Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a > GP - Misc > Flashcards

GP - Misc Flashcards

1
Q

What is conjunctivitis and what are the causes?

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva - thin layer of tissue covering the inside of the eyelids/sclera to provide protection and lubrication

  • Bacterial
  • Viral
  • Allergic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the clinical features of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A
  • Red/bloodshot eye
  • Itchy/gritty sensation
  • Purulent discharge
  • Eyes may be ‘stuck together’ in the morning
  • Dry cough/sore throat/blocked nose (viral)

NO PAIN
NO PHOTOPHOBIA
NO REDUCED VISUAL ACUITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the clinical features of viral conjunctivitis?

A
  • Red/bloodshot eye
  • Itchy/gritty sensation
  • Serous discharge
  • Dry cough/sore throat/blocked nose (recent URTI)
  • Preauricular lymph nodes

NO PAIN
NO PHOTOPHOBIA
NO REDUCED VISUAL ACUITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the clinical features of allergic conjunctivitis?

A
  • Red/bloodshot eye
  • Itchy/gritty sensation
  • Watery discharge/swelling (allergic)

NO PAIN
NO PHOTOPHOBIA
NO REDUCED VISUAL ACUITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the management for conjunctivitis?

A
  • Usually resolves in 1-2 weeks without treatment
  • Hygiene measures
  • Bacterial = chloramphenicol/fusidic acid (pregnant) eye drops
  • Neonates <1 month = urgent ophthalmology assessment
  • Allergic = oral/topical antihistamines, topical mast-cell stabilisers e.g. sodium cromoglicate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is blepharitis?

A

Inflammation of the eyelid margins –> lead to red eye/styes/chalazions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the clinical features of blepharitis?

A
  • Bilateral sx
  • Grittiness/discomfort around eyelid margins
  • Sticky eyes in mornings
  • Red/swollen eyelid margins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the management for blepharitis?

A
  • Hot compress
  • Lid hygiene
  • Artificial tears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are styes?

A

Infections of internal/external eyelid glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the clinical features of styes?

A
  • Small, painful lump on inside of eyelid/around eye
  • Swollen/red skin
  • May be filled with yellow pus
  • Red/watery
  • Vision unaffected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the management for styes?

A
  • Hot compress
  • Analgesia
  • Topical abx e.g. chloramphenicol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a chalazion, what are the clinical features and what is the management?

A
  • Retention cyst of the Meibomian gland
  • Firm, painless lump in the eyelid
  • Majority resolve spontaneously
  • Surgical drainage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an entropion/ectropion, what are the clinical features and what is the management?

A
  • In/out-turning of the eyelids
  • Entropion = inward-turning eyelid with lashes pressed against eye/pain/corneal damage and ulceration
  • Ectropion = outward-turning eyelid exposing inner aspect/usually affects bottom lid/exposure keratopathy
  • Entropion = taping eyelid down/lubricating eye drops/surgery
  • Ectropion = lubricating eye drops/surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is trichiasis, what are the clinical features and what is the management?

A
  • Inward growth of the eyelashes
  • Pain
  • Corneal damage/ulceration
  • Remove affected eyelashes
  • Recurrent cases = electrolysis/cryotherapy/laser treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference between atopy and allergy?

A

Atopy = exaggerated IgE-mediated immune response (type I hypersensitivity)

Allergy = any exaggerated immune response to a foreign antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does vitamin D deficiency cause?

A

Rickets (children)
Osteomalacia (adults)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some causes of osteomalacia?

A
  • Vitamin D deficiency (malabsorption/diet/lack of sunlight)
  • CKD
  • Drugs e.g. anticonvulsants
  • Liver cirrhosis
  • Coeliac
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the clinical features of osteomalacia?

A
  • Bone pain
  • Bone/muscle tenderness
  • Fractures (especially femoral neck)
  • Proximal myopathy (waddling gait)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the investigations and management for osteomalacia?

A
  • Bloods = low vitamin D/calcium/phosphate and raised alkaline phosphate
  • X-ray = translucent bands
  • Vitamin D supplementation
  • Calcium supplementation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the risk factors for rickets?

