Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm > Other antimicrobialss > Flashcards

Other antimicrobialss Flashcards

1
Q

iodoquinolMOA

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atovaquone contraindications

A

pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bithionol MOA

A

uncouples ox-phos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Amphotericin B MOA

A

ergosterol-creates pores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Praziquantel MOA

A

increase permeability to Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pentamidine MOA

A

inhibit DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sulfadoxine MOA

A

PABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

echinocandins MOA

A

beta (1,3)-D-glucan–cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

bactrim use

A 
pneumocystis pnuemonia (DOC)
prophylaxis against P. jirovecii in AIDS pts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

schistosomes DOC

A

Praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What antifungal has good CNS penetration?

A

flucytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

albendazole/mebendazole MOA

A

binds to tubulin–inhibits polymerazation and uptake of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

chloroquine MOA

A

interfere w/ lysosomal degradation of Hgb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

other than TB, what can be treated with Rifampin?

A

Leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ivermectin MOA

A

paralyzes–intensifies GABA-mediated transmission of signals in peripheral nn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

most common malaria species

A

P. vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ethambutol MOA

A

inhibits arabinosyl transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

dapsone MOA

A

PABA antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

e. hystolytica DOC

A

metronidazole+luminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pyrazinamide MOA

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is used to treat mycobacterium avium complex

A
  1. Clarithromycin or azithromycin
  2. Ethambutol
  3. Rifabutin or Rifampin or cipro
    * R to clarithromycin–IV amikacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>echinocandins spectrum</p>

A

invasive aspergillus in refractory pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

pyrantel/pamoate MOA

A

cholinesterase inhibitor–depolarizing NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pyrazinamide adverse effects

A

hepatic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what drugs can be used for latent TB?

A

monotherapy:RifampinIsonazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

contraindications for chloraquine

A

psoriasis

porphyria (hematological)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

dapsone adverse effects

A

nasal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

DOC for crytpococcus

A

flucytosine w/ amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

adverse effects of amphotericin B

A

immediate: chills, feverover time: nephrotoxicity (irreversible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

side effects of griseofulvin

A

HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what anti-protozoal has CNS penetration?

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mefloquine MOA

A

<p>unknown</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is thalidomide used for?

A

moderate-severe erythema nodosum leprosum*teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Rifampin MOA

A

inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

contraindications for griseofulvin

A

acute porphyria
hepatocellular failure
pregnancy/men w/in 6 mos of fathering child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

azoles MOA

A

inhibits synthesis of ergosterol–inhibit growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Isoniazid MOA

A

inhibits synthesis of mycotic acid–requires KatG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

contraindications for emetine+dehydroemetine

A

renal insufficiency
cardiac problems
pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

bactrim MOA

A

folate metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Artemisinins MOA

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

tetracycline/erythromycin MOA

A

inhibit food source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

onychomycosis DOC

A

griseolfulvin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

echinocandins

A

caspofungin
micafungin
anidulafungin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

g. lamblia DOC

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

pneumocystis pneumonia DOC

A

bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lumefantrine adverse effects

A

headacheQT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

nystatin spectrum

A

candida infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

treatment for leprosy with 1-5 patches

A

Rifampin + Dapsone x6 mos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

adverse effects of pentamidine

A

hypoglycemia
hypotension
arrthythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

adverse effects of Isoniazid

A 
liver damage
peripheral neuritis
drug-induced SLE
CNS stimulation
hemolysis (G6PDd)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Primaquine MOA

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

griseofulvin MOA

A

binds to microtbules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rifabutin

A

same as Rifampin but milder and not quite as effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Amphotericin B DOC

A

most systemic fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

bithional spectrum

A

flukes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

pentamidine use

A

P. jrovecii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Ethambutol adverse effects

A

decreased visual acuity

loss of green-red vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

PCNs of antifungals

A

echinocandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ivermectin spectrum

A

roundworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

pyrimethamine+sulfadiazine adverse effects

A

high dose–hematalogic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

ivermectin adverse effects

A

puritustender LNs fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

which malarial species has R against chloroquine? and how/

A

R. falciparum

transport pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Iodoquinol use

A

e. hystolitical–intestinal

asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

t. vaginalis DOC

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Flucytosine MOA

A

metabolic antagonism of fungal DNA/RNA– converted to 5FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Primaquine contraindications

A

SLE, RA-granulocytopenia

pregnancy, <6 mos, breast feeding- fetal hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

paromycin MOA

A

aminoglycoside–30S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

adverse effects of emetine+dehydroemetine

A

cardiotoxicity
GI
teratogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

iodoquinol adverse effects

A

iodine-induced thyroid enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

malaria species with secondary tissue formation

A

P. vivaxP. ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Proguanil and Pyrimethamine MOA

A

inhibit DHFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what drug has to be administered with folinic acid? and what is it called?

