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osmosis review Flashcards

1
Q

what are some causal organisms for travelers diarrhea

A

this is a stomach and intestinal infection that is caused by bacterial infection in 90% of cases. most commonly E coli, salmonella, campylobacter jejuni and shigella.

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2
Q

what is the prophylaxis for travelers diarrhea

A

fluoroquinolones such as ciprofaloxacin

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3
Q

what is the treatment for travelers

A

rehydration therapy

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4
Q

what is brucellosis infection

A

this is due to exposure to animals or contaminated food products. this is a zoonotic infection. has a wide spectrum of illness

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5
Q

what is the presentation of brucellosis

A

violaceous papulonodular lesions and erythema nodosum. usually someone in contact with animals, such as a veterinarian.. fever, nightsweats, arthralgias, fatigue, weakness, and weight loss.

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6
Q

what is the treatment ofor brucellosis

A

doxycycline and rifampin

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7
Q

5 fluorouracil treatment is and does what

A

this is for the treatment of actinic keratoses and causes ulceration, crusting, hypopigmentation in areas that its applied.

it works by inihibiting the synthesis of DNA

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8
Q

what are actinic keratoces

A

precancerous lesions tht have the potential to evolve into squamous cell carcinoma. they commonly result from sun exposure.

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9
Q

what is the presentation of bacterial vaginosis

A

thin grey white discharge with a fishy odor. clue cells on wet mount and a positive wiff test and an increase in vaginal pH (>4.5) fishy odor with the addition of KOH on the prep

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10
Q

what is the causal oragnism for bacterial vaginosis and the treatment

A

gardinella vaginosis

treatment is metronidazole

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11
Q

what is HELLP syndrome

A

preeclampsia with thrombotic microangiopathy involving the liver. this is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count.

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12
Q

what is the treatment for HELLP

A

immediate induction of labor

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13
Q

what is chancroid

A

this is similar to syphillus but with a painful ulcer and a swollen inguinal lymph node. caused by hemophilus ducreyi

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14
Q

what is nasopharyngeal carcinoma presentation and the causal organism

A

epstein barr.
blurry vision, diffiulty speaking, hoarseness, persistent ear infections, face pain or numbness, headache, hearing loss, ringing in the ears, feeling of fullness in the ears, lump in the neck or the nose, and sore throat.

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15
Q

torre muir syndrome

A

type of HNPCC characterized by subaceous adenomas

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16
Q

what is the presentation for liver angiosarcoma

A

rare malignant vascular neoplasm. this is the most common cause of liver angiosarcoma is prolonged exposure to vinyl chloride monomers such as weatherstipping and plastic pipes.

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17
Q

what is the treatment for bacterial meninigitis in a person older than 50

A

vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and ampicillin.

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18
Q

what is the treatment for a younger person with bacterial meningitis

A

dexamethasone, ceftriaxone and vancomycin .

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19
Q

what is pneumoperitoneum

A

can be caused by a perforated abdominal ulcer presents with nausea, vomiting, bloating, early satierty, anemia, and a positive urease breath test.

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20
Q

what does a urease breath test indicate

A

H pylori infection

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21
Q

what is the presentation of hypervitaminosis A

A

dry skin, blurry vision, headache, fatigue, alopecia, and increased cerebral spinal fluid pressure

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22
Q

what is relapsing fever

A

vector borne disease caused by borrelia recurrentis and transmitted by ticks or lice. chracteristic pattern of intermittent fevers.

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23
Q

what is the treatment for relapsing fever

A

doxycycline or tetracycline

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24
Q

what is the mechanism of action for amiodarone and what can it cause

A

potassium channel blocker

can cause sensitivity to UV light

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25
Q

should you performed a vaginal exam on someone suspected placenta previa

A

No, this could worsen the vaginal bleeding associated with it.

