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Phase 3a > Drugs > Flashcards

Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

A
  • Penicillin
  • Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
  • Tonsilitis/sinusitis/scarlet fever
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2
Q

Benzylpenicillin

A
  • Penicillin
  • Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
  • Meningitis (IM)/syphilis (IM)/scarlet fever
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3
Q

Amoxicillin

A
  • Penicillin
  • Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
  • Pneumonia/otitis media/UTI/lyme disease/H. pylori
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4
Q

Flucloxacillin

A
  • Penicillin
  • Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
  • Impetigo/cellulitis/mastitis/CF/balanitis/septic arthritis/otitis externa
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5
Q

Co-amoxiclav

A
  • Penicillin
  • Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
  • HAP/cellulitis/bites
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6
Q

Azithromycin

A
  • Macrolide
  • Inhibits bacterial growth
  • Often if allergic to penicillins/pregnancy
  • Chlamydia/mycoplasma pneumonia/whooping cough
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7
Q

Clarithromycin

A
  • Macrolide
  • Inhibits bacterial growth
  • Often if allergic to penicillins/pregnancy
  • Mycoplasma pneumonia/whooping cough/tonsilitis/balanitis/pneumonia/cellulitis/H. pylori
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8
Q

Erythromycin

A
  • Macrolide
  • Inhibits bacterial growth
  • Often if allergic to penicillins/pregnancy
  • Chlamydia/whooping cough/cellulitis
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9
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A
  • Fluoroquinolone
  • Inhibit enzymes for DNA replication
  • Meningitis (close contacts)
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10
Q

Rifampicin

A
  • Broad-spectrum abx
  • Meningitis (close contacts)/TB
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11
Q

Co-trimoxazole

A
  • Sulfonamide
  • Inhibit folic acid synthesis
  • HIV (PCP)
  • Teratogenic
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12
Q

Fusidic acid

A
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Inhibits protein synthesis
  • Impetigo/staph
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13
Q

Doxycycline

A
  • Tetracycline
  • Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to ribosomal 30S sub-unit
  • Often if allergic to penicillins/pregnancy
  • Pneumonia/cellulitis/bites/chlamydia/lyme disease/PID/syphilis
  • Teratogenic
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14
Q

Cefotaxime

A
  • Cephalosporin
  • Bacterial cell lysis/death
  • NEC/meningitis (<3 months)
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15
Q

Ceftriaxone

A
  • Cephalosporin
  • Bacterial cell lysis/death
  • Meningitis/gonorrhoea (IM)/PID
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16
Q

Trimethoprim

A
  • Diaminopyrimidine
  • Inhibit folic acid synthesis
  • UTI
  • Teratogenic
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17
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A
  • Nitrofuran
  • Inhibits DNA/RNA/protein synthesis
  • UTI/UTI in pregnancy
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18
Q

Metronidazole

A
  • Nitroimidazole
  • Inhibits bacterial growth
  • Cellulitis/bites/PID/BV/trichomona vaginalis/H. pylori/appendicitis
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19
Q

Fluconazole

A
  • Antifungal (triazole) - oral
  • Vaginal candidiasis/oesophageal candidiasis/balanitis/tinea corporis
  • P450 inhibition/liver toxicity
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20
Q

Clotrimazole

A
  • Antifungal (triazole) - pessary/cream
  • Vaginal candidiasis/balanitis/tinea corporis
  • P450 inhibition/liver toxicity
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21
Q

Itraconazole

A
  • Antifungal (triazole) - oral
  • Onychomycosis/pityriasis versicolor/oesophageal candidiasis
  • P450 inhibition/liver toxicity
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22
Q

Ketoconazole

A
  • Antifungal (triazole) - shampoo/topical
  • Seborrhoeic dermatitis/tinea capitis/pityriasis versicolor
  • P450 inhibition/liver toxicity
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23
Q

Miconazole

A
  • Antifungal (triazole) - cream
  • Nipple candidiasis
  • P450 inhibition/liver toxicity
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24
Q

Amphotericin B

A
  • Antifungal
  • Systemic fungal infections
  • Nephrotoxicity/flu-like symptoms/hypokalaemia/hypomagnaseamia
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25
Q

Terbinafine

A
  • Antifungal
  • Onychomycosis/tinea capitis (trichophyton tonsurans)/tinea pedis
  • LFT monitoring
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26
Q

Griseofulvin

A
  • Antifungal
  • Tinea capitis (microsporum)
  • Teratogenic/induces P450 system
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27
Q

Flucytosine

A
  • Antifungal
  • Systemic fungal infections
  • Vomiting
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28
Q

Caspofungin

A
  • Antifungal
  • Systemic fungal infections
  • Flushing
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29
Q

Nystatin

A
  • Antifungal - topical
  • Oral candidiasis/nipple candidiasis
  • Toxic so can only be used topically
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30
Q

Aciclovir

A
  • Antiviral - oral/topical/IV
  • Chickenpox (PEP)/meningitis/HSV/shingles/eczema herpeticum/encephalitis/Ramsay Hunt syndrome
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31
Q

Valaciclovir

A
  • Antiviral
  • Chickenpox (PEP)/shingles
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32
Q