A

pyrimethamine+sulfadiazineleucovorin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

toxoplasmosis DOC

A

pyrimethamine+sulfadiazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Atovaquone MOA

A

mitochondrial ETC, ATP synthesis, pyrimidine synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

paromycin use

A

luminal–with metronidazole
asymptomatic
giardiasis, t. vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Lumefantrine MOA

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

adverse effects albendazole/mebendazole

A

+/- embryonic/teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

mefloquine adverse effects

A

seziures, psychoses, vivid dreams

cardiotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

albendazole/mebendazole spectrum

A

broad-roundworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What drug can stimulate insulin release?

A

quinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

adverse effects of flucytosine

A

depression of bone marrow
GI
increased ALT/AST (reversible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Rifampin adverse effects

A

potent inducer of P450s
decreased BC efficacy
*orange secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

emetine+dehydroemetine use

A

alternative to metronidazole for severe intestinal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

nystatin

A

polyene antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

adverse effects of metronidazole

A

metallic taste

disulfiram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

DOC for malaria

A

chloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Pyrimethamine+Sulfadiazine MOA

A

folate metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Mefloquine contraindications

A

pregnancy

epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

primaquine adverse effects

A

GI
HA
caution- G6PDd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

most lethal malaria species

A

P. falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

“Beaver Fever”

A

giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

tetracycline/erythromycin use

A

alternatives for amebiasis/giardiasis with metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

drug that binds to keratin to prevent infection in new skin

A

griseofulvin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

adverse effects of chloroquine

A

retinal/corneal toxicity
hemolysis (G6PDd)
QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Tuberculosis DsOC

A

Rifampin
Isoniazid
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide

96
Q

tinidazole

A

similar to metronidazole

97
Q

Quinine and quinidine gluconate adverse effects

A

cinchonism
QT elongation
diarrhea
hemolysis (G6PDd)

98
Q

herpes DOC

A

acyclovir

99
Q

VZV DOC

A

acyclovir

100
Q

acyclovir MOA

A

guanosine analogue

101
Q

adverse effects of acyclovir

A

nephrotoxic w/ high IV doses (hydration!)

102
Q

resistance to acyclovir

A

decreased viral thymidine kinase

103
Q

Docosanol MOA

A

inhibits viral fusion

104
Q

ganciclovir MOA

A

guanosine analogue

105
Q

CMV DOC

A

ganciclovir

106
Q

adverse effects of ganciclovir

A

CNS effects

107
Q

contraindications for ganciclovir

A

pregnancy

108
Q

foscarnet MOA

A

directly inhibits DNA and RNA polymerase

109
Q

CMV encephalitis DOC

A

foscarnet+ganciclovir

110
Q

adverse effects of foscarnet

A

nephrotoxicity (hydration!)

111
Q

cidofovir MOA

A

cytosine analogue

112
Q

cidofovir uses

A

alternatives: CMV retinitis, HSV

113
Q

neuroamidase inhibitors

A

oseltamivirzanamivir

114
Q

oseltamivir and zanamivir MOA

A

neuroamidase inhibitors- block release of virus

115
Q

influenza DOC

A

neuroamidase inhibitors

116
Q

ages for neuroamidase inhibitors

A

T:>1 yo
Z: >7 yo

117
Q

contraindications for zanamivir

A

respiratory disease

118
Q

ribavirin MOA

A

guanosine analogue

119
Q

RSV DOC

A

ribavirin

120
Q

ribavirin use

A

RSVHCV w/ interferon

121
Q

adverse effects of ribavirin

A

oral dose-dependent: hemolytic anemia
aerosol: respiratory depression, cardiac arrest
IV: psychiatric (off market)
TERATOGENIC

122
Q

tenofovir MOA

A

adenine analogue

123
Q

entecavir MOA

A

guanosine analogue

124
Q

lamivudine

A

cytosine analogue

125
Q

HBV DOC

A

tenofovir

126
Q

harvoni MOA

A

inhibits viral NS5B RNA polymerase

127
Q

HCV DOC

A

Harvoni

128
Q

what is the one non-oral HIV drug?