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26
Q

what is the presentation of placental abruption

A

painful vaginal bleeding during pregnancy

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27
Q

what is the general presentation of placenta praevia

A

painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy

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28
Q

what is the most significant risk factor for adenomacarcinoma of the pancreas

A

smoking

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29
Q

what is the presentation for pancreatic cancer

A

jaundice with a nontender palpable gallbladder

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30
Q

what is courvoisier sign

A

nontender palpable gallbladder

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31
Q

what is vascular access steal syndrome

A

occurs in patients with arteriovenous fistula for dialysis resulting in ischemia pallor, diminished peripheral pulses, neuropathy, infarction and ulceraions

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32
Q

what is the most important initial management for a patient with acute pancreatitis

A

IV fluids

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33
Q

what heart condition is associated with borrelia lyme infection

A

third degree heart block.

this is lyme carditis

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34
Q

what is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

adrenal adenoma

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35
Q

what is the presentation of adrenal adenoma

A

hypertension with high alderosterone and low renin, increased H+ and K+ secretion. this may also cause hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and alkalosis.

36
Q

Thoracic endometriosis syndrome

A

implantation of endometrial tissue on the parietal and visceral pleura and causes perimenstrual chest pain, SOB, hemoptysis. 90% of cases happen in the right hemithorax.

37
Q

tinea vesicolor infection

A

hypopigmented macules caused by malassezia furfur

38
Q

what is the treatment for tinea vesicolor

A

selenium sulfide, topical terbinafine or ketoconzole. or any oral -azole

39
Q

pemphigoid gestationis

A

rare autoimmune condition caused by IgG to BP-AG2 a component of the hemidesmosome

causes a pruritic plaques, papulees or veiscles on the abdomen. and it usually occurs in the third trimester.

40
Q

what are the most common organisms to cause necrotizing faciitis

A

strep pyogenes, clostridium perfringens, ans staph aureus

41
Q

what is the presentation of necrotizing fascitis

A

infection that results in the death of soft tissue. this is sudden onset and red or purple skin in the affected area. severe pain, fever, leukocytosis, vomiting

42
Q

peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

heart failure that occurs at the end of pregnancy and is managed like other people with systolic dysfunction.

43
Q

does biliary colic present with lab or physical exam findings

A

there are usually not any findings. just episodic pain, fever, nausea and vomiting after meals.

44
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of right heart failure

A

progressive dyspnea, heptojugular reflux, pulsus paradoxsus, and ventricular gallop

45
Q

what does the histology of chronic gastritis secondary to h pylori looj lik e

A

partial replacement of the gastric mucosa with intestinal metaplasia

46
Q

what is H pylori

A

gram negative rod

47
Q

what is the treatment for bacterial meningitis (meningiococcal meningidis

A

ceftriaxone

48
Q

what antibiotic do you give to people that have been exposed to meningiococcal meninigits

A

rifampin

49
Q

what deficiencies can mimic fibromyalgia

A

hypothyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, magnesium deficiency and vitamin B12 deficiency

50
Q

how does scabies of the groin present

A

as an intensely itching rash of the groin. red marks. presents similar to crabs, as an STD

51
Q

what is the treatment for scabies of the groin

A

permethrin cream

52
Q

what is cryptococcus neoformins

A

this is an encapsulated yeast with a narrow based budding that grows on sabouraud agar and is responsible for causing fungal meningitis in immunocompromised patients

53
Q

pemphigoid gestationis is also called what

A

herpes gestationis. this is a blistering rash on a erythematous base that is widespread.

54
Q

what is the treatment for actinomyces

A

penicillin G

if allergic then use erythromycin, tetracycline, clindamycin

55
Q

what is the presentation of fanconi anemia

A

pancytopenia, higher incidence of malignancy, cafe au lait, thumb or radial anomalies, anal atresia, congenital heart disease, esophageal atresia. anemia is typically macrocytic

56
Q

what is the most common malignancy in fanconi anemia

A

acute myeloid leukemia

57
Q

what type of birth control is contraindicated in women that are predisposed to hypercoagulability

A

anything that contains estrogen.

the patch

58
Q

what is the difference between a incarcerated and strangulated hernia

A

incarcerated is a hernia that cannot be reduced.

strangulated has blood supply cut off.

59
Q

what is the difference between an inguinal and femoral hernia

A

inguinal typically involves the scrotal sac.

