osmosis review Flashcards
what is erythrasma
usually presents as sharply demarcated erythematous plaques or brown scaly patches of skin that is more common in people that are obese and have diabetes. itchy and uncomfortable.
what is the causal organism for erythrasma
corynebacterium minutissimum
gram positive bacillus
what is the treatment for erythrasma
topical benzoyl peroxide, oral erythromycin and topical clindamycin
what is a confirmational test for erythrasma
woods lamp shows distinct coral red appearance
what is lipodermatosclerosis
inflammatory condition of the subcutaneous tissue associated with chronic venous insufficiency and obesity. i
how does lipodermatosclerosis
thickening of the skin, scaling, redness, pain and bowling pin shape to the lower leg. the fibrosing region is inflexible and allows the edema to pool in the feet and above the ankle
what is the most common cause of epididymitis in sexually active patients under the age 35.
chlamydia or gonorrhea
what is the treatment for epididymitis
ceftriaxone and doxycycline
what disorders does arsenic exposure cause
squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, angiosarcoma of the liver and lung cancer
what is the treatment for non-hodgkins lymphoma
CHOP therapy cyclophosphamide hydroxydaunorubicin oncovin (vincristine) prednisone rituximab is added for b cell origin
what is the therapy for Hodgkins lymphoma
(A)driamycin (also known as doxorubicin/(H)ydroxydaunorubicin, designated as H in CHOP)
(B)neomycin
(V)inblastine
(D)acarbazine (similar to (P)rocarbazine, designated as P in MOPP and in COPP)
what is pontiac fever
legionellosis that resembles influenza and it often goes unreported and clears spontaneously
what is legionella pneuophilla
causal organism for legionaires and pontiac and this is a gram negative bacterium
what is borrelia lymphocytoma
bluish-red nodular swelling in the context of disseminated lyme disease (dizziness, joint pain, palpitations
what is the first line treatment for lyme in adults and children
doxycycline and amoxicillin
what is the most common cause of death in marfan syndrome
aortic dissection
what causes urge incontinence
detrusor muscle overactivity
what is the treatment for urge incontinence
nonpharmacologic methods such as lifestyle modification (fluid restriction, avoidance of caffeine), bladder retraining, and pelvic floor muscle (PFM) exercise.
what SSRI is safe for breastfeeding
paroxetine
Which inflammatory bowel disease is associated with noncasseating granuloma
crohns
Which inflammatory bowel disease is associated with ankylosing spondylitis
ulcerative colitis
what are the causes of acute pancreatitis
I GET SMASHED idiopathic gallstones ethanol trauma steroids mumps viral infection autoimmune scorpion sting hypertriglyceridemia ERCP trauma drugs --sulfa drugs or reverse transcriptase inhibitors
what is telogen effluvium
when the body undergoes a sudden shock such as pregnancy or childbirth it can cause noticable but temoory hair loss
what is the first line treatment for psoriasis
topical steroids
what is the second line therapy for psoriasis
UVB light therapy
what is the third line therapry for psoriasis
PUVA or psoralen and ultraviolet light
what is the most common cause of PID
chlamydia 5:1 to gonorrhea
what is the PID that causes perihepatic adhesions
fitz-hugh-curtis
what is the most life threatening consequence of toxic epidermal necrosis
sepsis.
although dehydration is also an important cause of mortality
what is the most important lab to monitor in a burn patient for administration of fluids
urine output
what is the cause of endogenous cushings
elevated cortisol due to increased stimulation of the adrenals by the pituitary stalk secreting ACTH.
what test works for diagnosing exogenous cushings
dexamethasone suppression test
what is fanconi syndrome
proximal convoluted tubules dysfunction leading to loss of phosphate and potassium causing polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration
what is hyper-IgE syndrome of Job syndrome
inherited syndrome that causes immunodeficiency. presents with atopic dermatitis, coarse facies, staph abscesses, increased IgE and retained primary teeth.