A

enfuvirtide- SUBQ

129
Q

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A 
zidovudine
emtricitabine
tenofovir
lamivudine
abacavir
130
Q

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors MOA

A

nucleoside analogues

131
Q

zidovudine MOA

A

t analogue

132
Q

emtricitabine MOA

A

a analogue

133
Q

lamivudine MOA

A

c analogue

134
Q

abacavir MOA

A

g analogue

135
Q

1st choice NRTI combo

A

emtricitabine and tenofovir

136
Q

alternate NRTI combo

A

lamivudine and abacavir

137
Q

which NRTIs can be used during pregnancy?

A

zidovudine

lamivudine

138
Q

adverse effects of zidovudine

A

CNS

myelosuppression

139
Q

what can we use to treat myelosuppression from antiretrovirals?

A

RBC: epogen
WBC: neupogen

140
Q

which NRTI has CNS penetration?

A

zidovudine

141
Q

what are the two adverse effects associated with NRTIs?

A

lactic acidosis

hepatotoxicity

142
Q

adverse effects of emtricitabine/tenofovir

A

flatulence

143
Q

which NRTI has high rates of hypersensitivty rxns?

A

abacavir

144
Q

NNRTIs

A

efavirenz

rilpivirine

145
Q

NNRTI DOC

A

efavirenz (+NRTI)

146
Q

which NNRTI can be used during pregnancy?

A

rilpivirine

147
Q

adverse effects of efavirenz

A

drug interactions (BC)
dizzy, drowsy, HA, insomnia
teratogenic

148
Q

rilpivirine adverse effects

A

depression
increased cholesterol
HA

149
Q

contraindications for rilpivirine

A

hepatitis

150
Q

protease inhibitors

A 
darunavir
atazanavir
ritonavir
saquinavir
lopinavir/rionavir
indinavir
tipranavir
151
Q

PI DOC

A

darunavir

152
Q

PI 2nd DOC

A

atazanavir

153
Q

which PI is used as a booster?

A

ritonivir

154
Q

adverse effects of PIs

A

body fat distribution issues
insulin resistance
increased serum cholestero
lbleeding in hemophilia A/B

155
Q

what should be avoided when taking a PI?

A

St. John’s Wort

156
Q

which PIs have cross-sensitivity to sulfonamides?

A

darunavir tipranavir

157
Q

which PI has least effect on body fat?

A

atazanivir

158
Q

adverse effects of atazanivir

A

increased bilirubin
diarrhea
rash
nausea

159
Q

adverse effects of ritonavir

A

GI

160
Q

what should never be given with ritonovir?

A

saquinavir- QT

anything w/ disulfirim rxn (contains ethanol)

161
Q

adverse effects of saquinavir

A

QT prolongation

162
Q

tipranavir use

A

tx experienced

163
Q

indinavir adverse effects

A

nephrolithiasis

hyperbilirubinemia (hydration!)

164
Q

what two PIs share cross-R?

A

ritonavirindinavir

165
Q

adverse effects of tipranavir

A

intracranial hemorrhage w/ ritonavirliver toxicity

166
Q

contraindications for tipranavir

A

sulfa allergyhead trauma

167
Q

fusion inhibitors

A

enfuvirtidemaraviroc

168
Q

enfuvirtide MOA

A

binds to gp41

169
Q

maraviroc MOA

A

binds to CCR5 receptor

170
Q

enfuviritide use

A

tx experienced

171
Q

maravoric use

A

tx experienced

ONLY with CCR5 HIV infections

172
Q

adverse effects of enfuviritide

A

increased chance of bacterial pneumonia

173
Q

dolutegravir MOA

A

integrase inhibitor

174
Q

dolutegravir use

A

DOC w/ NRTIs tx resistant

175
Q

DNA alkylators

A 
cyclophosphamide
mechlorethamine
carmustine
cisplatin
doxorubicin
176
Q

<p>cycylophosphamide adverse effects</p>

A

forms acrolein–hemorrhagic cysts

MUST also give MESNA/hydration

177
Q

adverse efects of prednisone

A

short: HTN, edema, hyperglycemia
long: weight gain, Cushing’s, osteopenia

178
Q

T-cell suppressants

A

cyclosporine
tacrolimus
sirolimus

179
Q

cyclosporine/tacrolimus MOA

A

selective inhibitio of T lymphocytes

180
Q

DOC to prevent rejection

A

tacrolimus

181
Q

adverse effects of cyclosporine

A 
drug interactions
renal toxicity
gingival hyperplasia
HTN
CNS
182
Q

what immunosuppresant class has no bone marrow suppression?

