Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the features of Wilm’s tumour (nephroblastoma)?

A

Abdominal mass
Painless haematuria
Flank pain
Fever, anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the causes of aortic stenosis in children?

A

William’s syndrome
Coarctation of the aorta
Turner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the clinical features of Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)?

A

Clinical features
1) cyanosis
2) tachypnoea
3) loud single S2
4) prominent right ventricular impulse
5) ‘egg-on-side’ appearance on chest x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the management of transposition of the great arteries?

A

1) maintenance of the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins (Prostaglandin E1)
2) surgical correction is the definite treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the management of unilateral undescended testes?

A

1) referral should be considered from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age
2) orchidopexy: Surgical practices vary although the majority of procedures are performed at around 1 year of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the management of bilateral undescended testes

A

Should be reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24hours as the child may need urgent endocrine or genetic investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the causes of snoring in children?

A

1) obesity
2) nasal problems: polyps, deviated septum, hypertrophic nasal turbinates
3) recurrent tonsillitis
4) Down’s syndrome
5) hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment if ADHD in children?

A

1st line: Methylphenidate (SEs ando pain, nausea, dyspepsia)

2nd line: lisdexamfetamine

Note in adults: Methylphenidate OR lisdexamfetamine

NOTE: these are cardio toxic is beed baseline ECG. Also monitor height and weight evert 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the Kocher criteria for septic arthritis in children?

A

1) fever >38.5 degrees C- 1pt
2) non-weight bearing- 1pt
3) raised ESR- 1pt
4) raised WCC- 1pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the features of Tetraology of Fallot (ToF)?

A

Use mnemonic PROV

Pulmonary stenosis
Right Ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
Ventricular septal defect

Note: PS= ejection systolic murmur
CXR- boot-shaped heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the management of Tetraology of Fallot (ToF)?

A

1) surgical repair is often undertaken in two parts
2) cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is benign Rolandic epilepsy?

A

1) seizures characteristically occur at night
2) seizures are typically partial (e.g. paraesthesia affecting the face) but secondary generalisation may occur (i.e. parents may only report tonic-clonic movements)
3) the child is otherwise normal

Godo prognosis- seizures stop by adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the features of Patau’s syndrome and which chromosome is affected?

A

1) Microcephaly
2) Small etes
3) Low-set ears
4) Cleft lip
5) Polydactyly

Trisomy 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the features of Kawasaki’s disease?

A

1) Bilateral conjunctivitis
2) Cervical lymphadenopathy
3) Polymorphic rash
4) Cracked lips/strawberry tongue
5) Oedema/desquamation of the hands/feet

4 of the 5 must be present for >5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the management of Kawasaki’s disease?

A

1) High-dose aspirin
2) IV Ig
3) Echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the main complication of Kawasaki’s disease?

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the causes of jaundice in the neonate within the first 24 hours?

A

1) rhesus haemolytic disease
2) ABO haemolytic disease
3) hereditary spherocytosis
4) glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is normally the cause of neonatal jaundice from 2-14 days?

A

Normally physiological (more blood cells, more fragile blood cells and less developed liver function)

More common in breastfed babies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice

A

1) Biliary atresia
2) Hypothyroidism
3) Galactosaemia
4) UTI
5) Breast milk jaundice
6) Prematurity
7) Congenital infections (e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the common causative organisms for meningitis in 0-3month olds?

A

1) Group B Streptococcus
2) E. coli and other Gram -ve organisms
3) Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the common causative organisms for meningitis in 1 month- 6 year olds?

A

1) Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
2) Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
3) Haemophilus influenzai

22
Q

What are the common causative organisms for meningitis in those over 6 years old?

A

1) Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
2) Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)

23
Q

What are the features of patent ductus arteriosus?

A

1) left subclavicular thrill
2) continuous ‘machinery’ murmur
3) large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
4) wide pulse pressure
5) heaving apex beat

24
Q

What is the management of patent ductus arteriosus?

A

1) Indomethacin or ibuprofen
2) if associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair

25
Q

What would you expect to see on X-Ray in transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

1) hyperinflation
2) fluid in the horizontal fissure

Note: supportive management and usually settles within 1-2 days

26
Q

When can pregnant woman receive whooping cough vaccine?

