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O & P Mock Exams > Orthotics Mock Exam > Flashcards

Orthotics Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait?
    a. Initial contact
    b. Mid-swing
    c. Terminal Stance
    d. Push Off
A

c. Terminal Stance

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2
Q
  1. A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from:
    a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
    b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side
    c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
    d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side
A

a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side

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3
Q
  1. During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active?
    a. Loading Response
    b. Midstance
    c. Preswing
    d. Terminal Stance
A

a. Loading Response

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4
Q
  1. Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the tibialis anterior?
    a. Tibialis Posterior
    b. Peroneus Longus
    c. Extensor Hallicus Longus
    d. Extensor Digitorum Longus
A

c. Extensor Hallicus Longus

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth?
    a. Gower’s sign
    b. Down Syndrome
    c. Erb’s Palsy
    d. Spina Bifida
A

c. Erb’s Palsy

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord?
    a. Cerebral Palsy
    b. Meningitis
    c. Multiple Sclerosis
    d. Pleuritis
A

b. Meningitis

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7
Q
  1. A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and flattening on the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this?
    a. Right posterior brachycephalic
    b. Right posterior plagiocephaly
    c. Left posterior brachycephalic
    d. Left posterior plagiocephaly
A

c. Left posterior brachycephalic

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8
Q
  1. What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis?
    a. Bone
    b. Collagen
    c. Ligament
    d. Cartilage
A

d. Cartilage

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9
Q
  1. What is the lubricant filled sac which, if removed, results in increased friction?
    a. Bursa
    b. Synovium
    c. Ganglia
    d. Nucleus Pulposis
A

a. Bursa

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10
Q
  1. What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO?
    a. L1
    b. Spine of the scapula
    c. Inferior angle of the scapula
    d. Superior angle of the scapula
A

b. Spine of the scapula

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11
Q
  1. Which pathology is most likely to be fit with free knee joints?
    a. L2 spinal cord injury
    b. Damage to the femoral nerve
    c. Moderate knee flexion contracture
    d. Genu varum deformity
A

d. Genu varum deformity

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12
Q
  1. Which type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a leg length discrepancy?
    a. Neuromuscular scoliosis
    b. Congenital scoliosis
    c. Nonstructural scoliosis
    d. Idiopathic scoliosis
A

c. Nonstructural scoliosis

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13
Q
  1. Which would you most expect to see in a patient with a plantarflexion contracture?
    a. Late heel rise at terminal stance
    b. Genu recurvatum at midstance
    c. Increased knee flexion at loading response
    d. Reduced knee flexion at midswing
A

b. Genu recurvatum at midstance

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14
Q
  1. True dorsiflexion and plantarflexion occur in what plane?
    a. Sagittal
    b. Coronal
    c. Frontal
    d. Transverse
A

a. Sagittal

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15
Q
  1. What orthosis would best restore upper extremity function for a patient with a spinal cord injury above the C6 nerve root?
    a. Cock up splint
    b. Mobile arm support
    c. Wrist driven WHO
    d. HO with thumb post
A

c. Wrist driven WHO

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16
Q
  1. What is most appropriate for a median nerve injury at the wrist?
    a. WHO
    b. WHO w/ C bar
    c. HO
    d. WHO with thumb post
A

d. WHO with thumb post

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17
Q
  1. The primary function of the brachioradialis is:
    a. Elbow flexion, wrist extension
    b. Elbow Flexion
    c. Supination, wrist extension
    d. Wrist radial deviation
A

b. Elbow Flexion

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18
Q
  1. In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the:
    a. Teres minor
    b. Teres major
    c. Short head of the Triceps brachii
    d. Subscapularis
A

a. Teres minor

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
    a. Coding should be done based on your experience as a clinician
    b. It is the office administrator’s responsibility to determine accurate coding
    c. Coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services
    d. Correctly completed coding should generate the maximum revenue
A

c. Coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services

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20
Q
  1. The axis of rotation of the hip joint is located:
    a. Anterior & superior to the greater trochanter
    b. Posterior & superior to the greater trochanter
    c. Anterior & inferior to the greater trochanter
    d. Posterior & inferior to the greater trochanter
A

a. Anterior & superior to the greater trochanter

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21
Q
  1. Which is not considered an upper motor neuron disease or injury?
    a. Multiple Sclerosis
    b. Cerebral Palsy
    c. Diabetic Neuropathy
    d. Cerebrovascular Accident
A

c. Diabetic Neuropathy

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22
Q
  1. Aponeurosis is:
    a. A flat broad tendon
    b. A thin tendon sheath
    c. A membrane dividing muscle compartments
    d. A synovial joint lining
A

a. A flat broad tendon

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23
Q
  1. Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as:
    a. A fracture of the pars articularis
    b. Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebra in relation to the sacrum
    c. Anterior displacement of the sacrum in relation to the L5 vertebra
    d. A subluxation of the superior facet
A

b. Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebra in relation to the sacrum

