OTHER STUFF Flashcards

1
Q

What effect may volatile liquid anaesthetics like isoflurane, desflurane, and sevoflurane have?

A

They may cause malignant hyperthermia

Malignant hyperthermia is a serious reaction to certain drugs used for general anesthesia.

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2
Q

In which condition should nitrous oxide be used with caution?

A

In patients with a pneumothorax

A pneumothorax is a condition where air leaks into the space between the lung and chest wall.

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3
Q

What is a key advantage of using ketamine in trauma patients?

A

It does not cause a drop in blood pressure

This makes ketamine particularly useful for patients who are hemodynamically unstable.

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4
Q

What beneficial property does propofol have for certain patients?

A

It has anti-emetic properties

This is particularly beneficial for patients at high risk of post-operative vomiting.

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5
Q

What complication can thiopental cause during induction?

A

Laryngospasm

Laryngospasm is a spasm of the vocal cords that can obstruct airflow.

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6
Q

What potential issue may arise from the use of etomidate?

A

Primary adrenal suppression

This necessitates careful patient selection to avoid adverse effects.

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7
Q

What adverse effect may Methotrexate cause related to blood cell production?

A

Myelosuppression or agranulocytosis

Myelosuppression refers to the decreased production of blood cells, while agranulocytosis is a severe drop in white blood cells, increasing infection risk.

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8
Q

What liver condition can Methotrexate lead to?

A

Liver fibrosis

Liver fibrosis is the accumulation of excess fibrous tissue in the liver, which can impair liver function.

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9
Q

Which oral condition is Methotrexate associated with?

A

Mucositis

Mucositis is inflammation and ulceration of the mucous membranes, often causing pain and discomfort.

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10
Q

Vincristine may cause which neurological condition?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

Peripheral neuropathy involves damage to the peripheral nerves, leading to weakness, numbness, and pain, typically in the hands and feet.

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11
Q

Is the peripheral neuropathy caused by Vincristine usually reversible?

A

Yes

Most cases of peripheral neuropathy from Vincristine improve after discontinuation of the drug.

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12
Q

What serious urinary condition can Cyclophosphamide cause?

A

Haemorrhagic cystitis

Haemorrhagic cystitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and bleeding in the bladder, often related to chemotherapy agents.

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13
Q

Which lung condition is linked to Bleomycin?

A

Lung fibrosis

Lung fibrosis refers to scarring of lung tissue, which can lead to respiratory difficulties.

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14
Q

Cisplatin may cause which two adverse effects?

A

Ototoxicity and hypomagnesaemia

Ototoxicity refers to ear poisoning, leading to hearing loss, while hypomagnesaemia is a deficiency of magnesium in the blood.

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15
Q

What are Kanavel’s signs of flexor tendon sheath infection?

A

Fixed flexion, fusiform swelling, tenderness, pain on passive extension

Kanavel’s signs are clinical indicators used to diagnose infections in the flexor tendon sheath.

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16
Q

What may be used to reduce pyrexia in cases of non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction?

A

Paracetamol

Paracetamol is commonly used to alleviate fever and discomfort.

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17
Q

What symptoms indicate an acute haemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion?

A

Fever, abdominal pain, hypotension

These symptoms can signal a serious and potentially life-threatening reaction.

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18
Q

How is TRALI differentiated from TACO?

A

Presence of hypotension in TRALI versus hypertension in TACO

Understanding these differences is crucial for appropriate management.

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19
Q

What type of blood transfusion is at particular risk of bacterial contamination?

A

Platelet transfusions

Platelets are stored at room temperature, increasing contamination risk.

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20
Q

How may minor allergic reactions during blood transfusions be managed?

A

Temporarily stopping the transfusion and giving an antihistamine

This approach helps alleviate allergic symptoms without significant complications.

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21
Q

What is required in the event of anaphylaxis during a blood transfusion?

A

Immediate cessation of the transfusion and administration of IM adrenaline

Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that requires prompt action.

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22
Q

What does TACO result from?

A

Excessive rate of transfusion leading to pulmonary oedema

TACO stands for Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload.

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23
Q

What characterizes TRALI?

A

Hypoxaemia and acute respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion

TRALI stands for Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury.