what must be done in boorehave’s syndrome
first figuring it out that it is, then CT scan, then surgery. CT is important for aiding the disangosis and planning the intervention
what is the best way to reverse warfarin
immediate reversal of the warfarin effect can be accomplished by IV delivery of factors II, VII, IX and X
or prothrombin complex concentrates
what is the treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum
IV saline with thiamine and potassium
what is typically elevated in choriocarcinoma and can males have this?
rare form of testicular cancer, but yes males can have this. BhCG
what is elevated in yolk sac tumor and can males have this
yes, very rare form of testicular cancer. usually elevated AFP
what is elevated in seminoma
usually no markers are elevated
what is epidymititis-orchitis
This when trauma causes the testicle to swell rapidly and the scrotum becomes enlarged, tender and red. it can be very painful.
what is autoimmune thyroiditis
this is hashimotos and is the most common cause of hypothyroidism. commonly presents with antibodies to thyroglobulin or thyroid peroxidase. histology shows hurtle cells with lymphoid germinal centers
Vibrio vulnificus
a gram-negative rod bacteria present in marine environments. Infection may occur either via ingestion, typically from raw or undercooked shellfish, or by infecting open wounds with the bacteria through contact with contaminated water. The ability to cause wound infections distinguishes Vibrio vulnificus from Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
what is the most specific test for autoimmune hepatitis
Anti-smooth muscle antibody is most specific test for autoimmune hepatitis.
what is a Pyogenic granulomas
benign polypoid capillary hemangiomas that can ulcerate and bleed. They are associated with trauma as well as hormonal changes during pregnancy
what is gauchers disease
result of mutations in the gene encoding the protein for glucocerebrosidase, causing an accumulation of glucocerebrosides, and ultimately leading to pancytopenia, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and, classically, the “Erlenmeyer flask” sign on long bone radiographs
what is the proper management for a person that had a TIA
these people are at high risk for a stroke. they need a stroke work up. look at carotids and MRI. anti platelets also necessary
what does high does of allopurinol do?
put patients at a greater risk for developing serious cutaneous drug reactions, including Steven-Johnson Syndrome (SJS), Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN) and Drug-induced hypersensitivity (DIHS).
what is the most important thing for diagnosing alcoholic liver disease
AST/ALT>2, elevated gamma-glutamyl and juandice
what is Neutropenic enterocolitis
a life-threatening condition that involves transmural inflammation of the cecum. It is also known as ileocecal syndrome or typhlitis. It occurs in patients who are myelosuppressed, most commonly due to cytotoxic chemotherapy. The immediate management should be the same as any suspected bowel obstruction with bowel rest, nasogastric tube insertion, and IV fluids.
what causes elephantitis
Wuchereria bancrofti is a form of filariasis. owing to lymphatic obstruction in the presence of an inflammatory reaction to the adult filarial worms. It is spread by the bite of a mosquito
The prognosis for melanoma is most strongly correlated with
he depth of invasion, Breslow thickness, at the time of discovery.
what is the treatment and course for bacterial vaginosis
Treatment is with a 7 day course of oral metronidazole
what is the PRSS-1 gene
gene implicated in hereditary chronic pancreatitis
what is CADASIL
Cerebral Autosomal Dominant Arteriopathy with Subcortical Infarcts and Leukoencephalopathy (CADASIL) is an autosomal dominant leukodystrophy. It is characterized by migraine with aura, subcortical ischaemic events on MRI, dementia, mood disturbances, and ataxic hemiparesis as a result of ischaemic strokes.
