Otology Flashcards

1
Q

Ear label (apex, scapha, cutaneous marginal pouch, median/rostral margin, lateral/caudal margin)

A
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2
Q

T or F: Breed matters more than heat/temp of the ear canal

A

T

No temp/humidity difference between diseased and normal ears.

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3
Q

T or F: environmental humidity can affect ear canal humidity

A

F

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4
Q

Do ear canals with or without hair have a higher temperature

A

Canals WITHOUT hair are hotter

Canals WITH hair are cooler

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5
Q

Which breed has higher ear canal temperatures than other dogs

A

GSD

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6
Q

Breed with ceruminous gland hyperplasia

A

Cocker spaniels

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7
Q

Pendulous ears vs hair relationship

A

Pendulous ears WITH hair get more otitis

(but maybe actually more related to breed)

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8
Q

Erect ears vs hair relationship

A

Erect ears +/- hairs get less otitis

(but maybe actually more related to breed)

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9
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: Conformation (hair, anatomic stenosis, pendulous pinnae)

A

Predisposing

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10
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: Otodectes cynotis

A

Primary

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11
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: excessive moisture (swimming)

A

Predisposing

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12
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: trauma from cotton swabs

A

Predisposing

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13
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: hair plucking

A

Predisposing

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14
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: atopic dermatitis

A

Primary

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15
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: bacterial/yeast infection

A

Perpetuating

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16
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: otitis media

A

Perpetuating

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17
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: Hypothyroidism

A

Primary

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18
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: pemphigus foliaceus

A

Primary

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19
Q

Predisposing, Primary, or Perpetuating: primary idiopathic seborrhea, juvenile cellulitis, sebaceous adenitis

A

Primary

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20
Q

Definition of predisposing factor

A
  • Facilitate inflammation by permitting alteration of
    microenvironment
  • Establishment of secondary infections
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21
Q

Definition of primary cause

A

Conditions or disorders that initiate the inflammatory process

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22
Q

What is the most common primary cause of otitis in dogs

A

Allergic disease

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23
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of otitis in cats

A

Parasites
Polyps
Allergic disease

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24
Q

What percent of dogs with atopic dermatitis have otitis as their ONLY clinical sign?