24
Q

What types of infections can occur with different blood products?

A

Bacterial and viral infections

RBCs primarily transmit viral agents, while other products may have different risks.

25
What are potential complications following an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?
DIC and renal failure ## Footnote Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and renal failure are serious outcomes.
26
What is gingival hyperplasia?
An overgrowth of gum tissue.
27
Name one medication that can cause gingival hyperplasia.
Phenytoin.
28
Which immunosuppressant is known to cause gingival hyperplasia?
Ciclosporin.
29
What type of medications are calcium channel blockers associated with regarding gingival hyperplasia?
They can cause gingival hyperplasia.
30
Which type of leukemia is linked to gingival hyperplasia?
Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).
31
What is used in the treatment for hiccups in palliative care?
Chlorpromazine or Haloperidol
32
What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?
Odds Ratio
33
What is the usual outcome measure in a prospective cohort study?
Relative risk
34
What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort studies and randomised control trials?
Absolute risk increase
35
What causative organism is associated with tonsilar SCC?
HPV (more specifically type 16)
36
What is the best next step in a patient presenting with perforated tympanic membrane caused by barotrauma?
should be reassured and told it will likely resolve after 6-8 weeks
37
38
When is cervical screening in pregnancy usually delayed?
Cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until 3 months post-partum ## Footnote This delay is unless there is missed screening or previous abnormal smears.
39
What are the exceptions to delaying cervical screening in pregnancy?
Exceptions include missed screening or previous abnormal smears ## Footnote These conditions may necessitate earlier screening.
40
What is the tx for genital herpes?
Oral aciclovir
41
What is the typical picture in DIC?
↓ platelets ↓ fibrinogen ↑ PT & APTT ↑ fibrinogen degradation products
42
What is the mx of post operative ileus?
nil-by-mouth initially, may progress to small sips of clear fluids nasogastric tube if vomiting IV fluids to maintain normovolaemia additives to correct any **electrolyte disturbances** total parenteral nutrition occasionally required for prolonged/severe cases
43
How does a diagnosis of schizophrenia affect one's driving?
must not drive and must notify the DVLA, until stable and well for 3 months and following a suitable psychiatristy report
44
What is the 1st line mx for acute stress disorder?
Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)
45
What are the key findings of polymyalgia rheumatic on blood tests?
ESR ↑, CRP ↑, anti-CCP normal, CK normal
46
What is the abx of choice for pseudomonas aueriginosa infection?
oral ciprofloxacin
47
What is Staphylococcus aureus associated with?
Cavitating lesions, recent flu ## Footnote Staphylococcus aureus can cause severe pneumonia, particularly in individuals with recent influenza infections.
48
Which population is Klebsiella pneumoniae commonly associated with?
Alcoholics and diabetics ## Footnote Klebsiella pneumoniae is a significant pathogen in individuals with underlying conditions such as alcoholism and diabetes.
49
What is the association of Haemophilius influenzae in pneumonia?
Pneumonia in COPD ## Footnote Haemophilius influenzae is a common cause of pneumonia in patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).
50
What clinical features are associated with Legionella pneumonia?
Deranged LFTs, hyponatraemia, headache, AC exposure ## Footnote Legionella pneumonia can present with specific laboratory and clinical features, often linked to exposure to air conditioning systems.
51
What is a notable characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Associated with CF, green sputum ## Footnote Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly found in patients with cystic fibrosis and is known for producing green-colored sputum.
52
What is the most common type of pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Cold sores, most common type of pneumonia if no specific indications for other types of pneumonia ## Footnote Streptococcus pneumoniae is a primary pathogen in community-acquired pneumonia, particularly in the absence of other specific pneumonia causes.
53
What are the tests required for brain death verification?
1. Fixed pupils 2. No corneal reflex 3. Absent oculo-vestibular reflex- cold wate rinjected in ear 4. No resposne to supraorbital pressure 5. No cough reflex to bronchila stimulation 6. No observed respiratory effort
54
Who can confirm brain death?
2 approporiately experience d doctors on 2 seperate occasions - Both should have 5 years postgraduate experience - One should be a consultant - Neither can be member of transplant team (if organ donation contemplated)
55