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162 Exam #2 > Other great questions > Flashcards

Other great questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following hormones is responsible for raising arterial pressure and promoting venous return?

A

Angiotensin II

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2
Q 
Which of the following parameters is the major determinant of diastolic blood pressure?
a-baroreceptors
b-cardiac output
c-renal function
d-vascular resistance
A

d-vascular resistance

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3
Q 
Which of the following symptoms of hepertension is most common?
a-blurred vision
b-epistaxis
c-headache
d-perpheral edema
A

c-headache

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4
Q

Which of the following statements explains whey furosemide (lasix) is administered to treat hypertension?
a- It dilates peripheral blood vessels
b- it decreases sympathetic cardioacceleration
c- it inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzyme
d- it inhibits reabsorption of sodium & water in the loop of Henle.

A

d- it inhibits reabsorption of sodium & water in the loop of Henle.

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5
Q 
The hypothalamus responds to a decrease in blood pressure by secreting which of the following substances
a- angiotensin
b- antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c- epinephrine
d- renin
A

b- antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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6
Q

Which part o the eye is examined to see arterial changes caused by hypertensions

A

retina

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7
Q

Which of the following factors usually causes deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
a-aerobic exercise
b-inactivity
c-pregnancy

A

b-inactivity

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8
Q

What is the standard heart sound?

best heart:

A

lub -dubb- lub- dubb
S1 - S2 - S1 - S2
2nd intercostal space left or right sternal border with diaphram

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9
Q

Where does an S3 sound occur?

best heart:

A

-early diastole right after S2
-S1 – S2-S3 – S1 – S2-S3
Apex w/ bell (low pitch)

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10
Q

Where does an S4 sound occur?

best heart:

A

-late diastole before S1
S4-S1 – S2 –S4-S1 – S2
Apex w/ bell (low pitch)

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11
Q

Systole is what???

A

Ventricular contraction

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12
Q

Diastole is what??

A

Ventricular relaxation

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13
Q 
Which of the following characteristics is typical of the pain associated with DVT?
a-dull ache
b-no pain
c-sudden onset
d-tingling
A

c- sudden onset

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14
Q 
Which of the following treatments can relieve pain from DVT?
a- application of heat
b- bed rest
c- exercise
d- leg elevation
A

d- leg elevation

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15
Q 
Which of the following oral medications is administered to prevent further thrombus formation?
a- warfarin (coumadin)
b- heparin
c- furosemide (lasix)
d- metoprolol (lopressor)
A

a- warfarin

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16
Q 
Which of the following positions would best aid breathing for a client with acute pulmonary edema?
a- lying flat in bed
b- left side-lying
c- in high fowler's position
d- semi-fowler's position
A

c- in high fowler’s position

17
Q 
Which of the following blood gas abnormalities is initially most suggestive of pulmonary edema?
a- anoxia
b- hypercapnia
c- hyperoxygenation
d- hypocapnia
A

d- hypocapnia

decreased CO2 levels due to hyperventilation

18
Q 
Which of the following actions is the appropriate initial response to a client coughing up pink, frothy sputum?
a- call for help
b- call the physician
c- start an I.V. line
d- suction the client
A

a- call for help

classic sign of acute pulmonary edema

19
Q 
Which of the following terms describes the force against which the ventricle must expel blood?
a- afterload
b- cardiac output
c- overload
d- preload
A

a- afterload

refers to the resistance normally maintained by the aortic and pulmonic valves

20
Q 
After recovery from an episode of acute pulmonary edema, why would an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor be administered?
a- promote diuresis
b- increase contractility
c- decrease contractility
d- reduce blood pressure
A

d- reduce blood pressure

21
Q 
Acute pulmonary edema caused by heart failure is usually a result of damage to which of the following areas of the heart?
a- left atrium
b- right atrium
c- left ventricle
d- right ventricle
A

c- left ventricle

if left ventricle is damaged, output decreases & fluid accumulates in interstitial & alveolar spaces