Famciclovir

A
  • Antiviral
  • HSV/shingles
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33
Q

Sodium Valproate

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Increases GABA activity
  • Males = generalised tonic-clonic seizures/myoclonic seizures/tonic or atonic seizures/absence seizures (2nd line)
  • Teratogenic/P450 inhibitor
  • FBC/LFT monitoring
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34
Q

Lamotrigine

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Sodium channel blocker
  • Females = generalised tonic-clonic seizures/tonic or atonic seizures/absence seizures (2nd line)
  • Both = focal seizures
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome
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35
Q

Levetiracetam

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Females = generalised tonic-clonic seizures/myoclonic seizures/absence seizures (2nd line)
  • Both = focal seizures
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36
Q

Carbamazepine

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Focal seizures (2nd line)
  • Exacerbates absence seizures
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37
Q

Oxcarbazepine

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Focal seizures (2nd line)
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38
Q

Zonisamide

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Focal seizures (2nd line)
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39
Q

Ethosuximide

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Absence seizures
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40
Q

Phenytoin

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Epilepsy/status epilepticus
  • Teratogenic/P450 inducer
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41
Q

Sertraline

A
  • SSRI
  • Inhibits reuptake of serotonin from presynaptic serotonin pumps
  • Depression (post MI)/GAD/panic disorder
  • GI bleeding/serotonin syndrome/hyponatraemia
  • U&E monitoring
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42
Q

Fluoxetine

A
  • SSRI
  • Inhibits reuptake of serotonin from presynaptic serotonin pumps
  • Depression (children/adolescents)
  • GI bleeding/serotonin syndrome/interactions/hyponatraemia
  • U&E monitoring
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43
Q

Citalopram

A
  • SSRI
  • Inhibits reuptake of serotonin from presynaptic serotonin pumps
  • Depression
  • GI bleeding/QT interval prolongation/serotonin syndrome/hyponatraemia
  • ECG/U&E monitoring
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44
Q

Escitalopram

A
  • SSRI
  • Inhibits reuptake of serotonin from presynaptic serotonin pumps
  • Depression
  • GI bleeding/QT interval prolongation/serotonin syndrome/hyponatraemia
  • ECG/U&E monitoring
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45
Q

Paroxetine

A
  • SSRI
  • Inhibits reuptake of serotonin from presynaptic serotonin pumps
  • Depression
  • GI bleeding/serotonin syndrome/interactions/hyponatraemia
  • U&E monitoring
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46
Q

Venlafaxine

A
  • SNRI
  • Inhibits reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline
  • Depression/GAD/social anxiety disorder/panic disorder/menopausal sx
  • Hyponatraemia/HTN
  • BP monitoring
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47
Q

Duloxetine

A
  • SNRI
  • Inhibits reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline
  • Depression/GAD/social anxiety disorder/panic disorder/menopausal sx/fibromyalgia/diabetic neuropathy/neuropathic pain/stress incontinence
  • HTN
  • BP monitoring
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48
Q

Mirtazapine

A
  • NaSSA
  • Blocks alpha2-adrenergic receptors to increase neurotransmitter release
  • Depression (older people - fewer side effects/interactions)
  • Sedation/increased appetite
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49
Q

Amitriptyline

A
  • TCA
  • Inhibit serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake
  • Fibromyalgia/IBS/diabetic neuropathy/migraine (prophylaxis)/neuropathic pain
  • Antimuscarinic (urinary retention/dry mouth/blurred vision/constipation)/antihistaminergic (drowsiness)/antiadrenergic (postural hypotension)/QT lengthening/particularly dangerous in overdose
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50
Q

Clomipramine

A
  • TCA
  • Inhibit serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake
  • OCD/GAD (2nd line)/panic disorder (2nd line)
  • Antimuscarinic (urinary retention/dry mouth/blurred vision/constipation)/antihistaminergic (drowsiness)/antiadrenergic (postural hypotension)/QT lengthening
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51
Q

Imipramine

A
  • TCA
  • Inhibit serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake
  • GAD (2nd line)/panic disorder (2nd line)
  • Antimuscarinic (urinary retention/dry mouth/blurred vision/constipation)/antihistaminergic (drowsiness - less sedative)/antiadrenergic (postural hypotension)/QT lengthening
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52
Q

Isocarboxazid

A
  • MAOI
  • Inhibit monoamine oxidase which metabolises serotonin/noradrenaline
  • Atypical depression
  • Hypertensive crisis (tyramine cheese reaction)/anticholinergic (sedation)//serotonin syndrome
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53
Q

Phenelzine

A
  • MAOI
  • Inhibit monoamine oxidase which metabolises serotonin/noradrenaline
  • Atypical depression
  • Hypertensive crisis (tyramine cheese reaction)/anticholinergic (sedation)//serotonin syndrome
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54
Q

Haloperidol

A
  • Typical antipsychotic
  • Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist
  • Acute confusional state/agitation and confusion/hiccups (palliative care)/N+V (palliative care)/bipolar disorder
  • Hyperprolactinaemia/extrapyramidal (Parkinsonism/acute dystonia/akathisia/tardive dyskinesia)/stroke and VTE risk (elderly)/long QT syndrome/raised prolactin/NMS
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55
Q