A
  • Deficiency (diet)
  • Prolonged breastfeeding
  • Unsupplemented cow’s milk formula
  • Lack of sunlight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the clinical features of rickets?

A
  • Aching bones/joints
  • Bow legs
  • Knock knees
  • Kyphoscoliosis
  • Craniotabes (soft skull bone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the investigation and management for rickets?

A
  • Bloods = low vitamin D/calcium and raised alkaline phosphate
  • Oral vitamin D
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are risk factors for osteopenia/osteoporosis?

A
  • Elderly
  • Female

SHATTERED:
- Steroid use
- Hyperthyroidism/hyperparathyroidism/hypercalciuria
- Alcohol/tobacco use
- Thin (BMI <18.5)
- Testosterone low
- Early menopause
- Renal/liver failure
- Erosive/inflammatory bone disease
- Dietary low calcium/malabsorption and diabetes type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the investigations for osteopenia/osteoporosis?

A
  • FRAX (major osteoporotic/hip fracture in next 10 years)
  • DEXA scan = BMD = Z score and T score

T score > -1 = normal
T score -1 to -2.5 = osteopenia
T score < -2.5 = osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the management for osteopenia/osteoporosis?

A
  • Lifestyle changes
  • Vitamin D/calcium supplementation
  • Bisphosphonates (alendronate/risedronate/zoledronate) = take with full glass of water on empty stomach and remain upright for at least 30 mins after
  • Denosumab
  • HRT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the causes of otitis externa?

A
  • Bacterial (staph aureus/pseudomonas aeruginosa)
  • Fungal
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis
  • Contact dermatitis
  • Recent swimming = trigger
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the clinical features and investigations for otitis externa?

A
  • Ear pain/itch
  • Ear discharge
  • Otoscopy = red/swollen/eczematous canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the management for otitis externa?

A
  • Topical abx +/- steroid
  • Ciprofloxacin/flucloxacillin/clarithromycin
29
Q

What are the causes of otitis media?

A
  • Bacterial (strep pneumoniae/haemophilus influenzae/moraxella catarrhalis)
  • Viral (RSV/rhinovirus)
30
Q

What are the clinical features of otitis media?

A
  • Otalgia
  • Fever
  • Reduced hearing in affected ear
  • URTI sx
  • Discharge (perforated TM)
31
Q

What is the investigation for otitis media?

A

Otoscopy:
- Bulging TM (loss of light reflex)
- Opacification/erythema of TM
- Perforation with purulent otorrhoea

32
Q

What is the management for otitis media?

A
  • Usually self-limiting
  • Abx = 5-7 day course of amoxicillin/erythromycin/clarithromycin
33
Q

What are the complications of otitis media?

A
  • Otitis media with effusion (glue ear)
  • Hearing loss
  • Perforated eardrum
  • Mastoiditis
  • Abscess
34
Q

What are the causes of tonsilitis?

A
  • Viral
  • Bacterial (strep pyogenes/strep pneumoniae/haemophilus influenzae/moraxella catarrhalis/staph aureus)
35
Q

What area is affected in tonsilitis and what are the clinical features?

A
  • Palatine tonsils
  • Sore throat
  • Fever
  • Painful swallowing
36
Q

What are the investigations for tonsilitis?

A
  • Throat examination = red/inflamed/enlarged tonsils +/- exudate
  • Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
37
Q

What criteria is used for tonsilitis?

A

Centor criteria = estimates risk of bacterial infection (2 or more)
- Fever
- Tonsillar exudates
- Absence of cough
- Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
- Under 15

38
Q

What is the management for tonsilitis?

A
  • Analgesia/safety net advice
  • Abx = phenoxymethylpenicillin/clarithromycin
39
Q

What are the indications for a tonsillectomy?

A
  • Sore throats due to tonsilitis
  • 7 episodes per year for one year/5 per year for two years/3 per year for 3 years
  • Episodes of sore throat are disabling/prevent normal functioning
40
Q

What are the complications of tonsilitis?

A
  • Otitis media
  • Quinsy (peritonsillar abscess)
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Glomerulonephritis
41
Q

What are the causes of tinnitus?