How does HIV-ASssociated neurocognitive disorder present
pectrum of disorders encompassing HIV-associated dementia and encephalopathy. MRI shows symmetric, periventricular hyperintensity.
how does progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy present
Histopathology shows a diagnostic triad of demyelination, abnormal astrocytes, and enlarged, infected oligodendrocytes. neurological deficits such as altered mental status, motor impairment, ataxia, and visual disturbances. Lesions are non-enhancing, asymmetrical, and preferentially located in the periventricular and subcortical white matter areas
how is PML diagnosed
brain biopsy
Branchial cleft cysts
are congenital anomalies due a persistent cervical sinus during development. The 2nd cleft is most common and most likely presents as a lateral neck mass anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. hey often swell after an infection and may become infected and swell.
what is the triad of diabetes, liver failure, and pseudogout
this is hereditary hemachromatosis
what is the prophylaxis for neutropenic fever
antipseudomonals (cefepime, zosyn (piperacillin/tazobactem) and meropenem)
what is the first imaging study for erythema nodosum and why
CXR because the two most common causes are sarcoidosis and TB
what is type I cryoglobninemia
lymphoproliferative or hematologic; typically asymptomatic, hypervicosity with thrombosis, can present with livedo reticularis and Purpura. COMPLEMENT NORMAL
type II/III cryoglobinemia
associated with HCV.HIV SLE, causes arthralgia, fatigue, HTN, glomerulonephritis, dyspnea, pleurisy, palpable Purpura. LOW COMPLEMENT C4
what pneumonia is associated with COPD
Hemophilus influenza
what pneumonia is associated with alcoholism/diabetes
klebsiella
what pneumonia is associated with poor dentition and aspiration
anaerobes
what pneumonia is associated with young and healthy patients
mycoplasma
what pneumonia is associated with hoarseness
chlamydia pneumonia
what pneumonia is associated with contaminated water, air-conditioning, ventilation systems
lengionella
what pneumonia is associated with birds
chlamydia psittaci
what pneumonia is associated with animals giving birth and farming
coxiella burnetti
what is patellofemoral pain syndrome and what usually causes it
this is weakness in the knee that is worse when sitting for long periods or climbing stairs, can feel like buckling. This is typically caused by vests medialis obliquus
what is the PSA/staging for low risk
less than 10 or T1c/T2a
when are abdominal AA treated?
when they are above 4cm they should be treated or expanding at a rate greater than 0.3 cm annually
what drugs are associated with drug-induced lupus
hydralazine, isoniazid, procainamide
what is the most specific test for drug-induced lupus
anti-histone antibodies
what does small cell lung cancer look like
tends to occur centrally in larger airways with neuroendocrine differentiation and cells resembling lymphocytes
what is cerebral autosomal dominant Arteriopathy with Subcortical Infarcts and Leukoencephalopathy
is an autosomal dominant leukodystrophy resulting in progressive degeneration of vascular smooth muscle cells. It is characterized by migraine, dementia, mood disturbances and ataxic hemiparesis due to ischaemic strokes, occuring in the absence of traditional cardiovascular risk factors.
what can exacerbate pustular psoriasis
cig smoking
which type of infections cause acute glomerulonephritis
GAS skin and pharyngeal infections
which type of infections cause acute rheumatic fever
pharyngeal infections
what is the best form of ventilation for CHF
postive pressure ventilation
what drugs should CHF patients be on?
ACEi/ARB and beta blockers.
either carvedilol, bisopropolol or sustained release metoprolol
what is gestational hypertension
BP over 140/80 after 20 weeks gestation. it is not accompanied by other signs of preeclampsia
what is the familial melanoma gene
CDKN2A
what is the purified protein test
TB test.
what can TB do in the eye?
cause vision changes and pain due to infection of the choroid
what type of cataract does Cushing’s syndrome cause
posterior sub capsular cataract
what is the typical age related cataract
nuclear sclerotic cataract
what is sezary syndrome
T cel lymphoma that is more likely to manifest as widespread erythroderma and present with atypical lymphocytes. involves mature CD4 lymphocytes. More likely to have lympohadenopathy
what is mycosis fungicides
Extremely similar to sezary syndrome, but doe snot usually have lymphadenopathy or widespread erythroderma
what is tertiary hyperparathyroidism
usually due to long standing secondary hyperparathyroidism and when the parathyroids have become autonomous, secreting parathyroid hormone indeterminate of the level of calcium
what is the haplotype for asian populations that contraindicates carbamazepine treatment due to SJS/TEN
HLA-B*1502
what is the definition of asymptomatic bacteriuria
greater or equal to 100,000 CFU/mL
what are the risk factors for asymptomatic bacteriuria
diabetes, history of UTI, multiparty
what are the common organisms for asymptomatic bacteriuria
E coli, klebsiella, enterobacter, group B strep.