Chlorpromazine

A
  • Typical antipsychotic
  • Dopamine D2 receptor antagonist
  • Hiccups (palliative care)/hyperemesis gravidarum/serotonin syndrome (severe)/agitation and confusion (2nd line)
  • Cholestasis/hyperprolactinaemia/extrapyramidal (Parkinsonism/acute dystonia/akathisia/tardive dyskinesia)/stroke and VTE risk (elderly)/NMS
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56
Q

Olanzapine

A
  • Atypical antipsychotic
  • Bipolar disorder/acute confusional state/N+V (palliative care)/schizophrenia/Huntington’s
  • Weight gain/stroke and VTE risk (elderly)/dyslipidaemia/obesity/NMS
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57
Q

Risperidone

A
  • Atypical antipsychotic
  • PTSD (severe)/schizophrenia/schizoaffective disorder
  • Weight gain/stroke and VTE risk (elderly)/NMS/hyperprolactinaemia
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58
Q

Clozapine

A
  • Atypical antipsychotic
  • Treatment-resistant schizophrenia/acute confusional state (Parkinson’s)
  • Weight gain/stroke and VTE risk (elderly)/NMS/agranulocytosis/neutropenia/cardiomyopathy/increased risk of seizures
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59
Q

Quetiapine

A
  • Atypical antipsychotic
  • Schizophrenia/schizoaffective disorder/acute confusional state (Parkinson’s)
  • Weight gain/stroke and VTE risk (elderly)/NMS
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60
Q

Aripiprazole

A
  • Atypical antipsychotic
  • Schizophrenia/schizoaffective disorder
  • Weight gain/stroke and VTE risk (elderly)/NMS/generally good side effect profile
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61
Q

Lithium

A
  • Mood stabiliser
  • Bipolar disorder/refractory depression/mania/hypomania/aggression and impulsivity
  • Lithium toxicity/hyperparathyroidism/hypercalcaemia/teratogenic/hypothyroidism
  • Lithium level/TFT/U&E monitoring
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62
Q

Salbutamol

A
  • SABA
  • Asthma (reliever - short acting)/viral wheeze/COPD exacerbation/hyperkalaemia
  • Anxiety/tachycardia
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63
Q

Formoterol

A
  • LABA
  • Asthma (reliever - long acting)
  • Tachycardia
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64
Q

Budesonide

A
  • ICS
  • Asthma (preventer)/asthma (<5)/viral wheeze
  • Growth retardation
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65
Q

Beclomethasone

A
  • ICS
  • Asthma (preventer)/asthma (<5)/viral wheeze
  • Growth retardation
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66
Q

Montelukast

A
  • LTRA
  • Asthma/viral wheeze/chronic urticaria/aspirin-induced asthma
  • Nightmares
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67
Q

Salmeterol

A
  • LABA
  • Asthma (reliever - longer acting)
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68
Q

Ipratropium

A
  • SAMA
  • COPD/Asthma
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69
Q

Tiotropium

A
  • SAMA
  • COPD/Asthma (longer acting)
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70
Q

Theophylline

A
  • Methylxanthine
  • Asthma/COPD
  • Theophylline toxicity
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71
Q

Verapamil

A
  • CCB
  • Angina/HTN/arrhythmia (SVT if asthmatic)
  • Heart block (if given with BB)/constipation/hypotension/bradycardia/flushing
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72
Q

Diltiazem

A
  • CCB
  • Angina/HTN/AF
  • Hypotension/bradycardia/ankle swelling
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73
Q

Nifedipine

A
  • CCB (dihydropyridine)
  • HTN/angina/Raynaud’s
  • Ankle swelling/flushing/headache/reflex tachycardia (peripheral vasodilation)
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74
Q

Amlodipine

A
  • CCB (dihydropyridine)
  • HTN/angina/Raynaud’s
  • Ankle swelling/flushing/headache
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75
Q

Felodipine

A
  • CCB (dihydropyridine)
  • HTN/angina/Raynaud’s
  • Ankle swelling/flushing/headache
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76
Q

Candesartan

A
  • ARB
  • HTN/renal disease
  • Hyperkalaemia
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77
Q

Losartan

A
  • ARB
  • HTN/renal disease
  • Hyperkalaemia
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78
Q

Irbesartan

A
  • ARB
  • HTN/renal disease
  • Hyperkalaemia
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79
Q

Ramipril

A
  • ACEi
  • HTN/HF/diabetic nephropathy/IHD (secondary prevention)
  • Cough/hyperkalaemia/less effective in Afro-Caribbean patients/increased creatinine
  • U&E monitoring
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80
Q

Lisinopril

A
  • ACEi
  • HTN/HF/diabetic nephropathy/IHD (secondary prevention)
  • Cough/hyperkalaemia/less effective in Afro-Caribbean patients/increased creatinine
  • U&E monitoring
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81
Q

Enalapril

A
  • ACEi
  • HTN/HF/diabetic nephropathy/IHD (secondary prevention)
  • Cough/hyperkalaemia/less effective in Afro-Caribbean patients/increased creatinine
  • U&E monitoring
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82
Q

