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Patient Care > Oxygen Therapy > Flashcards

Oxygen Therapy Flashcards

1
Q

How long can a person last without O2?

A

4-6 minutes before irreversible brain damage

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2
Q

Without O2 what happens to cellular metabolism?

A

Cellular metabolism ceases and eventually death will occur

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3
Q

What is the function of the respiratory system?

A

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the external environment and circulatory system of the body

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4
Q

What are the major features of the lungs?

A

Bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli

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5
Q

What are the alveoli?

A

Microscopic blood vessel-lined sacs in which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged

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6
Q

What is the pleural cavity composed of?

A

The layers of the membrane lining the lung and chest cavity

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7
Q

What is the radiographers role in O2 therapy?

A

Radiographer must be ready to respond to potentially dangerous changed in the patient’s respiratory condition

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8
Q

What should the radiographer reposition O2 equipment?

A

When the tubes could potentially cause artifacts on the image or become superimposed over anatomy

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9
Q

How should a radiographer ensure O2 therapy doesn’t become a source of infection?

A

Making sure the equipment is single use only and discarded after use

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10
Q

Under what conditions should O2 equipment be completely removed from patients?

A

Under NO circumstance should it be completely removed by radiographers

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11
Q

What are the pulmonary functions?

A

The lungs ability to exchange O2 and carbon dioxide efficiently

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12
Q

How is oxygen transported to the body tissues?

A

Through arterial blood

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13
Q

What are Arterial Blood Gases (ABG’s)?

A

Lab values that measure the arterial blood concentration of oxygen, Co2, pH and other gases

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14
Q

What condition is demonstrated by inadequate levels of arterial blood gases?

A

Hypoxemia

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15
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

A condition of insufficiency of oxygenation of the blood

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16
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues

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17
Q

What are signs of Hypoxia?

A
  • Rapid pulse
  • Rapid and shallow respirations
  • Dyspnea
  • Cyanosis
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18
Q

What tissues are the most sensitive to hypoxia?

A

Brain, Heart, Lungs and Liver

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19
Q

What is the average rate of respiration for adults?

A

12-20 breaths/min

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20
Q

What is the average rate of respiration for children?

A

20-30 breaths/min

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21
Q

What is the average rate of respiration for infants?

A

30-60 breaths/min

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22
Q

What are decreased respirations classified by?

A

Less than 10 breaths/minute

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23
Q

What can decreased respirations cause?

A

Cyanosis, confusion, apprehension, restlessness and loss of consciousness

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24
Q

What is the goal of O2 therapy?

A

To maintain adequate tissue oxygenation while minimizing cardiopulmonary work

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25
Q

What are the 4 indications for O2 therapy?

A
  • Correct hypoxemia
  • Reduce respiratory distress
  • Minimize cardiopulmonary workload
  • Compensate for hypoxia
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26
Q

How can oxygen be supplied to a patient?

A

Via O2 tanks or wall delivery systems

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27
Q

Who’s consent should you receive to temporarily remove oxygen equipment?

A

Consent and supervision should come from a MD or attending nurse

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28
Q

Why is oxygen considered a drug (medication)?

A

Because it must be prescribed by a MD

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29
Q

How is oxygen prescribed?

A

Prescribed as either a percentage or a fraction
- 26% or .26

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30
Q

What will happen if oxygen is given at 100%

A

It will cause damage to the lungs

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31
Q

What is the saturation of oxygen hemoglobin called?

A

SAO2

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32
Q

How is the flow rate of oxygen measured?

A

In LPM (liters per minute)

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33
Q

What is the standard oxygen flow rate?

A

3-5 LPM

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34
Q

What happens to O2 when oxygen flow rates are high?

A

They’re humidified to prevent excess drying of the mucosa

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35
Q

When positioning a patient how should tubes be taken care of?

A

Avoid bending or pinching the tubes to reduce oxygen flow

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36
Q

What two things should never be done around oxygen therapy?

A
  • No smoking
  • Be careful not to produce sparks with x-ray equipment
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37
Q

Is oxygen flammable or combustible?

A

Combustible

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38
Q

What percentage of atmospheric gas does oxygen make up?

A

21%

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39
Q

How can oxygen be described physically?

A

Colorless, tasteless and odorless gas

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40
Q

What are the two regulator valves that are part of portable O2 tanks?

A
  • Valve that indicates how much O2 is left in the tank
  • Valve that displays the rate of flow
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41
Q

How do physicians order O2?

A
  • Specified liter flow per minute
  • Concentrations of oxygen (%)
  • Method of delivery (facemask)
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42
Q

What is a pulse oximeter?

A

A noninvasive photoelectric device that measures oxygen saturation of the hemoglobin in arterial blood

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43
Q

Where are pulse oximeter attached?