what are the first line treatments for asymptomatic bacteriuria
cefalexinw, amoxicillin, nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin
what is the difference between neurogenic and vascular claudication
vascular is relieved by rest and independent of positioning. Neurogenic claudication does not improve with rest and is usually more responsive to repositioning
what is the best way to measure nitric oxide levels
measure the serum thiocyanate levels.
what is the most definitive test for myasthenia
electromyography
when do you see acidophilic bodies on liver biopsy
typically during hepatocyte apoptosis, due to viral infection
what is allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
is a condition caused by a hypersensitivity reaction against Aspergillus fumigatus. This condition is most common among patients with asthma or cystic fibrosis. Major findings include eosinophilia, elevated serum concentration of total IgE, and bronchiectasis.
what is the presentation of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
vaginal bleeding and pulmonary symptoms with elevated bHCG
when can PML happen to crohns patients
when they are severely immunocompromised on natalizumab
what is the most common type of abdominal aneurysm
splenic artery
what is cyclic vomiting syndrome and what is the treatment
is a condition characterized by discrete episodes of intractable vomiting with periods of weeks or months without any symptoms. Abortive treatment for cyclic vomiting episodes includes anti-emetics such as ondansetron, and prophylaxis includes anti-migraine drugs such as sumatriptan and amitryptiline.
what is leukovorin prescribed for
for synergistic activity with 5-FU or with methotrexate.
what is the SE for 5FU
pancytopenia. watch blood counts
what is the CD4 count in HIV to prophylax for toxoplasmosis
<100
How is PID treated
OUTPATIENT unless complicated with IM ceftriaxone and doxycycline
what is complicated PID
Indications for hospitalizations are pregnancy, non-adherence to therapy, inability to take oral medications due to nausea and/or vomiting, as well as complicated PID with abscess formation.
what test should Neve rbe ordered for Boerhaave
endoscopy
what is the test to diagnose and then confirm borehaave
CXR and ct scan
or gastrogaffin studhy
what is the treatment for PCP if allergic to TMPSFX
pentamidine or dapsone
what does lichen sclerosis look like and what does it put you at risk for
white thin atrophic skin usually involving the vulva. it usually itches and becomes excopritated. puts at risk for squamous cell carcinoma
what happens top ferritin in iron deficiency anemia
it is classically decreased. it is the most sensitive for iron stores. when low, true iron deficiency anemia.
how to diagnose non small cell lung cancer from a CXR
look for the golden S sign off the pleura
what causes an inverted T wave
Increased intracranial pressure due to intracranial hemorrhage can lead to T wave inversions appearing on an electrocardiogram. Other causes of T wave inversions include certain types of cardiomyopathy (apical or yamaguchi type), other severe central nervous system disorders that increase intracranial pressure, acute coronary ischemia, massive pulmonary embolisms, and Wellens’ syndrome.
what EKG changes occur in hypomagnesemia
prolonged QT intervals.
what are the two most common causes of acute pancreatitis
1) gallstone disease
2) alcoholism
If someone on warfarin is put on antibiotics why should their dose of warfarin be reduced
because antibiotics can kill the normal flora that make vitamin K in the gut and this could increase bleeding risk
what is the most important step in management of anaphylaxis
epinephrine administation
what is the preferred rehydration therapy for burn victims
lactated ringers
what is the gold standard for diagnosing necrotizing faciitis
surgical exploration and biopsy’
what is Fomepizole udsed fo
methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning
what is nutcracker syndrome
Nutcracker syndrome occurs when the left renal vein gets compressed by the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) and the abdominal aorta (AA). Try to imagine the SMA and the AA as a nutcracker, cracking the “nut” of the left renal vein. In the CT scan image, the red arrow points to the left renal vein that is compressed.
