Other great questions

Question 1

Which of the following hormones is responsible for raising arterial pressure and promoting venous return?

Answer 1

Angiotensin II

Question 2

Which of the following parameters is the major determinant of diastolic blood pressure?
a-baroreceptors
b-cardiac output
c-renal function
d-vascular resistance

Answer 2

d-vascular resistance

Question 3

Which of the following symptoms of hepertension is most common?
a-blurred vision
b-epistaxis
c-headache
d-perpheral edema

Answer 3

c-headache

Question 4

Which of the following statements explains whey furosemide (lasix) is administered to treat hypertension?
a- It dilates peripheral blood vessels
b- it decreases sympathetic cardioacceleration
c- it inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzyme
d- it inhibits reabsorption of sodium & water in the loop of Henle.

Answer 4

d- it inhibits reabsorption of sodium & water in the loop of Henle.

Question 5

The hypothalamus responds to a decrease in blood pressure by secreting which of the following substances
a- angiotensin
b- antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c- epinephrine
d- renin

Answer 5

b- antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Question 6

Which part o the eye is examined to see arterial changes caused by hypertensions

Answer 6

retina

Question 7

Which of the following factors usually causes deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
a-aerobic exercise
b-inactivity
c-pregnancy

Answer 7

b-inactivity

Question 8

What is the standard heart sound?

best heart:

Answer 8

lub -dubb- lub- dubb
S1 - S2 - S1 - S2
2nd intercostal space left or right sternal border with diaphram

Question 9

Where does an S3 sound occur?

best heart:

Answer 9

-early diastole right after S2
-S1 – S2-S3 – S1 – S2-S3
Apex w/ bell (low pitch)

Question 10

Where does an S4 sound occur?

best heart:

Answer 10

-late diastole before S1
S4-S1 – S2 –S4-S1 – S2
Apex w/ bell (low pitch)

Question 11

Systole is what???

Answer 11

Ventricular contraction

Question 12

Diastole is what??

Answer 12

Ventricular relaxation

Question 13

Which of the following characteristics is typical of the pain associated with DVT?
a-dull ache
b-no pain
c-sudden onset
d-tingling

Answer 13

c- sudden onset

Question 14

Which of the following treatments can relieve pain from DVT?
a- application of heat
b- bed rest
c- exercise
d- leg elevation

Answer 14

d- leg elevation

Question 15

Which of the following oral medications is administered to prevent further thrombus formation?
a- warfarin (coumadin)
b- heparin
c- furosemide (lasix)
d- metoprolol (lopressor)

Answer 15

a- warfarin

Question 16

Which of the following positions would best aid breathing for a client with acute pulmonary edema?
a- lying flat in bed
b- left side-lying
c- in high fowler's position
d- semi-fowler's position

Answer 16

c- in high fowler’s position

Question 17

Which of the following blood gas abnormalities is initially most suggestive of pulmonary edema?
a- anoxia
b- hypercapnia
c- hyperoxygenation
d- hypocapnia

Answer 17

d- hypocapnia

decreased CO2 levels due to hyperventilation

Question 18

Which of the following actions is the appropriate initial response to a client coughing up pink, frothy sputum?
a- call for help
b- call the physician
c- start an I.V. line
d- suction the client

Answer 18

a- call for help

classic sign of acute pulmonary edema

Question 19

Which of the following terms describes the force against which the ventricle must expel blood?
a- afterload
b- cardiac output
c- overload
d- preload

Answer 19

a- afterload

refers to the resistance normally maintained by the aortic and pulmonic valves

Question 20

After recovery from an episode of acute pulmonary edema, why would an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor be administered?
a- promote diuresis
b- increase contractility
c- decrease contractility
d- reduce blood pressure

Answer 20

d- reduce blood pressure

Question 21

Acute pulmonary edema caused by heart failure is usually a result of damage to which of the following areas of the heart?
a- left atrium
b- right atrium
c- left ventricle
d- right ventricle

Answer 21

c- left ventricle

if left ventricle is damaged, output decreases & fluid accumulates in interstitial & alveolar spaces

Question 22

How quickly can an episode of acute pulmonary edema develop?
a- minutes
b- 1/2 hour
c- 1 hour
d- 3 hours