A

The finger or earlobe

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44
Q

What are the normal levels of oxygen saturation (SAO2)?

A

Between 95-100%

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45
Q

What SAO2 value is considered life threatening?

A

Levels less than 70%

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46
Q

What can the pulse oximeter detect before symptoms arise?

A

Hypoxia

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47
Q

What is oxygen transported by in the blood?

A

Hemoglobin

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48
Q

What is hemoglobin a major component of?

A

Red blood cells

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49
Q

How is oxygen delivery method determined for patients?

A

Depended on the patient’s needs

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50
Q

What are the two types of O2 devices?

A

Low flow and high flow devices

51
Q

What are low flow devices also called?

A

Variable performance devices

52
Q

What are high flow devices also called?

A

Fixed performance devices

53
Q

Why are high flow delivery devices also called fixed performance devices?

A

Because the amount of concentration of O2 breathed in by the patient will not change according to their breathing patterns

54
Q

What do high flow delivery devices provide to the patient?

A

Entire inspiratory volume

55
Q

Why are low flow delivery devices called variable performance devices?

A

Because the percentage of O2 the patient receives will change with their breathing pattern, respiratory rate and depth of respiration

56
Q

What do low flow delivery devices provide to the patient?

A

Only part of the inspiratory concentration as it’s dilated by room air

57
Q

Which type of O2 delivery device should be used for patients with chronic COPD?

A

Low flow delivery device

58
Q

What is an O2 nasal cannula?

A

A low flow device that is inserted into the nose to deliver O2 to the patient

59
Q

How long can cannulas be used for oxygen therapy?

A

Short term or Long term use as they don’t obstruct the mouth

60
Q

What is a usual flow rate for nasal cannula?

A

1-4 LPM at approximately 24-36%

61
Q

Why are flow rates higher than 6 not used with nasal cannula?

A

Because it causes severe drying of the nasal mucosa and sinus pain

62
Q

What are the 5 other types of oxygen masks?

A
  • Simple oxygen mask
  • Partial rebreather mask
  • Non-rebreather mask
  • Aerosol mask
  • Air-entrainment mask
63
Q

What is a simple oxygen mask?

A

A mask shaped to fit snugly over the patients mouth and nose that is secured in place by a strap

64
Q

What is a simple oxygen mask?

A

A mask shaped to fit snugly over the patients mouth and nose that is secured in place by a strap

65
Q

How long should simple oxygen masks be used?

A

For short term use only, as they become hot, uncomfortable and prevent the patient from eating/drinking while its on

66
Q

What are the standard flow rates for simple oxygen masks?

A

Flow rates over 5 LPM that can be delivered at 35-60% oxygen

67
Q

What is a non-rebreather mask?

A

An O2 mask with a reservoir bag attached to a one-way valve that prevents exhaled air from being re-breathed

68
Q

What are features of non-rebreather masks?

A

Provide the highest concentration of oxygen and are the most precise mean of oxygen administration

69
Q

What is a partial rebreather mask?

A

Similar to a non-rebreather mask in that it has a reservoir, but it does not contain a one-way valve

70
Q

What is an aerosol mask?

A

O2 mask that is used when high concentration of O2 and humidity are needed

71
Q

How does an aerosol mask work?

A

It’s attached to a bottle of distilled water to provide the high concentrations of humidity

72
Q

What are the standard flow rates of aerosol masks?

A

Flow rates less than 6 LPM and O2 concentrations between 21-100%

73
Q

What is an air-entrainment mask?

A

An O2 mask that provides an accurate source of maintaining O2 concentrations

74
Q

What are the O2 concentration values of an air-entrainment mask?

A

24%, 28%, 35%, 40% or 50%

75
Q

What is an oxygen tent?

A

O2 delivery device that is used when there is need fir humidity and higher concentrations of O2 than the room air

76
Q

Who primarily uses oxygen tents?

A

Pediatric patients so that it covers their beds

77
Q

What is an oxygen hood?

A

An O2 delivery device only used for infants by covering their head

78
Q

What O2 concentrations can be delivered by an oxygen hood?

A

Concentrations between 21-100%

79
Q

What is a ventilator?

A

An artificial airway inserted into the trachea and connected to a mechanical device to deliver a preset volume of oxygen therapy at a constant rate

80
Q

What are mechanical ventilators commonly called?

A

Respirators

81
Q

What does mechanical ventilators control?

A
  1. Respiratory rate
  2. Volume
82
Q

What should be done if ventilator alarms go off during imaging?

A

Should never be reset or turned off by an RT

83
Q

What is intubation?

A

A tube placed in the trachea to establish or maintain an airway

84
Q

What is an Endotracheal Tube (ET)?