A

10%

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25
What percent of dogs with CAFR have otitis as their ONLY clinical sign?
25%
26
What is the definition of a perpetuating factor
*Sustain and aggravate the inflammatory process * Prevent resolution of the otitis externa *Worsen the otitis externa
27
Chronic otitis media can lead to ______: a cystic mass near the Eustachian tube
Aural cholesteatoma
28
Label a pinna (lateral process of antitragus, medial process of antitragus, intertragic incisure, tragis, medial crus helix, tragohelicine incisure, lateral crus helix, anthelix)
*Helix rostrally *Tragus laterally *Antitragus caudally *Anthelix medially *Intertragic incisure
29
Routes of infection for otitis media (2)
1) Extension of OE through TM 2) Via eustachian tube
30
What percent of dogs with chronic recurrent OE develop OM?
89% (73% still had intact TM! Intact TM does NOT rule out OM)
31
Which bacteria are most common in canine OM?
-Staphylococcus pseudintermedius -Pseudomonas aeruginosa
32
T or F: Malassezia can cause OM
True, in 23.7% of sampled ears in one study!
33
Breed with PSOM
CKCS
34
Clinical signs of PSOM
-Head and neck scratching, neurological signs, hearing loss, otic pruritus, abnormal yawning, head tilt, facial paralysis, or vestibular disturbances -Intact tympanic membrane, mucoid exudate
35
Signs of facial nerve paralysis (3)
*Drooping of ear/lip *Drooling saliva *Absent palpebral reflex
36
What eye sign can be related to OM?
Neurogenic keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)
37
Which nerve in the middle ear can cause Dry Nose (xeromycteria)
Parasympathetic
38
Which nerve in the middle ear can cause Horner's syndrome
Sympathetic nerve
39
Signs of Horner's Syndrome
* Ptosis -Drooping of upper lid * Miosis -Contraction of pupil * Enophthalmos -Backward displacement of eyeball into the orbit * Protrusion of nictitating membrane
40
Signs of Otitis INTERNA
*Horizontal nystagmus *Head tilt, falling, rolling to affected side *Asymmetric ataxia *Hearing loss
41
Where do you put your cone for otoscopic exam within pinnal structures?
Intertragic incisure
42
What is the relationship between BW and length of ear canal
Linear relationship exists between BW and ear canal volume (more drops in larger dogs)
43
Where are there more hairs: Proximal or distal ear canal
Proximal Decrease in number from distal to proximal
44
What type of gland are ceruminous glands
-Modified apocrine glands -Located in the deeper dermis below the sebaceous glands -Ducts open into either the hair follicle or onto the surface of the external ear canal
45
Who has a faster epithelial migration: the Pars tensa or Pars flaccida?
Pars flaccida! -Pars tensa = 96.4 μm/d; Pars flaccida = 225.4 μm/d
46
Is epithelial migration mostly radial or centrigual
Radial
47
What does the TM look like on histopath? Layers?
– Outer and inner epithelium – Core of collagen – Hairless, glandless
48
Label
Chorda tympani, right ear, dog. The chorda tympani ( arrow ) courses dorsally across the neck of the malleus ventral to the muscular process of the malleus (Mp), in close proximity to the pars tensa. The stapes (S) is anchored in the oval or vestibular window and the foot plate ( arrowhead ) is clearly visible in the opened vestibule (V). The stapes and incus (I) articulate to form the incudostapedius joint.
49
Ways feline middle ear is different from dog:
*Divided by a septum into 2 separate tympanic cavities; connected through a foramen between septum and petrous bone *Dorsolateral (pars tympanica) –Auditory ossicles, ostium of auditory tube, tympanic membrane –Smaller of the two *Ventromedial (pars endotympanica) –Air-filled tympanic bulla
50
Label middle ear, part of inner ear
Right ear, rostral view, dog. The middle ear has three main compartments. The epitympanic recess ( arrow ) is the smallest, most dorsal compartment occupied by the articulated malleus and incus (I). The next largest is the tympanic cavity proper (Tp) demarcated laterally by the tympanic membrane (torn in this image) and medially by the promontory of the petrous portion of the temporal bone (P). The largest is the ventral compartment (V) surrounded by the bone of the tympanic bulla ( asterisk ). Ventral bony ridge of the external acoustic meatus ( double asterisk ); stapes ( arrowhead ). Bs, brainstem; C, cochlea; Cr, cerebellar cortex; E, external ear canal; F, facial nerve in its facial canal; S, incomplete septum bulla.