Propranolol

A
  • BB
  • Angina/post MI/arrhythmia (AF)/HTN/thyrotoxicosis/migraine (prophylaxis)/anxiety/essential tremor
  • Bronchospasm/cold peripheries/ED/fatigue
83
Q

Atenolol

A
  • BB
  • Angina/post MI/arrhythmia (AF)/HTN/thyrotoxicosis/migraine (prophylaxis)/anxiety
  • Bronchospasm/cold peripheries/ED/fatigue
84
Q

Bisoprolol

A
  • BB
  • Angina/post MI/HF/arrhythmia (AF)/HTN/thyrotoxicosis/migraine (prophylaxis)/anxiety
  • Bronchospasm/cold peripheries/ED/fatigue
85
Q

Furosemide

A
  • Loop diuretic
  • Reduces NaCl absorption in ascending loop of Henley
  • HF/resistant HTN
  • Hyponatraemia/hypokalaemia/hypomagnesaemia/hypocalcaemia/hypochloraemic alkalosis
86
Q

Bumetanide

A
  • Loop diuretic
  • Reduces NaCl absorption in ascending loop of Henle
  • HF/resistant HTN
  • Hyponatraemia/hypokalaemia/hypomagnesaemia/hypocalcaemia/hypochloraemic alkalosis
87
Q

Bendroflumethiazide

A
  • Thiazide diuretic
  • Inhibit sodium reabsorption at distal convoluted tubule
  • HTN/HF (mild)
  • Hyponatraemia/hypokalaemia/hypercalcaemia/hypochloraemic alkalosis/postural HTN/dehydration
88
Q

Indapamide

A
  • Thiazide diuretic
  • Inhibit sodium reabsorption at distal convoluted tubule
  • HTN/HF (mild)
  • Hyponatraemia/hypokalaemia/hypercalcaemia/hypochloraemic alkalosis/postural HTN/dehydration
89
Q

Spironolactone

A
  • Aldosterone antagonist
  • Ascites/HF/nephrotic syndrome/Conn’s syndrome
  • Hyperkalaemia/gynaecomastia
90
Q

Atorvastatin

A
  • Statin
  • Hypercholesterolaemia/CVD/10 year CVD risk >10%
  • Myopathy/liver impairment
  • LFT monitoring
91
Q

Sumatriptan

A
  • Triptan
  • Migraine (acute treatment)
  • Triptan sensations (tingling/heat/tightness/heaviness/pressure)
92
Q

Omeprazole

A
  • PPI
  • Block H+/K+ ATPase of gastric parietal cell
  • Hyponatraemia/hypomagnesaemia/osteoporosis/increased risk of C. diff infections
93
Q

Lansoprazole

A
  • PPI
  • Block H+/K+ ATPase of gastric parietal cell
  • Hyponatraemia/hypomagnesaemia/osteoporosis/increased risk of C. diff infections
94
Q

Metformin

A
  • Biguanide
  • Reduces hepatic production of glucose/decreases intestinal absorption glucose/enhances insulin sensitivity
  • T2DM
95
Q

Dapagliflozin

A
  • SGLT-2 inhibitor
  • Reduces glucose reabsorption/increases urinary glucose excretion
  • T2DM
  • Urinary and genital infection/normoglycaemia ketoacidosis/weight loss
96
Q

Gliclazide

A
  • Sulfonylurea
  • Stimulates beta cells to secrete insulin
  • T2DM
  • Hypoglycaemia/weight gain/hyponatraemia
97
Q

Desmopressin

A
  • Synthetic vasopressin/ADH
  • Nocturnal enuresis
98
Q

Oxybutynin

A
  • Anticholinergic/antimuscarinic
  • Urge incontinence
99
Q

Mirabegron

A
  • Beta-3 adrenergic agonist
  • Urge incontinence (frail elderly patients)
100
Q

Methylphenidate

A
  • CNS stimulant
  • Inhibits dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake
  • ADHD
  • Abdominal pain/nausea/dyspepsia/growth retardation
  • Monitor height/weight (6 months)
101
Q

Donepezil

A
  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
  • Prevent acetylcholine being broken down
  • Alzheimer’s/Lewy body dementia
  • Bradycardia (baseline ECG/PR)
102
Q

Galantamine

A
  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
  • Prevent acetylcholine being broken down
  • Alzheimer’s
  • Bradycardia (baseline ECG/PR)
103
Q

Rivastigmine

A
  • Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
  • Prevent acetylcholine being broken down
  • Alzheimer’s/Lewy body dementia
  • Bradycardia (baseline ECG/PR)
104
Q

Memantine

A
  • NMDA receptor antagonist
  • Blocks effects of glutamate
  • Alzheimer’s (2nd line)/Lewy body dementia
105
Q

Acamprosate

A
  • Weak antagonist of NMDA receptors
  • Alcoholism = reduces cravings
106
Q

Disulfiram

A
  • Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
  • Alcoholism = causes unpleasant symptoms when drinking
107
Q

Naltrexone

A
  • Opioid receptor antagonist
  • Substance abuse = reduces pleasurable effects/relapse prevention
108
Q

Naloxone

A
  • Opiate antagonist
  • Opioid overdose
109
Q

Lofexidine

A
  • Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist
  • Opioid withdrawal = alleviate symptoms
110
Q