A

Tube inserted through the nose or the mouth into the trachea to maintain an open airway

85
Q

Where are ET tubes placed within the trachea?

A

ET tube terminate 1-2 inches superior to the bifurcation of the trachea

86
Q

How is correct placement of an ET tube confirmed?

A

With a CXR

87
Q

What is a tracheostomy?

A

A surgical incision in the trachea, right below the larynx

88
Q

Where does the tracheostomy extend and what is it used for?

A

Extends to the trachea and is used for long-term airway support

89
Q

What is a thoracotomy tube?

A

Chest tube inserted into the pleural space to reduce negative pressure and drain fluid blood

90
Q

What is a thoracotomy tube also known as?

A

Intra-pleural or chest tube

91
Q

What happens if the lung pressure falls too low?

A

The lung will collapse

92
Q

What does a chest tube setup entail?

A

Consists of a rubberized tube, which is sutured in place and connected to a drainage system

93
Q

What conditions are chest tubes used to treat?

A
  • Pneumothorax
  • Hemothorax
  • Pleural Effusion
  • Empyema
94
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

A collection of air in the pleural space

95
Q

What is a hemothorax?

A

A collection of blood in the pleural space

96
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

An abnormal collection of fluid in the chest

97
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

An abnormal collection of fluid in the chest

98
Q

What is empyema?

A

A lung abscess or pus in the pleural space

99
Q

What is thoracentesis?

A

A surgical puncture of the chest for the removal of air or fluids

100
Q

What is parenteral?

A

Introduction into the body by route other than the digestive system

101
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

A collapsed lung or incomplete expansion of the lung/part of lung

102
Q

What is asthma?

A

Difficulty breathing by bronchospasm or constriction of the bronchi

103
Q

What is anemia?

A

Too few red blood cells or RBCs that contain too little/abnormal hemoglobin and interferes with O2 delivery

104
Q

What is the procedure for inserting a chest tube?

A
  • Area where the tube is inserted is numbed or patient is sedated
  • Tube is inserted between the ribs into the chest and connected to a bottle containing sterile water
  • Suction is attached to the system to encourage drainage
  • A stitch, or tape is used to keep the tube in place
105
Q

How long is a chest tube placed in a patient?

A

Remains in place until the x-ray shows that all the blood, fluid or air has been drained from the chest and lung is fully expanded

106
Q

What do chest tube insertion sites depend on?

A

The variety of the substance and location within the lung

107
Q

How is a chest tube inserted to remove fluids?

A

Chest tube is inserted at the 5th and 6th intercostal space and laterally to the mid-axillary

108
Q

Where is a chest tube inserted to remove air?

A

Higher in the lung apical region, since air rises. Typically at the 2nd or 3rd intercostal space at the mid-clavicular

109
Q

What must chest tubes be connected to?

A

A sealed drainage systems that allows one-way drainage and doesn’t allow air from the outside

110
Q

What is collected in a chest tube drainage container?

A

Blood and fluids

111
Q

Where should chest tube drainage containers be placed?

A

Always below the level of the patient’s chest to prevent back flow

112
Q

What should be done if a chest tube is accidentally disconnected?

A

Drainage tube should be clamped close to the insertion site, the wound should be covered with a sterile dressing and you should call for help

113
Q

What is COPD?

A

Cardiopulmonary obstructive pulmonary disorder

114
Q

What is COPD characterized by?

A

A group of diseases characterized by limited airflow with variable degrees of air sack enlargement and lung tissue destruction

115
Q

What are the two main COPD disorders?

A

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis

116
Q

What is emphysema?

A

A chronic pulmonary disease characterized by over inflation of the alveolar walls

117
Q

What are CVP lines?

A

Central venous catheters or venous access lines inserted into major veins

118
Q

If a CVP lines is inserted into a peripheral vein what is it referred to as?

A

PICC line (peripherally inserted central catheter)

119
Q

What is the ideal location for a CVP line?

A

In SVC just above the right atrium

120
Q

What are the clinical applications for CVP lines?

A
  • Drug administration
  • Fluid volume management
  • Portal for blood analysis and transfusions
  • Monitory cardiac pressure
121
Q

What are the 3 types of CVP lines?

A

Single, double or multi-lumen

122
Q

What are common insertion sites of CVP lines?

A
  • subclavian vein
  • internal jugular vein
  • femoral vein
123
Q

What is the procedure for suctioning a patient?

A

Before suctioning patient should be aerated with 5-10 breaths of O2
- Catheter is inserted into the stoma until resistance is met, then removed slightly about 1cm
- While moving the catheter up/down suction should be applied
- Assess the airway by using a stheteschope to listen to breath sounds
- Repeat procedure until the airway is clear

124
Q

What is the max time suction should be applied to a patient?

A

No longer than 15 seconds with rest periods in between for the patient

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