A
  • Idiopathic (most common)
  • Meniere’s disease
  • Otosclerosis
  • Sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss
  • Acoustic neuroma
  • Hearing loss
  • Drugs (aspirin/NSAIDs/aminoglycosides/loop diuretics/quinine)
  • Impacted ear wax
42
Q

What is the management for tinnitus?

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Amplification device
  • CBT
  • Support groups
43
Q

What is the cause of mumps/parotitis?

A

RNA paramyxovirus

44
Q

What are the clinical features of mumps/parotitis?

A
  • Fever
  • Muscles aches
  • Lethargy
  • Parotid gland swelling with associated pain
45
Q

What are the investigations for mumps/parotitis?

A
  • PCR testing on saliva swab
  • Bloods/saliva tested for antibodies
46
Q

What is the management for mumps/parotitis?

A
  • Notify public health
  • Usually self-limiting
  • MMR vaccine
47
Q

What are the complications of mumps/parotitis?

A
  • Pancreatitis
  • Orchitis
  • Meningitis/encephalitis
  • Sensorineural hearing loss
48
Q

What is the triad of clinical features of nephrotic syndrome vs nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephrotic = proteinuria, hypoalbuminaeia, oedema

Nephritic = proteinuria, haematuria, oliguria, HTN

49
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome and what is the management?

A
  • Minimal change disease
  • High dose steroids
  • Alternative immunosuppressant e.g. ciclosporin
50
Q

What is the cause of chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis - gram -ve bacteria

51
Q

What is the cause of gonorrhoea?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea - gram -ve diplococcus

52
Q

What are the investigations for STIs?

A
  • First catch urine for NAAT
  • Urethral swab for culture
53
Q

What follow up is required for patients with STIs?

A

Test of cure

54
Q

What is the cause of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum - spirochete

55
Q

What investigations can be done for syphilis?

A

VDRL - present in active infection
TPHA - present after treatment to confer immunity

56
Q

What is the management for Wilson’s disease?

A

Copper chelating agent e.g. penicillamine

57
Q

What are sanctuary sites?

A

Sites protected from chemotherapeutic agents

  • CNS
  • Testes
58
Q

What are the stages of CKD?

A
  • Stage 1 = >90
  • Stage 2 = 60-89
  • Stage 3a = 45-59
  • Stage 3b = 30-44
  • Stage 4 = 15-29
  • Stage 5 = <15
59
Q

What are the stages of AKI?

A
  • Stage 1 = creatinine is 1.5-1.9 times higher than baseline/urine output <0.5ml/kg for >6 consecutive hours
  • Stage 2 = creatinine is 2-2.9 times higher than baseline/urine output <0.5ml/kg for >12 consecutive hours
  • Stage 3 = creatinine is >3 times higher than baseline/urine output <0.5ml/kg for >24 hours/anuria for >12 hours
60
Q

What medications can cause AKI?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • ACEis
  • ARBs
  • CCBs
  • Alpha blockers
  • Beta blockers
  • Opioids
  • Diuretics
  • Aciclovir
  • Trimethoprim
  • Lithium
61
Q

What is the typical presentation of ischaemic hepatitis?

A

Liver failure following MI

62
Q

What medication is given for pain in palliative care?

A
  • Diamorphine/morphine
  • Oxycodone (if renal impairment)
63
Q

What medication is given for distress/agitiation/breathlessness in palliative care?

A

Midazolam/haloperidol

64
Q

What medication is given for respiratory tract secretions/bowel spasm in palliative care?

A

Buscopan (hyoscine butylbromide)

65
Q

What medication is given for N+V in palliative care?

A

Haloperidol/metoclopramide

66
Q

What are some causes of falls?

A
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • POTS
  • Anaemia
  • Arrhythmias
  • Epilepsy
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Ataxia/cerebellar disease
  • Vision problems
  • Drug induced e.g. antihypertensives
67
Q

What medication is given in orthostatic hypotension?

A

Fludrocortisone/midodrine

68
Q

How can falls risk be reduced in orthostatic hypotension?

A
  • Stay hydrated
  • Compression stockings
  • Stand up slowly
  • Increased salt intake
  • Exercise

Phase 3a (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions