soft palate)
54
Q

What is the typical presentation for measles?

A
  • Unvaccinated
  • Maculopapular rash that starts behind ears then spreads to rest of body (dark red/brown) and becomes confluent
  • Koplik spots (white spots on buccal mucosa)
55
Q

What is the typical presentation for Kawasaki’s disease?

A
  • Phasic
  • Fever >5 days
  • Strawberry tongue
  • Desquamation of palms/soles
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Cracked lips
  • GI symptoms
56
Q

What is the typical presentation for scarlet fever?

A
  • Fever
  • Strawberry tongue
  • Sandpaper rash
57
Q

What is the pattern of inheritance for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

X linked recessive

58
Q

Why should you not give ceftriaxone to infants <3 months?

A

Displaces bilirubin –> kernicterus (unconjugated bilirubin crosses blood brain barrier)

Give cefotaxime instead

59
Q

What diet can be used in children with epilepsy that is hard to control and is generally unresponsive to antiepileptic medications?

A

Ketogenic diet - high fat, low carbohydrate, controlled protein diet

60
Q

What would the heel prick test show in someone with CF?

A

Raised immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT)

61
Q

What are the clinical features of congenital CMV infection?

A
  • Hearing loss
  • Low birth weight
  • Petechial rash
  • Microcephaly
  • Seizures
62
Q

What are the distinguishing clinical features of necrotising enterocolitis and what will the investigation show?

A
  • Bilious vomiting
  • Blood in stool
  • AXR = dilated bowel loops, thickened bowel walls, gas in bowel wall and free gas in peritoneal cavity (if perforation)
63
Q

What are the distinguishing clinical features of intussusception, what will the investigations show and what is the first-line management?

A
  • Bilious vomiting
  • Redcurrant jelly stools
  • Sausage-shaped mass in RUQ
  • Abdominal USS = target sign
  • AXR = double bubble sign
  • Rectal air insufflation (air enema)
64
Q

What are the distinguishing clinical features of Hirschsprung’s and what will the investigation show?

A
  • Meconium ileus
  • Palpable mass in lower abdomen
  • Empty rectal vault
  • Rectal biopsy = absence of ganglionic cells
65
Q

What are the distinguishing clinical features of pyloric stenosis and what will the investigations show?

A
  • Projectile vomiting
  • Abdominal USS - thickened pylorus
  • Blood gas analysis - hypochloraemic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
66
Q

What are the distinguishing clinical features of biliary atresia, what will the investigations show and what is the first-line management?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • High conjugated bilirubin
  • Surgery - Kasai portoenterostomy
67
Q

What is line of management options for ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate –> lisdexamfetamine –> dexamfetamine

68
Q

What is the management for viral induced wheeze?

A

Same as asthma - first line is inhaled salbutamol

69
Q

What are the causes and clinical features of impetigo and what is the management?

A
  • Staph. aureus or group A strep (strep pyogenes)
  • Golden crust lesions typically starting on the face
  • Topical fusidic acid or hydrogen peroxide cream
70
Q

Damage to which nerves causes Erb’s palsy?

A

C5-C6

71
Q
A

Phase 3a (21 decks)

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