Methadone

A
  • Synthetic opioid
  • Full agonist of mu-opioid receptor
  • Opioid dependence = relieves withdrawal symptoms/cravings
111
Q

Buprenorphine

A
  • Synthetic opioid
  • Partial agonist of mu-opioid receptor/kappa-opioid antagonist
  • Opioid dependence = relives withdrawal symptoms/cravings
112
Q

Pabrinex

A
  • B vitamins including thiamine (B1)
  • Alcohol withdrawal/Wernicke’s encephalopathy (prophylaxis/treatment)
113
Q

Chlordiazepoxide

A
  • Long-acting benzodiazepine
  • Alcohol detoxification
114
Q

Acetylcysteine

A
  • Mucolytic agent
  • Paracetamol overdose (staggered/8-24 hours after ingestion)
  • Anaphylactoid reaction (non-IgE mediated mast cell release)
115
Q

Activated charcoal

A
  • Paracetamol overdose (present within 1 hour)
116
Q

Diazepam

A
  • Benzodiazepine (longer acting)
  • Enhance GABA by increasing frequency of Cl- channels
  • Sedation/hypnotic/anxiolytic/anticonvulsant/muscle relaxant
  • Anxiety/mania/psychosis/alcohol withdrawal/insomnia/acute agitation and aggression/epilepsy/status epilepticus
  • Tolerance and addiction/respiratory and CNS depression/benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome
117
Q

Lorazepam

A
  • Benzodiazepine (shorter acting)
  • Enhance GABA by increasing frequency of Cl- channels
  • Sedation/hypnotic/anxiolytic/anticonvulsant/muscle relaxant
  • Anxiety/mania/psychosis/alcohol withdrawal/insomnia/acute agitation and aggression/epilepsy
  • Tolerance and addiction/respiratory and CNS depression/benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome
118
Q

Clonazepam

A
  • Benzodiazepine
  • Enhance GABA by increasing frequency of Cl- channels
  • Sedation/hypnotic/anxiolytic/anticonvulsant/muscle relaxant
  • Anxiety/mania/psychosis/alcohol withdrawal/insomnia/acute agitation and aggression/epilepsy
  • Tolerance and addiction/respiratory and CNS depression/benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome
119
Q

Midazolam

A
  • Benzodiazepine
  • Enhance GABA by increasing frequency of Cl- channels
  • Sedation/hypnotic/anxiolytic/anticonvulsant/muscle relaxant
  • Anxiety/mania/psychosis/alcohol withdrawal/insomnia/acute agitation and aggression/epilepsy/status epilepticus
  • Tolerance and addiction/respiratory and CNS depression/benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome
120
Q

Chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride

A
  • Benzodiazepine
  • Enhance GABA by increasing frequency of Cl- channels
  • Sedation/hypnotic/anxiolytic/anticonvulsant/muscle relaxant
  • Anxiety/mania/psychosis/alcohol withdrawal/insomnia/acute agitation and aggression/epilepsy
  • Tolerance and addiction/respiratory and CNS depression/benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome
121
Q

Phenobarbital

A
  • Barbiturate
  • Enhance GABA by increasing duration of Cl- channel opening
  • Insomnia/epilepsy/status epilepticus/essential tremor
122
Q

Primidone

A
  • Barbiturate
  • Enhance GABA by increasing duration of Cl- channel opening
  • Epilepsy/essential tremor
123
Q

Zopiclone

A
  • Z drug (cyclopyrrolones)
  • Stimulate GABA receptor
  • Insomnia
  • Dependence
124
Q

Zolpidem

A
  • Z drug (imidazopyridines)
  • Stimulate GABA receptor
  • Insomnia
  • Dependence
125
Q

Melatonin

A
  • Insomnia (severe)
126
Q

Promethazine

A
  • Antihistamine
  • H1 inhibitor
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum/vestibular neuronitis/insomnia (severe)
  • Sedating
127
Q

Chlorphenamine

A
  • Antihistamine
  • H1 inhibitor
  • Allergic rhinitis/urticaria
  • Sedating
128
Q

Cetirizine

A
  • Antihistamine
  • H1 inhibitor
  • Allergic rhinitis/urticaria
129
Q

Loratadine

A
  • Antihistamine
  • H1 inhibitor
  • Allergic rhinitis/urticaria
130
Q

Cyclizine

A
  • Antihistamine
  • H1 inhibitor
  • N+V (palliative care)/hyperemesis gravidarum/motion sickness/vestibular neuronitis
131
Q

Sulfasalazine

A
  • DMARD
  • Suppresses lymphocyte/pro-inflammatory cytokines proliferation
  • RA/IBD/JIA/psoriatic arthritis
  • Oligospermia/Stevens-Johnson syndrome
132
Q

Methotrexate

A
  • DMARD
  • Inhibits purines/pyrimidine synthesis
  • Ectopic pregnancy/RA/JIA/reactive arthritis/psoriatic arthritis/psoriasis/ALL/IBD/sarcoidosis (2nd line)/SLE/vasculitis/uveitis
  • Myelosuppression/liver cirrhosis/teratogenic/folic acid deficiency
  • FBC/LFT/U&E monitoring
133
Q