Answer 22

a- minutes

Question 23

Which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of stretch on the myocardium at the end of diastole?
a- afterload
b- cardiac index
c- cardiac output
d- preload

Answer 23

d- preload

the volume of the ventricle at the end of diastole determines preload

Question 24

Antihypertensives should be used cautiously in clients taking which of the following drugs?
a- ibuprofen
b- diphenhydramine
c- thioridazine
d- vitamins

Answer 24

c- thioridazine

thioridazine affects neurotransmitter norepinephrine which causes hypotension & other cardiovascular effects

Question 25

``` One hour after administering IV furosemide to a client with heart failure, a short burst of ventricular tachycardia appears on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse suspect? a- hypocalcemia b- hypermagnesemia c- hypokalemia d- hypernatremia ```

Answer 25

c- hypokalemia | furosemide is a potassium depleting diuretic. hypokalemia increases myocardial excitability

Question 26

An 18 year old client who recently had an upper respiratory infection is admitted with suspected rheumatic fever. Which assessment findings confirm this diagnosis? a- Erythema marginatum, sub-Q nodule & fever b- tachycardia, finger clubbing, loud S2 sound c- dyspnea, cough, palpitations d- dyspnes, fatigue & syncope

Answer 26

a- Erythema marginatum, sub-Q nodule & fever

Question 27

``` A client is receiving spironolactone to treat HTN. Which of the following instruction should the nurse provide? a- eat foods high in potassium b- take daily potassium supplements c- discontinue sodium restrictions d- avoid salt substitutes ```

Answer 27

d- avoid salt substitutes | spironolactone is potassium sparing diuretic, salt substitutes are high in potassium

Question 28

``` A 7 year old client is brought to the ED. He's tachypneic & afebrile & has a respiratory rate of 36 & a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. From this Hx, the client may have which of the following conditions? a- acute asthma b- bronchial pneumonia c- COPD d- emphysema ```

Answer 28

a- acute asthma

Question 29

``` Which of the following assessment findings would help confirm a diagnosis of asthma in a client suspected of having the disorder? a- circumoral cyanosis b- increased forced expiratory volume c- inspiratory & expiratory wheezing d- normal breath sounds ```

Answer 29

c- inspiratory & expiratory wheezing

Question 30

``` Which of the following types of asthma involves and acute asthma attack brought on by an upper respiratory infection? a- emotional b- extrinsic c- intrinsic d- mediated ```

Answer 30

c- intrinsic | intrinsic asthma doesn't have an easily identifiable allergen & can be triggered by the common cold

Question 31

``` A client with acute asthma showing inspiratory & expiratory wheezes & a decreased forced expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication right away? a- beta-adrenergic blockers b- bronchodilators c- inhaled steroids d- oral steroids ```

Answer 31

b- bronchodilators

Question 32

``` Which of the following respiratory disorders is most common in the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery? a- atelectasis b- bronchitis c- pneumonia d- pneumothorax ```

Answer 32

a- atelectasis

Question 33

``` Which of the following measures can reduce or prevent the incidence of atelectasis in a postoperative client? a- chest physiotherapy b- mechanical ventilation c- reducing O2 requirements d- use of an incentive spirometer ```

Answer 33

d- use of an incentive spirometer

Question 34

``` Clients at high risk for respiratory failure include those with which of the following diagnosis? a- breast cancer b- cervical sprains c- fractured hip d- Guillain-Barre syndrome ```

Answer 34

d- Guillain-Barre syndrome | progressive neuromuscular disorder

Question 35

``` A client with shortness of breath has decreased to absent breath sounds on the right side, from the apex to the base. Which of the following conditions would best explain this? a- acute asthma b- chronic bronchitis c- pneumonia d- spontaneous pneumothorax ```

Answer 35

d- spontaneous pneumothorax (this occurs when the clien'ts lung collapses, causing an acute decrease in the amount of functional lung used in oxygenation)

Question 36

``` A client with a massive pulmonary embolism will have arterial blood gas analysis performed to determine the extent of hypoxia. The acid-base disorder that may be present is: a- metabolic-acidosis b- metabolic-alkalosis c- respiratory acidosis d- respiratory alkalosis ```

Answer 36

d- respiratory alkalosis