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24
Q
  1. A hand orthosis controls:
    a. Palmar arch and thumb position
    b. Radial deviation
    c. First dorsal interosseus
    d. Transverse arch and carpal tunnel
A

a. Palmar arch and thumb position

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25
Q
  1. Flaccid paralysis is most often seen in:
    a. Central nervous system injuries
    b. Lower motor neuron injuries
    c. Upper motor neuron injuries
    d. Both a and c
A

b. Lower motor neuron injuries

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26
Q
  1. A patient presents with excessive tibial torsion. How should this be incorporated into a conventional double upright AFO?
    a. Provide a lateral t-strap
    b. Externally rotate the shoe on the stirrup
    c. Deflect the sidebars
    d. Externally rotate the joints
A

c. Deflect the sidebars

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27
Q
  1. You deliver a device in the hospital to a patient who is not able to communicate. You should:
    a. Provide the nurse with thorough verbal instructions
    b. Provide the patient with thorough verbal instructions
    c. Provide the nurse with verbal instructions and leave written instructions
    d. Leave written instructions at the patient’s bedside
A

c. Provide the nurse with verbal instructions and leave written instructions

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28
Q
  1. You see a patient post triple ankle arthrodesis. What is the best device to provide?
    a. A negative heel shoe modification
    b. A rocker sole with SACH heel wedge
    c. A corrective foot orthosis
    d. A CROW boot
A

b. A rocker sole with SACH heel wedge

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29
Q
  1. Which muscle inserts on the navicular and medial cuneiform?
    a. Posterior tibialis
    b. Peroneus longus
    c. Peroneus tertius
    d. Extensor digitorum longus
A

a. Posterior tibialis

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30
Q
  1. The space between an axon and a dendrite is called the:
    a. Myelin
    b. Synovium
    c. Schwann’s space
    d. Synapse
A

d. Synapse

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31
Q
  1. The gelatinous center of a spinal disc is the:
    a. Annulus fibrosis
    b. Conus Medullaris
    c. Articular Capsule
    d. Nucleus Pulposus
A

d. Nucleus Pulposus

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32
Q
  1. A patient reports pain at the navicular and posterior to the medial malleolus. What is the most likely pathology?
    a. Charcot foot
    b. Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction
    c. Diabetic neuropathy
    d. Plantar fasciitis
A

b. Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction

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33
Q

Which muscle serves to abduct the phalanges away from the 3rd digit?

a. Lumbricals
b. Palmar Interossei
c. Dorsal Interossei
d. Adductor pollicis

A

c. Dorsal Interossei

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34
Q
  1. Poliomyelitis is what type of pathology?
    a. Lower motor neuron
    b. Upper motor neuron
    c. Progressive
    d. Sensory
A

a. Lower motor neuron

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35
Q
  1. A patient with a complete C6 spinal cord injury powers a wrist-driven flexor hinge tenodesis orthosis by using the
    A. flexor digitorum sublimis
    B. extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi radialis
    C. extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
    D. extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris
A

D. extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris

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36
Q
  1. Which ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip joint?
    a. Ischiofemoral ligament
    b. Inguinal ligament
    c. Obturator membrane
    d. Iliofemoral ligament
A

d. Iliofemoral ligament

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely to increase the likelihood of an infant developing a positional deformation of the cranium?
    a. Infant is a twin or triplet
    b. Low amniotic fluid in utero
    c. Diagnosis of osteogenesis imperfect
    d. Below 50% on weight chart at 4 months of age
A

d. Below 50% on weight chart at 4 months of age

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38
Q
  1. The position of the thoracic facets most easily allows for which movements?
    a. Rotation and extension
    b. Rotation and lateral flexion
    c. Flexion and abduction
    d. Flexion and extension
A

b. Rotation and lateral flexion

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39
Q
  1. Patient is in your office for a scoliosis TLSO adjustment. You note the orthosis is too small and her latest x-ray shows a Risser sign of 4. What action should you take?
    a. Contact the physician for a prescription for a new orthosis
    b. Discuss weaning out of the orthosis and refer patient to physician for end of treatment
    c. Discuss moving to a nocturnal style of scoliosis TLSO
    d. Adjust the orthosis by heating and relieving the tight areas
A

b. Discuss weaning out of the orthosis and refer patient to physician for end of treatment

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40
Q
  1. Blount disease is also known as:
    a. Tibia vara
    b. Fibular hemimelia
    c. Coxa valga
    d. Clubfoot
A

a. Tibia vara

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of Sheurmann’s kyphosis?
    a. It may be treated using a Milwaukee CTLSO
    b. It is a sagittal plane deformity
    c. An LSO to posteriorly tilt pelvis will improve this condition
    d. It is an idiopathic juvenile disorder
A

c. An LSO to posteriorly tilt pelvis will improve this condition

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42
Q
  1. The most appropriate orthotic treatment for a patient with a T12 compression fracture is:
    a. Thoracolumbar corset
    b. CTO
    c. Bivalve TLSO with reduced lordosis
    d. Anterior control hyperextension orthosis
A

d. Anterior control hyperextension orthosis

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43
Q
  1. What gait deviation would you primarily expect to see with a tibial nerve lesion?
    a. Dropfoot through swing phase
    b. Over pronation in weight bearing
    c. Plantarflexion contracture
    d. Uncontrolled tibial advancement in stance phase
A

d. Uncontrolled tibial advancement in stance phase

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44
Q
  1. Which is not a part of the scapula?
    a. Glenoid cavity
    b. Coracoid process
    c. Coronoid process
    d. Acromion process
A

c. Coronoid process

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45
Q
  1. A young child with a T12 myelomeningocele is seen in your office for a device that will help patient ambulate in the home and classroom and will allow hands free standing. What device do you evaluate him for?
    a. Bilateral locked knee KAFOs with Lofstrand crutches
    b. Parapodium
    c. Bilateral stance control KAFOs
    d. Ground reaction AFOs
A

b. Parapodium

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46
Q
  1. What compensatory motion would most likely be seen in an individual with quadriceps weakness?
    a. Steppage gait
    b. Forward trunk lean
    c. Trendelenburg gait
    d. Circumduction
A

b. Forward trunk lean

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47
Q
  1. A patient with hyperkyphosis is placed in a Milwaukee CTLSO for treatment. Where should the corrective pressures be placed?
    a. Anterior throat ring, anterior thoracic pad
    b. Anterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad
    c. Posterior throat ring, anterior thoracic pad
    d. Posterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad
A

b. Anterior throat ring, posterior thoracic pad

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48
Q
  1. Gower’s sign is best described by which of the following?
    a. With a semi-flexed knee and foot resting on a firm surface move the proximal tibia anteriorly and posteriorly on the femur. A tibia that moves posteriorly is a positive sign.
    b. With patient side-lying and knee supported abduct and extend the hip, a knee that does not adduct when released is a positive sign.
    c. Have the patient move from a seated position on the floor to standing. The patient using his or her arms to walk up the thighs is a positive sign.
    d. Have the patient supine on the bed with one leg pulled to the chest and the opposite leg extended off the table with knee flexed. A positive sign is the extended leg flexing or abducting at the hip.
A

c. Have the patient move from a seated position on the floor to standing. The patient using his or her arms to walk up the thighs is a positive sign.

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49
Q
  1. A patient comes into the office exhibiting lasting redness on the navicular and medial malleolus after wearing her new AFO. What adjustment is most likely to correct this problem?
    a. Remake with a lateral Sabolich extension
    b. Move the ankle strap so that the chafe is medial and the strap is lateral
    c. Adjust the medial trimline posterior to the medial malleolus and inferior to the navicular
    d. At a firm pad to increase pressure under the sustentaculum tali
A

d. At a firm pad to increase pressure under the sustentaculum tali

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50
Q
  1. What is the prime elbow flexor?
    a. Brachialis
    b. Coracobrachialis
    c. Biceps Femoris
    d. Brachioradialus
A

a. Brachialis

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51
Q
  1. Hydrocephalus often accompanies which of the following?
    a. Meningitis
    b. Positional plagiocephaly
    c. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
    d. Spina Bifida
A

d. Spina Bifida

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52
Q
  1. The lumbricals function to:
    a. Flex the MCP joints and the PIP joints
    b. Extend the MCP joints
    c. Flex the MCP joints and extend the PIP joints
    d. Abduct the phalanges
A

c. Flex the MCP joints and extend the PIP joints

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53
Q
  1. The muscle length-tension relationship describes:
    a. The concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affected joint’s position through its arc of motion
    b. The concept that a contracted muscle is inherently a strong muscle
    c. The concept that the farther a force is placed from a fulcrum point, the stronger the force on the fulcrum will be
    d. The concept that the strength of a muscle can be measured in direct relation to the cross sectional area of the muscle
A

a. The concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affected joint’s position through its arc of motion

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54
Q
  1. The adductors of the scapula include all but the:
    a. Middle trapezius
    b. Rhomboids
    c. Latissimus dorsi
    d. Serratus anterior
A

d. Serratus anterior

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a prehension pattern?
    a. Hook
    b. Dorsal
    c. Cylindrical
    d. Lateral
A

b. Dorsal

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56
Q
  1. Which term best pertains to the palm of the hand and the sole of the foot?
    a. Dorsum
    b. Caudal
    c. Volar
    d. Varum
A

c. Volar

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57
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a biarticular muscle?
    a. Semitendinosis
    b. Biceps femoris
    c. Vastus medialus
    d. Rectus femoris
A

c. Vastus medialus

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58
Q
  1. Which of the following actions are carried out by the sartorius?
    a. Hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion
    b. Hip flexion; knee extension
    c. Hip abduction and external rotation; knee extension
    d. Hip abduction and internal rotation; knee flexion
A

a. Hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion

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59
Q
  1. Your patient is experiencing pressure at the proximal posterior of the AFO he wears to control mild genu recurvatum. What is the best choice to eliminate this pressure?
    a. Lower the proximal trimline 2cm
    b. Add a 0.5cm lift under the heel of the orthosis
    c. Heat and flare the proximal trimline
    d. Adjust the ankle joint to allow 10 degrees plantarflexion
A

c. Heat and flare the proximal trimline

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60
Q
  1. Which scenario is best to test to differential between a grade 3 and a grade 4 psoas major strength?
    a. Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion
    b. Patient lies prone with knee flexed; examiner resists hip extension
    c. Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip extension
    d. Patient lies side-lying with knee flexed; examiner resists hip flexion
A

a. Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion

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61
Q
  1. When instructing a patient to ascend/descend stairs with unilateral weakness, which is appropriate?
    a. Ascend leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the sound limb
    b. Ascend leading with the affected limb; descend leading with the sound limb
    c. Ascend leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the affected limb
    d. Always use a step-to gait, leading with the sound limb on ascent and decent
A

c. Ascend leading with the sound limb; descend leading with the affected limb

62
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect?
    a. It is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve
    b. It functions as an internal rotator of the hip
    c. It inserts on the gluteal tuberosity of the femur
    d. Part of it originates on the ilium
A

b. It functions as an internal rotator of the hip

63
Q
  1. A positive Trendelenburg sign is assigned when:
    a. There is weakness of the gluteus maximus
    b. The affected side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the sound side
    c. Patient lacks sufficient muscle strength to maintain hip adduction
    d. The sound side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the affected side
A

d. The sound side pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the affected side

64
Q
  1. A patient comes into your office stating low back pain caused by hyperlordosis. What advise might you give your patient to reduce symptoms?
    a. Avoid sleeping with the knees flexed
    b. Avoid wearing shoes with a heel higher than 3/8”
    c. Avoid crunches or other core exercises
    d. Focus on posture and practicing decreasing posterior pelvic tilt
A

b. Avoid wearing shoes with a heel higher than 3/8”

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is a purely a sensory nerve?
    a. Obturator
    b. Tibial
    c. Femoral
    d. Saphenous
A

d. Saphenous

66
Q
  1. Maximum plantarflexion occurs at what phase of gait?
    a. Loading response
    b. Pre Swing
    c. Terminal Stance
    d. Heel Off
A

b. Pre Swing

67
Q
  1. A patient wearing a metal and leather KAFO with double adjustable ankles experiences excessive knee flexion during standing. To reduce this the orthotist should:
    a. Deepen the proximal thigh band
    b. Deflect uprights to move knee joints more posterior
    c. Deepen the calf band
    d. Add a pin to the posterior channel of the ankle joint
A

c. Deepen the calf band

68
Q
  1. The primary hip flexor is the:
    a. Tensor Fascia Latae
    b. Iliopsoas
    c. Rectus Femoris
    d. Quadriceps
A

b. Iliopsoas

69
Q
  1. Lateral stability of the pelvis in stance phase is accomplished through the action of which muscle?
    a. Iliopsoas
    b. Gluteus medius
    c. Gluteus minimus
    d. Internal obliques
A

b. Gluteus medius

70
Q
  1. You deliver a TLSO to a patient scheduled to discharge from the hospital in one week. The hospital states they cannot issue a purchase order because the device should be billed to Medicare. You should:
    a. Bill Medicare using the date of delivery as the date of service
    b. Bill Medicare using the date of discharge as the date of service
    c. Inform the hospital that you cannot legally bill Medicare in this situation
    d. Bill the skilled nursing facility to which the patient is scheduled to discharge
A

c. Inform the hospital that you cannot legally bill Medicare in this situation

71
Q
  1. Which is not considered a business associate under HIPAA regulations?
    a. Courier
    b. Attorney
    c. Accounting services
    d. Independent medical transcriptionist
A

a. Courier

72
Q
  1. Which is the prime extensor of the vertebral column?
    a. Iliocostalis
    b. Erector Spinae
    c. Semispinalis
    d. Quadratus lumborum
A

b. Erector Spinae

73
Q
  1. Which muscle is not innervated by the obturator nerve?
    a. Adductor brevis
    b. Adductor longus
    c. Sartorius
    d. Gracilis
A

c. Sartorius

74
Q
  1. Swan neck deformity refers to which position?
    a. Flexion of the PIP joint, hyperextension of the DIP joint
    b. Flexion of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint
    c. Hyperextension of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint, flexion of MCP joint
    d. Flexion of the DIP joint, flexion of the PIP joint, hyperextension of the MCP joint
A

b. Flexion of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint

75
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of gait?
    a. The percent of gait spent in double limb support decreases with gait speed
    b. Initial swing begins at toe off and continues until the tibia reaches vertical
    c. Stance phase accounts for approximately 60 percent of the gait cycle
    d. When the right leg is in loading response the left leg is in preswing
A

b. Initial swing begins at toe off and continues until the tibia reaches vertical

76
Q
  1. To promote healing in a case of Legg Calve Perthes disease, the hip should be positioned in:
    a. Abduction and internal rotation
    b. Adduction and external rotation
    c. Abduction and flexion
    d. Adduction and extension
A

a. Abduction and internal rotation

77
Q
  1. Which of the following best represents the principles followed when fitting a Milwaukee TLSO?
    a. With more than one curve, the curve with the greatest flexibility (compensatory curve) should be loaded first, as it usually responds to correction more quickly
    b. With double primary curves the superior curve should be loaded first
    c. Due to viscoelastic relaxation in the soft tissues, the pads may require loosening periodically
    d. The loading vector for thoracic and lumbar pads should be anteromedial in almost all cases
A

d. The loading vector for thoracic and lumbar pads should be anteromedial in almost all cases

78
Q
  1. The deformity caused by unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid is called:
    a. Klippel-Feil Syndrome
    b. Plagiocephaly
    c. Brachial Palsy
    d. Torticollis
A

d. Torticollis

79
Q
  1. An orthosis for a patient post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction should primarily control:
    a. Flexion of the knee
    b. Varus angulation of the knee
    c. Anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur
    d. Posterior displacement of the tibia on the femur
A

c. Anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur

80
Q
  1. An involuntary oscillating movement elicited by a rapid stretch is:
    a. Spasticity
    b. High tone
    c. Contracture
    d. Clonus
A

d. Clonus

81
Q
  1. The subtalar joint is an articulation between the talus and the___________ and primarily allows ______________________ :
    a. Calcaneus: Inversion/Eversion
    b. Tibia and fibula: Inversion/Eversion
    c. Calcaneus: Dorsiflexion/Plantarflexion
    d. Tibia and fibula: Dorsiflexion/Plantarflexion
A

a. Calcaneus:

82
Q
  1. Which muscle does not act on the wrist:
    a. Flexor digitorum profundus
    b. Palmaris longus
    c. Brachioradialis
    d. Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
A

c. Brachioradialis

83
Q
  1. Which AFO is most appropriate for a patient who exhibits both knee instability at initial contact and genu recurvatum at midstance?
    a. Double adjustable with pins in the anterior channel
    b. Double adjustable with pins in the posterior channel
    c. Double adjustable with pins in the posterior channel and springs in the anterior channel
    d. Solid Ankle AFO
A

d. Solid Ankle AFO

84
Q
  1. You are testing a patient’s L3, L4, and L5 myotomes. Which of the following motions do you test?
    a. Hip flexion/knee extension/plantarflexion
    b. Hip flexion/ knee extension/dorsiflexion
    c. Knee extension/plantarflexion/great toe flexion
    d. Knee extension/ dorsiflexion/ great toe extension
A

d. Knee extension/ dorsiflexion/ great toe extension

85
Q
  1. A patient comes into your office for an orthosis to prevent glenohumeral subluxation. What positions should the shoulder be placed in?
    a. Flexion and internal rotation
    b. Adduction and external rotation
    c. Extension and external rotation
    d. Abduction and internal rotation
A

d. Abduction and internal rotation

86
Q
  1. How long does Medicare require that medical records be retained for Medicare benificiaries?
    a. 2 years
    b. 3 years
    c. 5 years
    d. 7 years
A

c. 5 years

87
Q
  1. A patient you fit with a TLSO informs you that the orthosis fits well when he stands, but presses into his throat when he sits. How do you best rectify this?
    a. Trim the anterior superior edge
    b. Trim the anterior inferior edge
    c. Pad the anterior superior edge
    d. Flare and trim the anterior superior edge
A

b. Trim the anterior inferior edge

88
Q
  1. Which diagnosis best fits the following description: A hereditary disease that affects both the sensory and motor peripheral nerves.
    a. Poliomyelitis
    b. Charcot Marie Tooth
    c. Guillain Barre
    d. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
A

b. Charcot Marie Tooth

89
Q
  1. Which is not considered a carrier of blood borne pathogens?
    a. Sweat
    b. Cerebrospinal Fluid
    c. Semen
    d. Synovial Fluid
A

a. Sweat

90
Q
  1. The primary purpose of an AFO with trimlines posterior to the malleoli is:
    a. Knee stability
    b. Medial/lateral stability of the ankle
    c. Increased toe lever arm for push-off at terminal stance
    d. Dorsiflexion assist
A

d. Dorsiflexion assist

91
Q
  1. Articulation between the sternum and the clavicle occurs at the:
    a. Coronoid tubercle
    b. Acromion
    c. Manubrium
    d. Xyphoid
A

c. Manubrium

92
Q
  1. How many pairs of nerve roots arise from the cervical area of the spinal cord?
    a. Six
    b. Seven
    c. Eight
    d. Nine
A

c. Eight

93
Q
  1. Which of the following is charged with regulating workplace safety and health legislation?
    a. HIPAA
    b. OSHA
    c. AAOP
    d. CMS
A

b. OSHA

94
Q
  1. Which muscle aids in stabilizing the scapula and is important in motions such as pushing and punching?
    a. Serratus anterior
    b. Levator scapulae
    c. Teres Major
    d. Trapezius
A

a. Serratus anterior

95
Q
  1. Which of the following would not be affected by a proximal lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?
    a. Brachioradialis
    b. Biceps brachii
    c. Coracobrachialis
    d. Brachialis
A

a. Brachioradialis

96
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a part of the humerus?
    a. Trochlea
    b. Pectineal line
    c. Capitulum
    d. Radial groove
A

b. Pectineal line

97
Q
  1. In a double action ankle joint the pins in the posterior channel best simulate what muscle?
    a. Tibialis anterior
    b. Flexor hallucis longus
    c. Peroneus longus
    d. Soleus
A

a. Tibialis anterior

98
Q
  1. Which column(s) of the spine do you expect to see damaged in a burst fracture?
    a. Posterior and middle
    b. Middle and anterior
    c. Anterior
    d. Posterior
A

b. Middle and anterior

99
Q
  1. A patient presenting with hyperextension of the 4th and 5th metacarpal phalangeal joints and flexion of the interphalangeal joints likely has a wrist level lesion of which nerve?
    a. Musculocutaneous
    b. Median
    c. Radial
    d. Ulnar
A

d. Ulnar

100
Q
  1. At what vertebral level does the cauda equine begin?
    a. L2
    b. L3
    c. L5
    d. S1
A

a. L2

101
Q
  1. Damage to which of the following structures leads to sensation deficits?
    a. Golgi tendon organ
    b. Ventral branch of the nerve roots
    c. Dorsal branch of the nerve roots
    d. Sympathetic ganglia
A

c. Dorsal branch of the nerve roots

102
Q
  1. A patient with spina bifida comes into your office after utilizing bilateral AFOs for six weeks. After re-evaluating their muscle strength you will likely tell them which of the following?
    a. Continue wearing the AFOs as muscle strength has changed little
    b. The AFOs can now be cut to SMOs as pt has recovered plantarflexor strength
    c. Add anterior panels as pt’s weakness has progressed
    d. Add padding to calf section as pt’s sensation deficit has progressed more proximally
A

a. Continue wearing the AFOs as muscle strength has changed little

103
Q
  1. During ambulation the body’s center of mass reaches its highest point at:
    a. Heel strike
    b. Midstance
    c. Terminal Stance
    d. Preswing
A

b. Midstance

104
Q
  1. When the limb moves from midstance to terminal stance what muscle group contracts and in what manner?
    a. Plantarflexors: concentric
    b. Plantarflexors: eccentric
    c. Dorsiflexors: concentric
    d. Dorsiflexors: eccentric
A

b. Plantarflexors: eccentric

105
Q
  1. Torque is calculated by:
    a. Multiplying lever arm length by force applied
    b. Multiplying distance from the joint center by velocity
    c. Multiplying the radius by the lever arm length
    d. Adding the center of mass vector to the joint center vector
A

a. Multiplying lever arm length by force applied

106
Q
  1. What position is the hip typically in during heel strike?
    a. Neutral flexion/extension
    b. 15 degrees flexion
    c. 30 degrees flexion
    d. 40 degrees flexion
A

c. 30 degrees flexion

107
Q
  1. At which joint does upper extremity pronation and supination occur?
    a. Radiocarpal
    b. Intercarpal
    c. Elbow
    d. Radioulnar
A

d. Radioulnar

108
Q
  1. To best minimize gait deviations in a patient with right gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus weakness a patient requires:
    a. A cane on the right side
    b. A cane on the left side
    c. An walker or bilateral forearm crutches
    d. An KAFO on the right side
A

b. A cane on the left side

109
Q
  1. Pressure is determined by which of the following?
    a. Force divided by torque
    b. Torque divided by area
    c. Force divided by area
    d. Area divided by force
A

c. Force divided by area

110
Q
  1. Which of the following arteries does not supply blood to the lower extremity?
    a. Superior mesenteric artery
    b. Deep femoral artery
    c. Popliteal artery
    d. Peroneal artery
A

a. Superior mesenteric artery

111
Q
  1. What is the appropriate torque for halo pins in an adult patient?
    a. 4 inch pounds
    b. 8 inch pounds
    c. 4 Newton meters
    d. 8 Newton meters
A

b. 8 inch pounds

112
Q
  1. Why was the L-code established?
    a. To develop a unified method of describing products/services to payers
    b. To justify to the payers the products/services provided
    c. To improve communication between healthcare providers
    d. To systematically classify and document patient diagnoses
A

a. To develop a unified method of describing products/services to payers

113
Q
  1. A patient with a Charcot foot is most likely to present with:
    a. A rigid hallux valgus
    b. A high cavus arch
    c. Weakness in the plantarflexors
    d. A collapsed and inflamed arch
A

d. A collapsed and inflamed arch

114
Q
  1. A patient comes into your office stating her AFO causes her knee to buckle each time she walks down the hill by her house. How will you adjust her AFO to reduce this?
    a. Add a firm plantarflexion stop
    b. Increase dorsiflexion assistance
    c. Reduce plantarflexion resistance
    d. Increase the length of the footplate
A

c. Reduce plantarflexion resistance

115
Q
  1. Which motion is viewed in the coronal plane?
    a. Elbow flexion/extension
    b. Forearm supination/pronation
    c. Cervical lateral flexion
    d. Ankle plantarflexion/dorsiflexion
A

c. Cervical lateral flexion

116
Q
  1. Active plantarflexion of the ankle is strongest when the:
    a. Hip is extended
    b. Hip is flexed
    c. Knee is extended
    d. Knee is flexed
A

c. Knee is extended

117
Q
  1. Venous return of the blood to the heart is assisted by which of the following?
    a. Positive pressure in the heart
    b. Action of the skeletal muscles
    c. Dilation of the arterial walls
    d. Arterial blood pressure
A

b. Action of the skeletal muscles

118
Q
  1. The muscles that pass posterior to the lateral malleolus act to:
    a. Plantarflex and evert the foot
    b. Dorsiflex and evert the foot
    c. Plantarflex and invert the foot
    d. Dorsiflex and invert the foot
A

a. Plantarflex and evert the foot

119
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles inserts on the lesser trochanter?
    a. Adductor longus
    b. Gluteus Medius
    c. Tensor Fasciae Latae
    d. Iliopsoas
A

d. Iliopsoas

120
Q
  1. What are the two origins of the biceps brachii?
    a. Coronoid process and acromion
    b. Supraglenoid tubercle and coracoid process
    c. Bicipital tuberosity and glenoid fossa
    d. Acromion and subscapular fossa
A

b. Supraglenoid tubercle and coracoid process

121
Q
  1. Which of the following is not considered a sesamoid bone?
    a. Patella
    b. Pisiform
    c. Lunate
    d. Hyoid
A

c. Lunate

122
Q
  1. Carpal tunnel syndrome results in compression of which nerve?
    a. Radial
    b. Ulnar
    c. Axillary
    d. Median
A

d. Median

123
Q
  1. Opposition of the thumb occurs at which joint?
    a. Metacarpophalangeal joint
    b. Interphalangeal joint
    c. Radiocarpal joint
    d. Carpometacarpal joint
A

d. Carpometacarpal joint

124
Q
  1. The medial edge of an adult KAFO should terminate proximally:
    a. At the transverse plane of the ischial tuberosity
    b. 1.25cm (0.5”) distal to the greater trochanter
    c. 3.8cm (1.5”) distal to the perineum
    d. 5.1cm (2”) inferior to the lateral proximal edge
A

c. 3.8cm (1.5”) distal to the perineum

125
Q
  1. Which diagnosis would be most appropriate to fit with a CASH or Jewett style orthosis?
    a. T12 compression fracture
    b. L3 burst fracture
    c. T6 compression fracture
    d. T11 Chance fracture
A

a. T12 compression fracture

126
Q
  1. A patient presents in your office for treatment off knee pain due to medial osteoarthritis. Which is most likely to improve your patient’s symptoms?
    a. A neoprene knee orthosis with hinges to limit flexion to 60 degrees
    b. A double upright knee orthosis aligned in valgus
    c. A double upright knee orthosis with the corrective pressure on the medial condyle pad
    d. A solid ankle AFO with medial rearfoot wedge
A

b. A double upright knee orthosis aligned in valgus

127
Q
  1. What is the standard clearance for knee joints on a KAFO?
    a. 3mm laterally, 5mm medially
    b. 3mm laterally, 6mm medially
    c. 6mm laterally, 3mm medially
    d. 6mm laterally, 5mm medially
A

b. 3mm laterally, 6mm medially

128
Q
  1. The lower extremity is most stable in stance when the weight line falls:
    a. Anterior to the hip and anterior to the knee
    b. Posterior to the hip and posterior to the knee
    c. Anterior to the hip and posterior to the knee
    d. Posterior to the hip and anterior to the knee
A

d. Posterior to the hip and anterior to the knee

129
Q
  1. What percent of the gait cycle is spent in double limb support?
    a. 10%
    b. 20%
    c. 40%
    d. 60%
A

b. 20%

130
Q
  1. A patient comes into your office for orthotic treatment for a right thoracic scoliosis, which are you most likely incorporate into the orthosis?
    a. Right axillary extension and left trochanter extension
    b. Right thoracic pad and left axillary extension
    c. Right axillary extension and left trochanter extension
    d. Right axillary extension and right thoracic pad
A

b. Right thoracic pad and left axillary extension

131
Q
  1. A patient states he has worn a ground reaction AFO comfortably for about six months, but recently he switched shoes and is experiencing his knee being forced backward. What would you most expect to see and how will you fix it?
    a. Patient switched to a higher heeled shoe and you fix by dorsiflexing the orthosis
    b. Patient switched to a lower heel height shoe and you fix by adding a dorsiflexion stop
    c. Patient switched to a higher heel height shoe and you fix by adding a forefoot wedge
    d. Patient switched to a lower heel height shoe and you fix by adding a heel wedge
A

d. Patient switched to a lower heel height shoe and you fix by adding a heel wedge

132
Q
  1. What is the normal range of motion for pronation and supination of the forearm?
    a. Pronation 65 degrees, Supination 75 degrees
    b. Pronation 75 degrees, Supination 85 degrees
    c. Pronation 80 degrees, Supination 80 degrees
    d. Pronation 85 degrees, Supination 90 degrees
A

Pronation 80 degrees, Supination 80 degrees

133
Q
  1. The measured ML of an anatomical ankle joint is 8.3cm (3 ¼”). What should the inside measurement for your mechanical ankle joint be?
    a. 8.7cm (3 7/16”)
    b. 9.2cm (3 5/8”)
    c. 9.4cm (3 11/16”)
    d. 10.0cm (3 15/16”)
A

b. 9.2cm (3 5/8”)

134
Q
  1. The dorsiflexion stop performs the function of which muscle(s)?
    a. Gastrocnemius/Soleus
    b. Tibialis Anterior/Extensor Hallucis Longus
    c. Tibialis Posterior
    Tibialis Anterior
A

a. Gastrocnemius/Soleus

135
Q
  1. Taking assignment with Medicare means that the provider will:
    a. Accept reimbursement as 80% of Medicare usual and customary
    b. Accept the amount Medicare approves as payment in full
    c. Accept Medicare payment as 80% and bill the patient remaining 20%
    d. Accept all Medicare patients seeking devices described by A-codes (diabetic codes)
A

b. Accept the amount Medicare approves as payment in full

136
Q
  1. The correct height of a mechanical ankle joint is:
    a. Apex of the medial malleolus
    b. Apex of the lateral malleolus
    c. Distal tip of the medial malleolus
    d. 1/3 of the difference between medial and lateral malleolus
A

c. Distal tip of the medial malleolus

137
Q
  1. Which of the following nerves divides into the common peroneal nerve and the tibial nerve?
    a. Sciatic nerve
    b. Femoral nerve
    c. Saphenous nerve
    d. Obturator nerve
A

a. Sciatic nerve

138
Q
  1. Which components of an upper extremity orthosis would best aid in prevention of a claw hand deformity?
    a. Thumb post and IP extension assist
    b. MCP extension stop and IP extension assist
    c. MCP flexion stop and IP flexion assist
    d. Lateral thumb post and MCP extension stop
A

b. MCP extension stop and IP extension assist

139
Q
  1. A patient with quadriplegia resulting from a lesion at C7 neurosegmental level is most likely to benefit from which of the following?
    a. Wrist cock up splint
    b. Wrist driven WHO
    c. Mobile arm support
    d. Static HO
A

d. Static HO

140
Q
  1. How many continuing education credits must a single discipline orthotist earn every 5 years in order to remain compliant with American Board for Certification? How many must be Scientific Class I credits?
    a. 50 : 25
    b. 50 : 50
    c. 75 : 50
    d. 100 : 75
A

c. 75 : 50

141
Q
  1. How much length beyond the toes should be allowed when measuring in non-weight bearing for diabetic extra depth shoes?
    a. ¼”
    b. ½”
    c. ¾”
    d. 1”
A

b. ½”

142
Q
  1. Can a device that is delivered prior to admission to a hospital be billed to Medicare?
    a. Yes: Devices necessary post-surgery and fit prior to admission may billed to Medicare
    b. Yes: But only if the medical necessity for the device is independent of the patient’s admission to the hospital
    c. No: All devices delivered 48 hours or less prior to hospital admission should be billed to the hospital
    d. No: The device cannot be billed to Medicare if the patient will not require it in the hospital
A

b. Yes: But only if the medical necessity for the device is independent of the patient’s admission to the hospital

143
Q
  1. Which is not true of the thoracic pad in a Milwaukee TLSO?
    a. It is typically L shaped
    b. It is fitted on the convex side if the curve
    c. It is placed over the rib that articulates with the apical vertebrae and one rib superior
    d. For a patient with hypokyphosis the pad is directly lateral, instead of posterolateral
A

c. It is placed over the rib that articulates with the apical vertebrae and one rib superior

144
Q
  1. Which of the following is a benefit of fitting a SOMI CTO?
    a. It can be fit with the patient in a supine position
    b. The chin rest can be easily removed for washing
    c. It can be donned independently using only one hand
    d. It restricts sagittal plane motion at C2-C4 better than other devices
A

a. It can be fit with the patient in a supine position

145
Q
  1. What is the proper placement of the proximal edge of the calf band on a conventional AFO?
    a. 20mm below fibular neck
    b. 30mm below fibular neck
    c. 35mm below fibular neck
    d. 54mm below fibular neck
A

a. 20mm below fibular neck

146
Q
  1. What abnormal motion of the calf band will occur if the mechanical ankle joint of an AFO is located too proximal in relation to the anatomical ankle joint?
    a. Calf band migrates proximally with plantarflexion and distally with dorsiflexion
    b. Calf band migrates proximally with plantarflexion and dorsiflexion
    c. Calf band migrates distally with plantarflexion and proximally with dorsiflexion
    d. Calf band migrates distally with plantarflexion and distally with dorsiflexion
A

d. Calf band migrates distally with plantarflexion and distally with dorsiflexion

147
Q
  1. How long do The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services require medical records be retained for their beneficiaries?
    a. 18 months
    b. 3 years
    c. 5 years
    d. 7 years
A

c. 5 years

148
Q

A patient fit with a CASH orthosis is experiencing discomfort under the sternal pad. What is the best action to take?

a. Contour sternal upright to pull pad away from the patient
b. Add low durometer padding to the sternal pad
c. Switch the sternal pad to pectoral pads
d. Loosen posterior strap to reduce three point pressures

A

c. Switch the sternal pad to pectoral pads

149
Q

What is the optimal age for beginning cranial remolding orthosis treatment?

a. 2 - 4 months of age
b. 4 - 6 months of age
c. Before 8 months of age
d. Before 12 months of age

A

b. 4 - 6 months of age

150
Q
  1. A 16 year-old patient suffered fractures of C4 and C5 following trauma received in a motor vehicle accident. Maximum stabilization of his cervical spine can best be achieved with a:
    a. Four-poster orthosis
    b. SOMI orthosis
    c. Milwaukee orthosis
    d. Halo orthosis
A

d. Halo orthosis

O & P Mock Exams (17 decks)

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