what is a good prognostic indicator for squamous cell carcinoma histology
keratin pearls
what is a Christmas tree cataract
this is a cataract that looks like it has small flecks in it and is associated with myotonic dystrophy.
what is used to treat hypertension in the setting of aortic dissection
beta blockers, such as propranolol
what is anti-ccp
this is anti-cyclic citrulinated peptide. this is highly associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
what is the presentation of mumps
fever, orchitis, parotitis
often presents with aseptic meningitis
Since insulin is low in type II DM what can be measured to determine insulin use>
C-peptide. if its low, with poor glucose function, then insulin should be initiated.
what happens when someone with protein C deficiency gets warfarin
they have warfarin skin necrosis.
what is the treatment with warfarin skin necrosis
discontinue warfarin, administer vitamin K and heparin
what is the definition of first degree heart block
is asymptomatic. It is characterized by PR-interval prolongation on ECG. To diagnose the condition, the patient’s PR-interval must be greater than 200ms (five small boxes, or one large box).
what is the definition of second degree type 1
This is also known as Mobitz I or Wenckebach. It is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR-interval on successive beats, followed by a dropped QRS-complex. The condition is usually asymptomatic but can cause fatigue, exercise intolerance, and syncope.
what is the definition of second degree type 2
This is also known as Mobitz II. It is characterized by intermittently conducted P-waves (dropped QRS-complexes) that are not preceded by progressive prolongations of the PR-interval. There is usually a fixed number of non-conducted P-waves for every successfully conducted QRS-complex (e.g. 2:1, 3:1).
third degree heart block
This is a condition in which the electrical impulse generated by the sinoatrial node is not propagated to the ventricles. The ECG in the question shows this condition clearly. As the ventricular rate is approximately half the atrial rate, this rhythm at first glance appears to be second-degree AV block (type 2) with 2:1 conduction.
what is gastric volvulus
when the stomach twists on its own mesentery. There are two types. Organoaxial (more common in adults) and mesenteroaxial (more common in children).
how does diabetes affect the skin
Xerosis reduces the elasticity and causes a breakdown making it more susceptible to infection
what are the symptoms of mercury poisoning
sweating, leg pain, visual field deficits, renal failure
how do we differentiate primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency
aldosterone levels will be decreased in primary insufficiency, while they will be normal in secondary (pituitary insufficiency)P
what are the risk factors for mesenteric ischemia
increased age, atrial fibrillation, previous MI
what is giant cell arteritis and the treatment
causes unilateral headache and jaw claudication, is often associated with polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory condition that presents with aching and morning stiffness of the proximal joints. Due to the possible complication of permanent blindness, patients with suspected GCA should be treated immediately with glucocorticoids.
when does concentric hypertrophy occur
in the context of chronic hypertension due to the increased afterload
what is the underlying cause of amarosis fugax
atherosclerosis
how does henock-shonlein purpura present
classic clinical triad of palpable purpura petechia in dependent areas, migratory arthritis, and abdominal pain.
what is osteosclerosis and what is the most common cause
a type of osteopetrosis characterized by hardening of bone and an elevation in bone density. One of the most common causes of osteosclerosis is prostate cancer metastases to the axial skeleton.
what is acute tubular necrosis and what are the causes
condition commonly related to episodes of significant hypotension leading to renal hypoperfusion, leading to necrosis of proximal convoluted tubule epithelium. Muddy brown casts in the urine are virtually pathognomonic.