51
Is the oval or round window adjacent to the pars flaccida?
Oval
52
Does the foot of the stapes touch the oval or round window?
Oval
53
What is the other name for the oval window
vestibular
54
What is the other name for the round window
cochlear
55
What is the eustachian tube
* Extends from nasopharynx to tympanic cavity * 8mm long * 1.5mm diameter * Equalizes pressure * Cartilagenous, junctional, osseous
56
57
Where is the ideal myringotomy site?
Ventocaudal
58
Name of the fluid inside the inner ear
Perilymph
59
Portion of spiral passage that ascends into cochlea
Scala vestibuli
60
Portion of spiral passage that exists cochlea
Scala tympani
61
What is inside the cochlea duct (that runs alongside the scala vestibuli and scala tympanic
endolymph
62
What sends nerve impulses to the brain due to vibrations from the basilar membrane in the cochlea?
Organ of corti via cochlear nerve
63
What cells are inside the organ of corti, to induce nerve transduction
Hair cells
64
T or F: most PSOM cases have bacteria isolated via traditional culture
False Due to increased production of mucus vs decreased drainage via eustachian tube
65
Healing time for ruptured TM in ideal conditions
21 to 35 days
66
Possible complications from deep ear flush
-Facial nerve paralysis -Horner’s Syndrome -Vestibular disturbances -Deafness
67
Which of these medications are ototoxic? -Gentamicin -Chlorhexidine -Ceruminolytic agents -Tris-EDTA -Tobramicin
-Gentamicin -Chlorhexidine (if >0.2% in dogs, ANY CONCENTRATION IN CATS) -Ceruminolytic agents -Tobramicin Tris-EDTA is SAFE Tobramycin is V BAD. Can cause both hearing loss AND vestibular signs
68
What cytology result is the strongest indicator of OE?
Inflammatory cells Never present in normal ears
69
Are rods on cytology normal in a canine ear?
No, but cocci can be
70
For MRI: is T1 or T2 better for distinguishing fluid in bulla
T2: fluid shows up hyperintense (isointense on T1)
71
Brachycephalic bulla on MRI
Brachycephalics have smaller bullae, so the bulla wall can look thicker on MRI
72
T or F: 64% brachycephalics had OM on CT; many with OM also had changes to soft palate thickness
T
73
MOA of ceruminolytics
Hydrate desquamated sheets of corneocytes, inducing keratolysis and disintegration of cerumen
74
MOA of surfactants
Decrease surface tension between water and lipids or organic solids to break up and help remove debris
75
MOA of lubricants
Softening effect
76
Which organism is Malacetic proven effective against?
Yeast
77
Effect of topical glucocorticoids on sebaceous and apocrine glands
Decrease sebaceous and apocrine secretions
78
Effect of topical glucocorticoids on adrenal glands
Can occasionally cause adrenal suppression
79
Which 2 medications are most likely to cause a topical reaction
Neomycin Propylene glycol (no source for this, but from Lynette Cole lecture)
80
Which bacteria is Polymixin B ineffective against?
Proteus
81
What inactivates polymixin B
Purulent debris
82
What can be combined with polymixin B for a synergistic effect against Pseudomonas and Malassezia
Miconazole
83
Which bacteria is florfenicol ineffective against
Pseudomonas
84
Which bacteria (3) is fluoroquinolones ineffective against
Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Anaerobes
85
Are gram positive or gram negative bacteria more susceptible to Tris-EDTA
Gram negative
86
MOA of Tris-EDTA
*Leakage of cellular components, permeability of antibiotics *Tromethamine enhances the effect of EDTA
87
Mechanism for permanent deafness or balance issues
Loss of hair cells in inner ear
88
Medications with highest risk of ototoxicity, usually permanent
Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, amikacin) Cisplatin
89
Which heart medication can be ototoxic?
Furosemide (loop diuretic) Usually temporary
90
With ototoxicity, is hearing loss first a high or low frequencies?
High frequencies are lost first
91
2 non-drug causes of hearing loss
Noise, age
92
Other than aminoglycosides, which other antibiotics have been associated with ototoxicity
Erythromycin
93
Which antipyretic has been associated with temporary hearing loss
Salicylates
94
Can SQ aminoglycosides still induce ototoxicity?