60
Q

what is the tall tell sign of a hydrocele

A

transilluminating mass in the testicle

61
Q

what is the presentation of trichomonas vaginalis

A

strawberry cervix ith motile flagellated organisms. vaginal discharged that is malodorous.

62
Q

what is the treatment for trichomonas

A

metronidazole

63
Q

what is the standard treatment for cellulitis

A

cephalexin

64
Q

what are the labs for anemia of chronic disease

A

decreased serum iron and total iron binding capacity with increased ferritin

65
Q

what is the most common cause of epididymitis over the age of 35

A

E coli

66
Q

what is the presentation of epidimitis

A

testicular pain, swelling, dysuria, frequency, and or urgency. positive prehn sign, normal testicular lie and cremasteric reflex

67
Q

what is prehn sign

A

reduction of the pain with lifting of the testicular.

68
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

presents as groups of pruritic, tense, fluid-filled bullae that arise from normal or inflamed skin, often following several weeks or months of a non-specific rash.

69
Q

what is the treatment for chlamydia or gonorrhea

A

both are covered by an empiric treatment with a single dose of IM ceftraixone and 1g of oral azitrhromyicn

70
Q

what is the pathophysioplogy of drug-induced pemphigus vulgaris

A

suprabasal acantholysis

this is caused by desmoglein antibodies

71
Q

what is the most common symptom of pregnancy

A

itching. this is typically caused by intrahepatic cholestatis of pregnancy. this is caused by elevated serum bile acids

72
Q

T Cruzi causes what and how does it present

A

chagas disease. causes achalasia

73
Q

what can reduce the risk of postpartum bleeding in C section

A

prophylactic antibiotic treatment

74
Q

how do you treat late stage lyme

A

ceftrioaxone

75
Q

what is the presentation of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

A

rapid onset hematuria, =HTN, proteinuria, red cell casts. biopsy shows hypercellularity with crescent formation innate least 50% of the glomeruli

76
Q

what is the presentation of lichen sclerosis

A

widespread involving both sides of the vulva. skin is white and thin. sometimes called cigarette paper or parchment. tends top affect postmenopausal

77
Q

what is the presentation of lichen planus

A

white and lacy with red lesions. itching burning and dysparunia copious vaginal discharge.

78
Q

what should you think if you see a pregnant woman with acute hepatitis after traveling to an endemic area? and what is the outcome

A

think hepatitis A/E infection.

pregnant women are at increased risk for fulminant hepatitis

79
Q

what are the mainstays of treatment for endometriosis

A

NSAIDs, OCP, and surgery.

in women that want pregnancy conservative surgery is the answer, since this is hindering their ability

80
Q

what are the treatments for nephrogenic diabetes insidious

A

NSAIDs, thiazides, amiloride

81
Q

what is the treatment for lithium induced NDI

A

amiloride as it blocks lithium entry into the sodium channel

82
Q

what is the iron binding study for iron def anemia (TIBC, Ferritin, Iron, transferrin sat, MCV)

A 
TIBC increased
ferritin decreased 
iron decreased
MCV decreased 
sat decreased
83
Q

what is the iron binding study for thalassemia (TIBC, Ferritin, Iron, transferrin sat, MCV)

A 
TIBC decreased
ferritin increased 
iron increased
MCV really decreased 
sat really increased
84
Q

what is the iron binding study for anemia of chronic disease (TIBC, Ferritin, Iron, transferrin sat, MCV)

A 
TIBC decreased
ferritin normal/increased 
iron decreased
MCV normal/decreased 
sat normal/decreased
85
Q

what are the sulfa drugs

A 
Popular FACTSSS
probenecid
furosemide
acetazolamide
celecoxib
thiazides
sulfonamide antibiotics 
sulfasalazine 
sulfonureas
86
Q

the presentation of mycosis fungoides

A

long term rash that begins indolently and then spreads forming plaque like lesions that ulcerate

87
Q

what is the treatment for larvae cutaneous migrans

A

thiabendazole or ivermectin or albendazole

Medicine (14 decks)

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