Azathioprine

A
  • Immunosuppressant
  • IBD/Lambert-Eaton syndrome/myasthenic gravis/autoimmune hepatitis/
  • BM depression/pancreatitis
  • FBC/LFT monitoring
134
Q

Prednisolone

A
  • Corticosteroid
  • Glucocorticoid effects with low mineralocorticoid effects
  • Croup/temporal arteritis/alcoholic hepatitis/Bell’s palsy/COPD exacerbation/polymyalgia rheumatica/urticaria (severe)/Lambert-Eaton syndrome/myasthenia gravis/MS (acute relapse)/asthma/RA/ITP
  • Cushing’s/immunosuppression/weight gain
135
Q

Dexamethasone

A
  • Corticosteroid
  • Glucocorticoid effects with minimal mineralocorticoid effects
  • Croup/meningitis/altitude related disorders/hiccups (palliative care)/thyroid storm/raised ICP/neoplastic spinal cord compression/N+V (chemotherapy)
  • Cushing’s/immunosuppression/weight gain
136
Q

Betamethasone

A
  • Corticosteroid
  • Glucocorticoid effects with minimal mineralocorticoid effects
  • Eczema
  • Cushing’s/immunosuppression/weight gain
137
Q

Hydrocortisone

A
  • Corticosteroid
  • Mineralocorticoid effects with glucocorticoid effects
  • Addison’s/balanitis/bed bug (itch)/nappy rash (severe)/molluscum contagiosum/eczema/congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Cushing’s/immunosuppression/weight gain
138
Q

Fludrocortisone

A
  • Corticosteroid
  • Mineralocorticoid effects with minimal glucocorticoid effects
  • Addison’s/orthostatic hypotension/congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Cushing’s/immunosuppression/weight gain
139
Q

Dabigatran

A
  • DOAC
  • Direct thrombin inhibitor
  • Stroke prevention in AF/VTE prophylaxis/DVT/PE
140
Q

Rivaroxaban

A
  • DOAC
  • Direct factor Xa inhibitor
  • Stroke prevention in AF/VTE prophylaxis/DVT/PE
141
Q

Apixaban

A
  • DOAC
  • Direct factor Xa inhibitor
  • Stroke prevention in AF/VTE prophylaxis/DVT/PE
142
Q

Edoxaban

A
  • DOAC
  • Direct factor Xa inhibitor
  • Stroke prevention in AF/VTE prophylaxis/DVT/PE
143
Q

Fondaparinux

A
  • Anticoagulant - sc
  • Inhibits factor Xa coagulation by activating antithrombin III
  • VTE prophylaxis/ACS
144
Q

Warfarin

A
  • Anticoagulant
  • Vitamin K antagonist
  • Stroke prevention in AF/VTE prophylaxis (2nd line)
  • Teratogenic/haemorrhage
  • INR monitoring (2.5)
145
Q

Unfractionated heparin

A
  • Anticoagulant (short acting)
  • Inhibits factors Xa, IXa, XIa and XIIa
  • VTE treatment and prophylaxis/ACS (where bleeding risk is high/renal failure)
  • Bleeding/thrombocytopenia/hyperkalaemia/osteoporosis
  • APTT monitoring
146
Q

Low molecular weight heparin

A
  • Anticoagulant (long acting)
  • Inhibits factor Xa coagulation by activating antithrombin III
  • VTE treatment and prophylaxis/ACS/AF
  • Bleeding/hyperkalaemia
147
Q

Aspirin

A
  • Antiplatelet
  • Inhibits prostaglandin/prostacycline/thromboxane synthesis by blocking cyclooxygenase 1 and 2
  • IHD/kawasaki disease/ACS/PCI/pre-eclampsia (prophylaxis)/ischaemic stroke/TIA/tension headache/analgesia/pericarditis
  • Reye’s syndrome (children)
148
Q

Clopidogrel

A
  • Antiplatelet (thienopyridine)
  • P2Y12 ADP receptor antagonist = inhibits activation of platelets
  • TIA/ischaemic stroke/peripheral arterial disease/ACS
149
Q

Ticagrelor

A
  • Antiplatelet (thienopyridine)
  • P2Y12 ADP receptor antagonist = inhibits activation of platelets
  • PCI/ACS/STEMI/TIA
150
Q

Amiodarone

A
  • Antiarrhythmic
  • Blocks potassium channels
  • Tachycardia (atrial/nodal/ventricular)/hypertrophic cardiomyopathy/atrial flutter
  • Thyroid dysfunction/prolonged QT syndrome/bradycardia/hepatitis/pulmonary fibrosis
  • TFT/LFT/U&E/CXR monitoring
151
Q

Adenosine

A
  • Antiarrhythmic
  • Causes transient heart block in AV node/reduces cAMP
  • Supraventricular tachycardia
  • Chest painn/bronchospasm/transient flushing
152
Q

Isoprenaline

A
  • Non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor agonist
  • Bradycardia (2nd line)/heart block/prolonged QT syndrome
153
Q

Magnesium Sulphate

A
  • Anticonvulsant/electrolyte
  • Pre-eclampsia (severe)/eclampsia/torsades de pointes/acute asthma/hypomagnesaemia
154
Q