Yes
95
Does gentamicin target balance, hearing, or both
Both
96
Does amikacin target balance, hearing, or both
Hearing only
97
T or F: aminoglycosides can cross the placental barrier and cause deafness in fetuses
T
98
MOA of ototoxicity by aminoglycosides
Oxidative stress caused by the overproduction of reactive oxygen species (ROS)
99
How can you prevent ototoxicity in animals
Give a concurrent antioxidant with your drugs (ie aspirin, but never in cats. ie silymarin, vitamin E)
100
MOA of furosemide temporary ototoxicity
Increase in the sodium concentration and a reduction in potassium activity in the endolymph.
101
Relationship between brachycephalics and otitis media w/effusion (OME) on MRI
CKCS w/ bilateral OME had a significantly greater thickness of the soft palate and reduced area of the nasopharynx compared with CKCS without OME.
102
Most common aural tumors in dogs
*Ceruminous gland adenoma/carcinoma *Papilloma *Histiocytoma
103
Most common aural tumors in cats
*Ceruminous gland adenoma/CA *SCC of the pinna *Inflammatory polyps of the middle ear
104
Which is the germinal center of the TM
Umbo
105
Where do polyps arise from in cats
mucosal lining of the middle ear, the auditory tube, or the nasopharynx
106
Etiology of polyps in cats
Chronic inflammation of the middle ear mucosa from a: -viral-mediated otitis media -chronic stimulation -ascending bacterial infection
107
Feline polyp histopath findings
-Vascularized fibrous connective tissue -Stratified squamous or columnar epithelium -Lymph, plasma cells, macrophages present
108
Canine polyp histopath findings
-Keratinizing squamous epithelium -Hair follicles, sebaceous, ceruminous glands present usually, but some lacked adnexa. -SOME have cuboidal to **ciliated** columnar epithelium
109
Treatment options for aural inflammatory polyps (3+1)
1) Trans-tympanic traction-avulsion 2) Traction-avulsion with rostral soft palate retraction 3) Ventral bulla osteotomy 4) Normograde rigid rhinoscopy-assisted traction-avulsion
110
Recurrent ear mite infection in cats can predispose them to _____
Ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma
111
Breed predisposed to leproid granuloma
Boxer
112
Organism implicated in canine leproid granuloma; location on body
Saprophytic Mycobacteria, base of ears (anywhere on head, distal limbs. No LN involvement)
113
Is hot or cold more associated with development of leproid granulomas
Cool; why they prefer ears. More common in cooler months. Spread by inoculation from bug bites vs trauma
114
Diagnosis of leproid granuloma
Acid fast + on FNA or histopath Macrophages contained many small, non-staining (clear) linear structures, consistent with Mycobacterium sp.
115
Treatment leproid granuloma
Spontaneous resolution is reported, but usually sx or long term antibiotics (rifampin, clarithromycin) needed
116
Organisms that can cause infectious cutaneous granulomas (9) on the pinna
*Leishmania* sandflies bite the ears and face -Blastomyces dermatitidis -Crytococcus -Histoplasma capsulatum -Neospora caninum -Toxoplasma gondii -Trypanosoma cruzi -Sporothrix schenchkii -Other opportunistic fungal infx
117
What should you evaluate for in a pet with a para-auricular abscess
Usually 2' obstructive hyperplastic proliferative OE Can be due to neoplasia, OM, TECA, trauma --> always check for cancer
118
Origin of most aural polyps in dogs
Ear canal
119
Origin of most aural polyps in cats
Tympanic bulla, eustachian tube
120
Virus associated with aural polyps in cats
Calicivirus
121
Of cats that required TECA for end stage ear 2' chronic OE, which histopathologic feature was present 100%
Ceruminous gland hyperplasia
122
T or F sebaceous gland hyperplasia is 2' chronic inflammation
False
123
Pinna in a 3 month old cat. Diagnosis
Proliferative and Necrotizing Otitis Externa (of Kittens)
124
Cell involved in Proliferative and Necrotizing Otitis Externa (of Kittens)
CD3+ T cells
125
Treatment for Proliferative and Necrotizing Otitis Externa (of Kittens)
Tacrolimus (works in 2 weeks)
126
T or F: Proliferative and Necrotizing Otitis Externa (of Kittens) is triggered by viruses
False. At least, not yet found
127
Mass occurring in the middle ear (pearly white mass); etiology = 2' invagination of stratified squamous epithelium from the external ear canal.