Acute Tubular Necrosis (or ATN), secondary to renal ischemia that resulted from his injury/hemorrhage.
what is Lichen sclerosis
Lichen sclerosis results in epidermal thinning and dermal fibrosis, resulting in a white patch and chronic inflammation that can be extensive enough to constrict the vaginal orifice. It is associated with an increased risk of squamous carcinoma.
what material are staghorn calculi most commonly made of
struvite
what are the available treatments for psoriasis
topical retinoids, light therapy, immunosuppressants, methotrexate and biologicals like taltz. usually do NOT use steroids because this can make it worse when removed and other treatments are more effective
what organs are removed in a whipple procedure
head of the pancreas, duodenum, proximal jejunum, gallbladder, common bile duct, distal stomach
what is included in the treatment of TB if peritoneal TB is suspect
addition of corticosteroids for a few months may reduce the incidence of late complications
what is the causal organism for esophageal achalasia
Trypanosoma cruzi
what is the treatment for MS exacerbation
IV methylprednisolone and oral prednisone
What can happen when there is long standing osteomyelitis or chronic infection
This increase in inflammation due to chronic inflammation can lead to squamous cell carcinoma
what is the definition of leukomoid reaction
characterized by an increased white blood cell count exceeding 50,000/mm3 and an increase in early neutrophil precursors in blood serum.
how do you differentiate between CML and leukomoid
A hallmark differentiating feature from chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is the increased activity of leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, patients with CML, will have low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase.
what are the benign benign of calcification
diffuse, mental/complete, popcorn, laminated/concentric
what is the presentation of hypersensitivities pneumonitis
alveolar inflammation in response to allergen exposure. Common findings are lymphocytosis and imaging with ground-glass opacities in addition to symptoms of fever, chills, shortness of breath, cough, and malaise.
what are the radiological findings of celiac disease
imaging and biopsy of the GI mucosa show a characteristic blunting of distal duodenal and jejunal villi. This is often associated with a compensatory “jejunization” of the ileum to enhance nutrient absorption.
what type of hypersensitivity is allergy to bee stings
type I
give examples of type II hypersensitivity and what causes
graves and good pastures. molecular mimicry.
what type of hypersensitivity is poison ivy what is another example
type IV delayed hypersensitivity
PPD test
what do you do for someone that is status and Benzos are not working to control seizures
Induce sedation with propofol and intubate
what are brown tumors and what are they associated with
hyperparathyroidism
Osteitis fibrosa cystica is a rare manifestation in severe cases that is characterized by the appearance of brown tumors on X-ray.
what is the difference between membranoproliferative I and II
The location of the immune deposits leads to subdivision of MPGN into two types. MPGN I (primary/idiopathic) is characterized by subendothelial deposits, and MPGN II (dense deposit disease) is characterized by deposits within the glomerular basement membrane (GBM).
how does decompression sickness usually present (the bends)
The most key part of the diagnosis here is the acute-onset of symptoms (i.e., joint pain, hypoxemia, shortness of breath, and fatigue) in the context of a recent training dive. Decompression sickness is a pressure-related injury that results from dissolved gasses coming out of solution into nitrogen bubbles
the most appropriate first treatment for the bends is what
oxygen administration
which arthritis involves the metacarpalphalangeal joints
rheumatoid
which arthritis involves the proximal interphelangeal joints
Both rheumatoid and osteoarthritis
which arthritis affects the distal phalangeal jointsd
psoriatic
what is gitelmans syndrome
an autosomal recessive condition of the renal tubules in which the distal convoluted tubule is unable to reabsorb sodium chloride. As the sodium chloride wasting causes a diuretic effect, these patients experience mild hypovolemia, which causes the release of aldosterone and renin. Accordingly, this leads to dumping of potassium and hydrogen ions in an effort to reabsorb more water. Laboratory serum studies may show hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalciuria.
what syndrome is similar to gitelmans but less severe?