Atropine

A
  • Binds to and inhibits muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
  • Bradycardia/3rd degree heart block/squint (eye drops)/anterior uveitis/organophosphate insecticide poisoning/BB overdose
155
Q

Folic acid

A
  • Vitamin B9
  • Prevention of NTD during pregnancy/folate deficiency/macrocytic megaloblastic anaemia
156
Q

Ibuprofen

A
  • NSAIDs
  • PDA/analgesia/migraine/RA/renal colic/dysmenorrhoea/gout/pseudogout/pericarditis
  • Bronchospasm (asthmatics)/dyspepsia/peptic ulceration/sore throat
157
Q

Mefenamic acid

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Dysmenorrhoea/uterine fibroids/menorrhagia
  • Bronchospasm (asthmatics)/dyspepsia/peptic ulceration/sore throat
158
Q

Diclofenac

A
  • NSAID
  • Renal colic/actinic keratoses
  • Bronchospasm (asthmatics)/dyspepsia/peptic ulceration/sore throat/increased risk of cardiovascular events
159
Q

Naproxen

A
  • NSAIDs
  • RA/dysmenorrhoea/migraine/gout/pseudogout
  • Bronchospasm (asthmatics)/dyspepsia/peptic ulceration/sore throat
160
Q

Indomethacin

A
  • NSAIDs
  • PDA/paroxysmal hemicrania
  • Bronchospasm (asthmatics)/dyspepsia/peptic ulceration/sore throat/corneal opacities
161
Q

Colchicine

A
  • Gout/pseudogout (2nd line)/pericarditis
162
Q

Allopurinol

A
  • Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
  • Gout (prophylaxis)/tumour lysis syndrome
  • Dermatological effects (Stevens-Johnson syndrome/SCAR/DRESS)
163
Q

Estradiol

A
  • Natural oestrogen
  • HRT
  • Increased risk of endometrial cancer/stroke/IHD
164
Q

Estrone

A
  • Natural oestrogen
  • HRT
  • Increased risk of endometrial cancer/stroke/IHD
165
Q

Conjugated oestrogen

A
  • Natural oestrogen
  • HRT
  • Increased risk of endometrial cancer/stroke/IHD
166
Q

Ethinylestradiol

A
  • Synthetic oestrogen
  • Combined with a progestogen in COCP
  • Contraception/contraception (epilepsy - at least 30ug)/hirsutism (ethinylestradiol and drospirenone - Yasmin)/PMS (Yasmin)
  • Increased risk of VTE/stroke/IHD/breast cancer/cervical cancer
167
Q

Medroxyprogesterone

A
  • Synthetic progestogen
  • HRT
  • Increased risk of VTE/stroke/IHD/breast cancer
168
Q

Norethisterone

A
  • Synthetic progestogen
  • HRT
  • Increased risk of VTE/stroke/IHD/breast cancer
169
Q

Levonorgestrel

A
  • Synthetic progestogen
  • Prevents endometrial proliferation and causes cervical mucous thickening
  • HRT/COCP/IUS/emergency contraception
  • Increased risk of VTE/stroke/IHD/breast cancer/72 hour window (emergency contraception)
170
Q

Drospirenon

A
  • Synthetic progestogen
  • HRT/COCP (Yasmin)/hirsutism (Yasmin)
  • Increased risk of VTE/stroke/IHD/breast cancer
171
Q

Tibolone

A
  • Synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic and androgenic activity
172
Q

Ulipristal

A
  • Selective progesterone receptor modulator (EllaOne)
  • Inhibits ovulation
  • Emergency contraception
  • Reduces effectiveness of hormonal contraception (restart after 5 days)
173
Q

Combined oral contraceptive pill

A
  • Inhibits ovulation/thickens cervical mucus/inhibits endometrial proliferation
  • Contraception/PMS/perimenopause/menopause/acne
  • Effective after 7 days
  • Increased risk of VTE/stroke/IHD/breast cancer/cervical cancer
174
Q

Progestogen only pill

A
  • Desogestrel
  • Inhibits ovulation/thickens cervical mucus
  • Contraception/contraception (risk of pregnancy)
  • Effective after 48 hours
  • Effective immediately (if started up to and including day 5 of cycle)
  • Effective immediately (if switching from COCP and continued directly from end of pill packet)
  • Can be started at any time postpartum
  • Can be continued beyond 50
  • Irregular bleeding
175
Q

Intrauterine system

A
  • Levonorgestrel
  • Prevents endometrial proliferation and causes cervical mucous thickening
  • Contraception/menorrhagia/contraception (EIDs)
  • Effective after 7 days
  • Lasts 5 years
  • Can be inserted within 48 hours of birth or after 4 weeks
  • Can be continued beyond 50
  • Infrequent uterine bleeding/spotting within first 6 months
176
Q

Intrauterine device

A
  • Copper
  • Decreases sperm motility and survival
  • Contraception/emergency contraception (within 5 days of unprotected sex/up to 5 days after likely ovulation date)/contraception (EIDs)
  • Effective immediately
  • Lasts 5 years (copper only on stem)
  • Lasts 10 years (copper on stem and arms)
  • Can be inserted within 48 hours of birth or after 4 weeks
  • Heavier/longer/more painful periods
177
Q