Aural keratinizing cyst (cholesteatoma)
128
Nonneoplastic mass in the bulla commonly associated with boney changes on CT (osteoproliferation, osteolysis)
Aural keratinizing cyst (cholesteatoma)
129
Feline ceruminous cystomatosis sex predilection
Males
130
Inflammatory mass in the middle ear of dogs with chronic OM. Cholesterol aggregates seen on histopath
Cholesterol graunloma Yellow, round to irregular, variably friable mass
131
Feline ceruminous cystomatosis breeds
Abyssinian, Persian
132
Causes of noninfectious granulomatous lesions in dogs (4)
1) Sterile granuloma and pyogranuloma syndrome 2) Cutaneous xanthoma 3) Canine sarcoidosis 4) Foreign body reaction
133
Diagnosis?? 7 yo FS dog with nonpruritic, nonpainful papules, plaques, and nodules on trunk, neck, face, and ears. Responsive to steroids, cyclosporine Histopath: multifocal nodular inflammation composed of pale, slightly vacuolated epithelioid histiocytes with giant cells and a few lymphocytes in the superficial-to-deep dermis. Gram/acid fast/GMS stains = negative. Epitheliod cells = + for CD18 and Iba1 (macrophage)
canine sarcoidosis
134
Which organisms do you need to rule out in "Sterile granuloma and pyogranuloma syndrome" that are difficult to culture
Mycobacterium Leishmania
135
Disease in cats > dogs 2' to dyslipoproteinemia. Results in a bilaterally symmetric, preauricular multi- focal to coalescing, white-yellow plaques or nodules
Cutaneous xanthoma
136
Species with Auricular chondritis/chondrosis
Cats (1 dog)
137
T or F: areas other than the pinna are also often affected with Auricular chondritis/chondrosis
False
138
Clinical signs Auricular chondritis/chondrosis
Markedly swollen, curled, and painful pinna with intense erythema. Unilateral progresses to bilateral
139
Treatment Auricular chondritis/chondrosis
Immunosuppression +/- pinnectomy
140
Idiopathic benign lichenoid keratosis: clinical signs, treatment
hyperkeratotic plaque or papules on concave pinna Sx = curative
141
Body sites affected by Canine cutaneous histiocytomas
Head, pinnae
142
Type of cell in Canine cutaneous histiocytomas
Langerhan cell
143
IHC for _____ confirms langerhan cell origin in canine cutaneous histiocytoma
E-cadherin
144
Plasmacytoma location on body
Feet, lips, and ear canal
145
Are aural neoplasms more likely to be benign or malignant
Malignant Cats (85%) Dogs (60%)
146
Though rare, what is the most common MIDDLE ear neoplasm in dogs and cats
SCC
147
SCC on a pinnal tip and preauricular area. What signalment is most likely
White cat
148
2 predisposing factors for SCC in external ear canal
1) Damaged skin 2) Continuous exposure to cerumen (potentially carcinogenic?)
149
Most common location of cutaneous hemangiosarcoma in cats
Pinnae (>50%) Likely UV associated in light colored cats
150
Body location of feline sarcoids (feline cutaneous fibropapilloma)
head (nares, lips, and pinnae)
151
Virus implicated in feline sarcoids (feline cutaneous fibropapilloma)
BPV-14
152
Signalment of animal with feline sarcoids (feline cutaneous fibropapilloma)
Rural, young male cat Fighting behavior?
153
Treatment feline sarcoids (feline cutaneous fibropapilloma)
Surgery. Locally infiltrative, so concern for local recurrence
154
Muscles responsible for the mobility of the pinna
Rostroauricular and ventroauricular muscles
155
Breed with more excessive compound hair follicles within horizontal ear canal
Cocker spaniel
156
Content of cerumen
Desquamated cornocytes, apocrine secretions, and sebaceous secretions
157
Where does epithelial migration start? Where does it go?
Starts at manubrium of malleus (germinal center)-- spreads laterally, radially
158
Most common bacteria in dogs with acute OE
Staphylococcus and Bacillus sp., yeast, and less frequent Streptococci, E.coli, Corynebacterium sp. and Micrococcus species Pseudomonas sp. and Proteus sp. are rarely cultured.
159
Most common bacteria in dogs with chronic OE
Staphylococcus pseudintermedius, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E.coli, beta hemolytic streptococcus, Proteus sp., Enterococcus sp., Corynebacterium sp.
160
Name for structure where tympanum attaches to surrounding bone
Annulus fibrocartilagenous
161
Why is Cerumene for in-clinic use only?
Urea or carbamide peroxide ceruminolytics need to be flushed out