A

16-32 weeks

27
Q

What are complications of whooping cough?

A

subconjunctival haemorrhage
pneumonia
bronchiectasis
seizures

28
Q

What is the management of whooping cough?

A

1) Infants under 6 months admitted
2) Oral macrolide (clari, azithro, erythro) if consent within 21 days
3) Household contacts offered prophylaxis
4) Exclude from school until 48hrs after starting abx

29
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for whooping cough?

A

1) Paroxysmal cough.
2) Inspiratory whoop.
3) Post-tussive vomiting.
4) Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.

30
Q

What are the complications of measles?

A

otitis media: the most common complication
pneumonia: the most common cause of death
encephalitis
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
febrile convulsions
keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration
diarrhoea
increased incidence of appendicitis
myocarditis

31
Q

What are the possible complications of Scarlet fever?

A

1) otitis media (most common)
2) rheumatic fever (20 days later)
3) acute glomerulonephritis (10 days later)
4) invasive complications (e.g. bacteraemia, meningitis, necrotizing fasciitis) are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness

32
Q

What is the investigation for intussusception?

A

Ultrasound- may show target-like mass

33
Q

What is the management of intussusception?

A

1st line: Air insufflation under radiological control
2nd line or if perotonitic: surgery

34
Q

What are the major risk factor for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?

A

1) prone sleeping
2) parental smoking
3) bed sharing
4) hyperthermia and head covering
5) prematurity

35
Q

What are protective factors for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?

A

1) Breastfeeding
2) Room sharing (obvs not bed sharing)
3) Use of dummies (pacifiers)

36
Q

What acid-base balance is expected in pyloric stenosis?

A

hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis

37
Q

How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound

38
Q

How is pyloric stenosis managed?

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

39
Q

What is the management of Perthe’s disease?

A

1) To keep the femoral head within the acetabulum: cast, braces
2) If less than 6 years: observation
3) Older: surgical management with moderate results
4) Operate on severe deformities

40
Q

Which developmental congenital disorder presents with macrocephaly?

A

Fragile X

41
Q

Which developmental congenital disorder presents with microcephaly?

A

Patau’s (Chr 13)
Edward’s
William’s (can be normal)
Cri du chat

42
Q

What are the characteristics of an innocent murmur?

A

1) soft-blowing murmur in the
2) pulmonary area or short buzzing
3) murmur in the aortic area
4) may vary with posture
5) localised with no radiation
6) no diastolic component
7) no thrill
8) no added sounds (e.g. clicks)
9)asymptomatic child
10) no other abnormality

43
Q

What is the emergency treatment in croup?

A

Oxygen
Nebulised adrenaline

44
Q

What is the antibiotic management of meningitis in children?

A

< 3 months: IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + IV cefotaxime
> 3 months: IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)

45
Q

What are the causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease?

A

1) Tetralogy of Fallot
2) transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
3) Tricuspid atresia

NOTE: Fallot’s is more common than TGA. However, at birth TGA is the more common lesion as patients with Fallot’s generally presenting at around 1-2 months

46
Q

What are the risk factors for surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD) in neonates?

A

1) male sex
2) diabetic mothers
3) Caesarean section
4) second born of premature twins

47
Q

What are the X-Ray findings insurfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD)?

A

1) ‘ground-glass’ appearance
2) indistinct heart border

47
Q

What is the management of Hirschprung’s disease?

A

initially: rectal washouts/bowel irrigation
definitive management: surgery to affected segment of the colon

NOTE: 3x more common in males, associated with Down’s

48
Q

What organism most commonly causes croup?

A

Parainfluenza

49
Q

What is acrancyanosis?

A
  • refers to cyanosis around the mouth and the extremities such as the hands and feet
  • differentiated from other causes of peripheral cyanosis with significant pathology as it occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants.
  • common finding and may persist for 24 to 48 hours.
50
Q

What are the 3 findings in shaken baby syndrome?

A

1) Retinal Haemorrhage
2) Subdural Haemorrhage
3) Encephalopathy

51
Q

What is the best investigation for reflux nephropathy?

A

micturating cystography

NOTE: DMSA scan may also be performed to look for renal scarring