Combined contraceptive patch

A
  • Ethinylestradiol and norelgestromin (Evra patch)
  • Inhibit ovulation
  • Contraception
  • Worn every day for 3 weeks (change each week) and not worn for 4th week (withdrawal bleed)
  • Effective after 7 days
  • Effective immediately (if started between 1st-5th day of period)
  • Increased risk of VTE
178
Q

Injectable contraceptive

A
  • Medroxyprogesterone acetate 150mg (Depo Provera)
  • Inhibits ovulation/thickens cervical mucus/endometrial thinning
  • Contraception/contraception (EIDs)/contraception (>40)
  • Given every 3 months (lasts 12 weeks)
  • Effective after 7 days
  • Delayed return to fertility (12 months)/weight gain/irregular bleeding
179
Q

Implantable contraceptive

A
  • Etonogestrel (Nexplanon)
  • Inhibits ovulation/thickens cervical mucus
  • Contraception/contraception (pmhx VTE/migraine)
  • Effective after 7 days
  • Lasts 3 years
  • Can be inserted immediately following termination of pregnancy
  • Can be continued beyond 50
  • Irregular/heavy bleeding (give co-prescription of COCP)
180
Q

Clomifene

A
  • Anti-oestrogen
  • Induces gonadotrophin release
  • Infertility in PCOS
  • Multiple pregnancies
181
Q

Alendronate

A
  • Bisphosphonate
  • Inhibit osteoclasts
  • Osteoporosis/hypercalcaemia/Paget’s disease/pain from bone metastases
  • Oesophagitis/oesophageal ulcers/osteonecrosis of jaw
182
Q

Risedronate

A
  • Bisphosphonate
  • Inhibit osteoclasts
  • Osteoporosis/hypercalcaemia/Paget’s disease/pain from bone metastases
  • Oesophagitis/oesophageal ulcers/osteonecrosis of jaw
183
Q

Zoledronate

A
  • Bisphosphonate
  • Inhibit osteoclasts
  • Osteoporosis/hypercalcaemia/Paget’s disease/pain from bone metastases/hip fracture (IV)
  • Oesophagitis/oesophageal ulcers/osteonecrosis of jaw
184
Q

Denosumab

A
  • Monoclonal antibody
  • Inhibits osteoclast formation/function/survival
  • Osteoporosis
185
Q

Tamsulosin

A
  • Alpha blocker
  • BPH/HTN
  • Postural hypotension/drowsiness/dyspnoea/cough
186
Q

Doxazosin

A
  • Alpha blocker
  • BPH/HTN
  • Postural hypotension/drowsiness/dyspnoea/cough
187
Q

Finasteride

A
  • 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor
  • Blocks conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) which induces BPH
  • BPH/male-pattern baldness
  • Impotence/decreased libido/ejaculation disorders/gynaecomastia/breast tenderness/decreased levels of serum PSA
188
Q

Codeine

A
  • Weak opioid
  • Mild to moderate pain
  • Bradycardia
189
Q

Morphine

A
  • Opioid
  • Pain
  • Tolerance/N+V/constipation/respiratory depression
190
Q

Fentanyl

A
  • Synthetic opioid (often transdermal)
  • Pain
  • Tolerance/N+V/constipation
  • Safe in renal failure
191
Q

Pethidine

A
  • Synthetic opioid (10% potency of morphine)
  • Pain
  • Toxic metabolite cleared by kidney (accumulates in renal failure) = muscle twitching/convulsions
192
Q

Paracetamol

A
  • Non opioid analgesic
  • Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
  • Minor pain/pyrexia
  • Hepatotoxicity in overdosage
193
Q

Levothyroxine

A
  • Synthetic T4
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hyperthyroidism/reduced BMD/worsening angina/AF
194
Q

Bromocriptine

A
  • Dopamine agonist
  • Mimics dopamine in basal ganglia to stimulate dopamine receptors
  • Parkinson’s/prolactinoma/galactorrhoea/cyclical breast disease/acromegaly
  • Hallucinations/postural hypotension
195
Q

Cabergoline

A
  • Dopamine agonist
  • Mimics dopamine in basal ganglia to stimulate dopamine receptors
  • Parkinson’s/prolactinoma/galactorrhoea/cyclical breast disease/acromegaly
  • Hallucinations/postural hypotension
196
Q

Levodopa

A
  • Synthetic dopamine
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • Dyskinesia/postural hypotension/arrhythmias/red discolouration of urine
197
Q

Carbidopa

A
  • Decarboxylase inhibitor
  • Combined with levodopa to prevent peripheral metabolism
  • Parkinson’s
198
Q

Benserazide

A
  • Decarboxylase inhibitor
  • Combined with levodopa to prevent peripheral metabolism
  • Parkinson’s
199
Q

Mebeverine (buscopan)

A
200
Q

Hyoscine Butylbromide

A
201
Q

Tramadol

A
202
Q

Fosfomycin

A
203
Q

Topiramate

A
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Epilepsy/migraine prophylaxis
  • Teratogenic
204
Q
A

Phase 3a (21 decks)

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