22
Q 
How quickly can an episode of acute pulmonary edema develop?
a- minutes
b- 1/2 hour
c- 1 hour
d- 3 hours
A

a- minutes

23
Q 
Which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of stretch on the myocardium at the end of diastole?
a- afterload
b- cardiac index
c- cardiac output
d- preload
A

d- preload

the volume of the ventricle at the end of diastole determines preload

24
Q 
Antihypertensives should be used cautiously in clients taking which of the following drugs?
a- ibuprofen
b- diphenhydramine
c- thioridazine
d- vitamins
A

c- thioridazine

thioridazine affects neurotransmitter norepinephrine which causes hypotension & other cardiovascular effects

25
Q 
One hour after administering IV furosemide to a client with heart failure, a short burst of ventricular tachycardia appears on the cardiac monitor.  Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse suspect?
a- hypocalcemia
b- hypermagnesemia
c- hypokalemia
d- hypernatremia
A

c- hypokalemia

furosemide is a potassium depleting diuretic. hypokalemia increases myocardial excitability

26
Q

An 18 year old client who recently had an upper respiratory infection is admitted with suspected rheumatic fever. Which assessment findings confirm this diagnosis?
a- Erythema marginatum, sub-Q nodule & fever
b- tachycardia, finger clubbing, loud S2 sound
c- dyspnea, cough, palpitations
d- dyspnes, fatigue & syncope

A

a- Erythema marginatum, sub-Q nodule & fever

27
Q 
A client is receiving spironolactone to treat HTN.  Which of the following instruction should the nurse provide?
a- eat foods high in potassium
b- take daily potassium supplements
c- discontinue sodium restrictions
d- avoid salt substitutes
A

d- avoid salt substitutes

spironolactone is potassium sparing diuretic, salt substitutes are high in potassium

28
Q 
A 7 year old client is brought to the ED. He's tachypneic & afebrile & has a respiratory rate of 36 & a nonproductive cough.  He recently had a cold. From this Hx, the client may have which of the following conditions?
a- acute asthma
b- bronchial pneumonia
c- COPD
d- emphysema
A

a- acute asthma

29
Q 
Which of the following assessment findings would help confirm a diagnosis of asthma in a client suspected of having the disorder?
a- circumoral cyanosis
b- increased forced expiratory volume
c- inspiratory & expiratory wheezing
d- normal breath sounds
A

c- inspiratory & expiratory wheezing

30
Q 
Which of the following types of asthma involves and acute asthma attack brought on by an upper respiratory infection?
a- emotional
b- extrinsic
c- intrinsic
d- mediated
A

c- intrinsic

intrinsic asthma doesn’t have an easily identifiable allergen & can be triggered by the common cold

31
Q 
A client with acute asthma showing inspiratory & expiratory wheezes & a decreased forced expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication right away?
a- beta-adrenergic blockers
b- bronchodilators
c- inhaled steroids
d- oral steroids
A

b- bronchodilators

32
Q 
Which of the following respiratory disorders is most common in the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery?
a- atelectasis
b- bronchitis
c- pneumonia
d- pneumothorax
A

a- atelectasis

33
Q 
Which of the following measures can reduce or prevent the incidence of atelectasis in a postoperative client?
a- chest physiotherapy
b- mechanical ventilation
c- reducing O2 requirements
d- use of an incentive spirometer
A

d- use of an incentive spirometer

34
Q 
Clients at high risk for respiratory failure include those with which of the following diagnosis?
a- breast cancer
b- cervical sprains
c- fractured hip
d- Guillain-Barre syndrome
A

d- Guillain-Barre syndrome

progressive neuromuscular disorder

35
Q 
A client with shortness of breath has decreased to absent breath sounds on the right side, from the apex to the base.  Which of the following conditions would best explain this?
a- acute asthma
b- chronic bronchitis
c- pneumonia
d- spontaneous pneumothorax
A

d- spontaneous pneumothorax
(this occurs when the clien’ts lung collapses, causing an acute decrease in the amount of functional lung used in oxygenation)

36
Q 
A client with a massive pulmonary embolism will have arterial blood gas analysis performed to determine the extent of hypoxia.  The acid-base disorder that may be present is: 
a- metabolic-acidosis
b- metabolic-alkalosis
c- respiratory acidosis
d- respiratory alkalosis
A

d- respiratory alkalosis

162 Exam #2 (8 decks)

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