bartters syndrome
what causes hepatic angiosarcoma
working with PVC or VCM
what is the best diagnostic test for boerhaave syndromes
water-soluble contrast esophageal
what is the AIRE gene mutation syndrome
history of increased otitis media and respiratory infections as well as what seems to be a chronic Candida infection should immediately be considered a possible immunosuppressed patient. Most likely the patient has chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, which is commonly caused by mutation in the autoimmune regulator syndrome. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is an immune disorder of T cells that is characterized by chronic infections with Candida albicans.
what is important to exclude in hyperemesis gqavidarum
molar pregnancy. need ultrasound and B-HCG
what is the presentation of amniotic fluid embolus
characterized by hypotension, hypoxemia, and coagulopathy (disseminated intravascular coagulation
what is the only way to confirm the diagnosis of Adenomyosis
hysterectomy and hstoligica evaluation s
what is cholelithiasis
more commonly known as gallstones, is a common condition that is generally asymptomatic.
what is choledocholithiasis
refers to gallstones within the common bile duct (CBD). Patients with CBD stones present with abdominal pain and elevated hepatic enzymes in a cholestatic pattern, but do not demonstrate Murphy’s sign and are initially afebrile. Symptoms associated with choledocholithiasis include right upper quadrant abdominal or epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting.
what is acute cholecystitis
Acute cholecystitis presents with colicky right upper quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. Patients with cholecystitis usually present with a positive Murphy’s sign.
this is inflammation that typically follows cystic duct obstruction
what is the gold standard for diagnosing bacterial meningitis
CSF culture. this is the most specific
what drugs are used to control hypertension in pregnancy
nifedipine, labedelol, hydralazine
what murmurs are the most serious and require follow up every time, usually with echo
diastolic murmurs need to be followed up. these usually indicate a valvular insufficiency
what are the treatments for asymptomatic bacteruria in pregnant patients
cephalexin,
what is the antibody associated with scleroderma
anti-topoisomerase
what is the anticardiolipin associated with
this antiphospholipid syndrome
what is ANCA associate with
wegeners and others vasculitis
what are the best ways to reduce gouty attacks
reduce alcohol consumption, low fat diets, decrease fish and red meats, diuretic use, and weight loss
what does diphenhydramine toxicity look like
this has anticholinergic properties with antihistamine properties. there will dry mouth, dilated pupils, herthermia, urinary retention, decreased bowel sounds.
what is the first line treatment for women with female pattern hairloss and what is this pattern of loss
at the vertex with loss at the midline. there is follicular miniaturization. topical minoxidil is the first line treatment.
when do you use finasteride or spironolactone o women with hairloss
when they have excess androgens and symptoms of excess hair like hirsutism
what is the difference between urate crystals and calcium pyrophosphate crystals
calcium crystals are fat and rhomboid, uric acid are long and thin.
can orthostatic hypotension result in LOC
yes. very commonly
what is the normal hearing test resutls
air conducts greater than bone. when bone conduction is greater than air conduction then that’s the ear with conductive hearing loss.
when you see C diff what should come to mind
healthcare settings, antibiotic use, watery, foul-smelling diarrhea, bloody stool is atypical.
when you see C perfrigens in the context of diarrhea, what should you think
common cause of toxin-0mediated, food-borne illness diarrhea with non-bloody diarrhea.
when you see rotavirus
think common cause of.nonbloody diarrhea and vomiting in children, but can occur in adults.
What is the difference between nocardia and actinomyces
actinomyces: gram positive, branching rods that are anaerobic. treatment with penicillin G.
nocardia: grampositive, branching rods, disseminated infections. aerobic, treat with TMP-SMX
what heart murmur is usually heard in Marfan syndrome and why
aortic root dilation frequently leads to chronic aortic regurgitation identified as an early decrescendo diastolic murmur.
what is the stain for cryptococcal meningitis
india ink
pustular lesions after swimming or at the gym
this is most likely gram negative folliculitis and caused by pseudomonas this is self limited and will go away with hygiene