A

t-cell suppressants

183
Q

tacrolimus adverse effects

A

renal
HTN
hyperglycemia

184
Q

sirolimus MOA

A

binds to mTOR–t cell cycle arrest and B cell differentiation

185
Q

sirolimus adverse effects

A

increased cholesterol/triglycerides

186
Q

what is special abour sirolimus?

A

no renal toxicity–kidney transplant

187
Q

mycophenolate MOA

A

inhibits de novo purine synthesis–T and B

188
Q

cytotoxic suppressants

A

azathioprine
methotrexate
cyclophosphamide

189
Q

azathioprine MOA

A

inhibits purine synthesis–induce apoptosis of t and b

190
Q

adverse effects of azathioprine and methotrexate

A

bone marrow suppression

teratogenic

191
Q

cyclophosphomide MOA

A

cross links DNA-inactivation

192
Q

cyclophosphamide adverse effects

A

hemorrhagic cystitis- give MESNA

infertility

193
Q

basiliximab MOA

A

IL-2 receptor

194
Q

basiliximab use

A

induction of immunosuppression

195
Q

what drugs are used to treat psoriasis and RA?

A

abatacept
adalimumab
etanercept

196
Q

abatecept MOA

A

mimics CTLA4–competes with CD38 for CD80

197
Q

adalimumab/etanercept MOA

A

neutralizes biologic effect of TNF-alpha

198
Q

adverse effects of drugs for psoriasis/RA

A

infections

HA

199
Q

neupogen MOA

A

human recombinant G-CSF

200
Q

epogen MOA

A

recombinant EPO

201
Q

adverse effects of neupogen

A

bone pain

202
Q

adverse effects of epogen

A

HTN

increased risk for CVA/MI

203
Q

mechlorethamine MOA

A

alkylate DNA

204
Q

mechlorethamine adverse effects

A

renal

hyperuricemia (use allopurinol)

205
Q

carmustine MOA

A

alkylate DNA

206
Q

carmustine advantage

A

crosses BBB

207
Q

adverse effects of cisplatin

A

renal

acoustic n damage

208
Q

what is also given with cisplatin? why?

A

Amifostine

to reduce renal toxicity

209
Q

doxorubicin adverse effects

A

cardiotoxicity (increased with iron)

210
Q

what is given with doxorubicin? why?

A

dexrazoxane-chelate iron

211
Q

methotrexate adverse effects

A

mucositis

thrombocytopenia

212
Q

what drugs must be given with leucovorin?

A

methotrexate

6-mercaptopurine

213
Q

which drug must be given with leucovorin at the same time?

A

5-FU

214
Q

adverse effects of 6-mercaptopurine

A

bone marrow suppression
jaundice
heme crisis when given allopurinol

215
Q

adverse effects of 5-FU

A

oral/GI ulceration

216
Q

what are the antimetabolites of S phase?

A

methotrexate
6-mp
5-fu

217
Q

6-MP MOA

A

antimetabolite converted by HGPRT

218
Q

5-FU MOA

A

inhibits thymidylate synthase

219
Q

paclitaxel MOA

A

binds B-tubulin–inhibit depolymerization

220
Q

what are the mitosis inhibitors?

A

paclitaxel
vincristine
vinblastine

221
Q

MOA of vin- cristine/blastine

A

bind to tubulin–inhibit polymerization

222
Q

adverse effects of paclitaxel

A

myelosuppression

anemia

223
Q

adverse effects of vincristine

A

neurotoxic

224
Q

adverse effects of vinblastine

A

myelosuppression

225
Q

bleomycin MOA

A

G2-M phase–directly binds to DNA

226
Q

adverse effects of bleomycin

A

hypersensitivity

pulm fibrosis

227
Q

what is special about bleomycin?

A

low myelosuppression

228
Q

imatinib use

A

Bcr-abl

229
Q

adverse effects of imatinib

A

edema

230
Q

cetuximab MOA

A

Ab that binds EGFR

231
Q

adverse effects of cetuximab

A

acneiform rash

hypomagnesemia

232
Q

erlotinib MOA

A

blocks EGFR kinase activity

233
Q

erlotinib adverse effects

A

rash
diarrhea
anorexia

234
Q

bevacizumab MOA

A

binds VEGF–prevents binding to VEGFR

235
Q

adverse effects of bevacizumab

A

bleeding

thromboembolism

236
Q

what ar the toxicities for all cancer drugs?

A 
bone marrow--hemorrhage/infection
GI tract
hair
renal
reproduction/teratogenesis

Pharm (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions