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O & P Mock Exams > *Not Finished* Prosthetics Mock Exam > Flashcards

*Not Finished* Prosthetics Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

To check prosthesis height the amputee should…

a. support his weight on his sound leg.
b. support his weight on his prosthetic leg
c. support his weight equally on both legs
d. not be wearing his prosthesis.

A

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2
Q

When walking, the normal foot should pass close to the AK prosthetic foot:

a. to facilitate shift of body weight.
b. to prevent hip flexion contractures
c. to strengthen the gluteus medius muscle.
d. to decrease pressure on the lateral socket wall.

A

Answer coming soon

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3
Q

Rotation of the foot at heel strike may be caused by:

a. a stiff dorsiflexion bumper
b. a stiff plantar flexion bumper
c. external rotation of ankle axis
d. internal rotation of knee axis.

A

Answer coming soon

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4
Q

If the ischial tuberosity is placed too far toward the medial side of the ischial seat it results in…

a. crowding of adductor muscles into small area, causing burning sensation.
b. too much weight being borne on the ramus of the ischium.
c. wedging of stump in the gluteus channel.
d. walking with leg internally rotated.

A

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5
Q

The knee bolt of the prosthesis is usually found to be…

a. perpendicular to the line of progression
b. in approximately 5 degrees internal rotation
c. in approximately 5 degrees external rotation
d. in approximately 8 degrees external rotation

A

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6
Q

When adductor longus tightness is observed during initial fitting of the AK socket you should…

a. relieve the socket laterally
b. roll and relieve medial posterior wall.
c. flare and contour anterior-medial corner
d. increase flare above ischial level

A

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7
Q

When a knee amputee must arch his back to maintain the center of gravity of his body in the proper position while pressing back with his stump, it is an indication that the…

a. amputee has a pronounced lumbar lordosis
b. foot on prosthesis is located too far laterally
c. stump was fitted into a socket without adequate initial flexion.
d. stump was fitted into a socket with excessive abduction.

A

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8
Q

As the AK amputee places his weight on the prosthesis the femur presses toward the lateral wall. Because of this the lateral socket wall should be…

a. rounded to distribute pressure evenly
b. adducted to stabilize the femur during locomotion
c. padded to keep from injuring the stump.
d. abducted to allow the end of the femur to move freely.

A

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9
Q

The suction socket prosthesis is aligned so that involuntary alignment stability is minimized and voluntary knee control by stump action is emphasized…
a. in order that a minimum amount of enery is consumed during walking.
b. to provide valuable exercise for stump muscles.
to make it possible to use a simplified knee mechanism
d. in order that the cosmetic appearance of the limb is improved.

A

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10
Q

If a force of 10lbs. exerted on the five foot arm of a lever, what force must be exerted on the two foot arm to balance it?

a. 25 pounds
b. 50 pounds
c. 20 pounds
d. 30 pounds

A

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11
Q

Medial whip is caused by

a. improper placement of the toe-break
b. external rotation of ankle axis.
c. medial rotation of knee bolt
d. excessive lateral rotation of knee bolt

A

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12
Q

In correcting an abducted socket on the adjustable leg, we should…

a. release the medial tilt screw and tighten the lateral
b. release the lateral tilt screw and tighten the medial.
c. release the lateral locking adjustment and move the shank medially
d. give the amputee a wider walking base.

A

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13
Q

When pulling the amputee into an AK socket the most important anatomical landmark is the…

a. gluteus maximus muscle
b. hamstring muscle group
c. adductor longus tendon.
d. rectus femoris muscle

A

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14
Q

If the ischial seat of the AK socket is made too wide, it will cause…

a. painful spasm of the gluteus maximus
b. excessive pressure on the hamstring muscles, resulting in stump edema.
c. burning sensation when the wearer is seated, because of excessive stretching of the skin.
d. excessive adductor bulge because of insufficient room in the medial posterior area of socket.

A

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15
Q

Which of the following gait faults is due to incorrect function of the prosthesis?

a. circumduction
b. pelvic rise
c. unequal arm swing
d. unequal step length

A

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16
Q

How does an excessively stiff plantar flexion bumper in the prosthetic foot affect knee stability?

a. increases knee stability excessively
b. has no affect on knee stability
c. decreases knee stability
d. makes it necessary to move the socket forward in relation to the knee bolt.

A

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17
Q

At push-off it is common for an AK amputee with well developed hamstring muscles to force himself off the ischial seat as his stump extends. How can this trouble be avoided?

a. align the socket so the extensor muscles are elongated slightly
b. align the socket in a position of initial flexion.
c. align the socket in a position of initial extension
d. align the socket so the abductor muscles are elongated slightly.

A

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18
Q

What is the effect of excessively shimming the dorsiflexion stop to place the shank in a vertical position?

a. foot slap at heel strike
b. excessive increase in range of plantar flexion with increase in knee stability.
c. foot and ankle stability at mid-stance
d. excessive shortening in range of plantar flexion, resulting in stiffened plantar bumper action and knee instability.

A

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19
Q

If the AK amputee complains of pressure on the pubic ramus, the prosthetist should…

a. lower the ischial seat slightly.
b. Relieve the scarpa’s triangle area.
c. lower the medial wall 1/8” at a time.
d. relieve the lateral socket wall.

A

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20
Q

Pronounced impact shock at full extension of the prosthetic knee indicates a need for…

a. shorter stride.
b. external rotation of knee bolt
c. more extension dampening controls
d. less extension dampening controls

A

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21
Q

During swing phase, a tendency for the AK prosthetic shin to make a marked inward movement of the knee accompanied by an outward movement of the foot is called…

a. arcing
b. medial whip
c. shin swing
d. lateral whip

A

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22
Q

If the medial/lateral dimension of the socket is too large…

a. the ischial tuberosity protrudes of the posterior aspect of the socket
b. the ischial tuberosity falls into the socket.
c. the amputee complains of the tightness over the trochanter
d. the ischial tuberosity will move laterally on the seat

A

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23
Q

What is the result of locating the toe-break too far forward in the prosthetic foot?

a. causes foot slap at heel contact.
b. reduces moment of force around the ankle joint, causing knee instability at push-off
c. causes instability of foot and ankle at mid-stance giving amputee a feeling of insecurity.
d. gives amputee a feeling of “climbing a hill” causing excessive energy consumption and awkward gait.

A

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24
Q

When hamstring muscle tightness is observed during initial fitting of the AK socket you should…

a. relieve the lateral border of the scarpas bulge
b. relieve the socket laterally
c. roll and relieve the medial posterior wall
d. increase the AP dimension anteriorly

A

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25
Q

Amputee Jones’ weight of 200lbs. is assumed to be concentrated at his center of gravity. The effective length of the lever arm between his center of gravity and the support point on his socket is six inches. The effective length of the lever arm from the support point to the midpoint of his femur is ten inches. How many inch-pounds of force must be distributed on his femur to prevent mediolateral instability?

a. 120
b. 600
c. 1200
d. 850

A

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26
Q

To determine the control system efficiency of the upper extremity prosthesis…

a. divide the force measured at the hanger by the force at the terminal device.
b. divide the force measure at the terminal device by the force at the hanger
c. divide the amount of force necessary to displace the socket axially one half inch by the force needed to flex the elbow.
d. multiply the force measured at the hanger (9.0 lbs, for instance) times 100% to get 90% efficiency.

A

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27
Q

An axial pull test on an upper extremity prosthesis should be…

a. enough force to displace the socket one inch
b. enough force to displace the socket 1/2 inch
c. a force about 50 lbs and displace one inch.
d. a force of 50 lbs and should not displace the socket more than one inch.

A

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28
Q

In the below elbow amputee, it is desirable too…

a. retain as little pronation and supination as possible
b. retain at least 50% of the pronation and supination available.
c. always fit rigid hinges for stability regardless of rotation qualities retained.
d. none of the above

A

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29
Q

The maximum pinch force of the two load hook is…

a. 4lbs
b. equal to the number of rubber bands on the TD
c. 7lbs
d. varies from an average 3lbs to 15lbs

A

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30
Q

When the arm is over head, the trapezius muscle…

a. positions the glenoid cavity downwards.
b. positions the glenoid cavity upward.
c. abducts the should er girdle only.
d. the trapezius muscle does not act.

A

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31
Q

The action of the deltoid muscle is too…

a. adduction of the glenohumeral joint.
b. extend the coracoid
c. flex the radioulnar joint
d. flex the gleno-humeral joint

A

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32
Q

The latissimus dorsi and the supraspinatus are the prime movers in glenohumeral extension

a. true
b. false
c. no contest

A

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33
Q

Glenohumeral horizontal flexion is obtained from action of the…

a. deltoid
b. rhomboid major
c. pectoralis major
d. teres minor

A

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34
Q

Which of the muscles listed is a prime mover for elbow flexion?

a. triceps
b. brachialis
c. flexor pollicis brevis
d. subscapularis

A

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35
Q

If a patient with 65 degree length below elbow can flex his elbow only 90 degrees, the use of a step-up hinge is indicated.

a. true
b. false

A

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36
Q

The below elbow arm is generally suspended by..

a. an inverted “y” strap
b. a shoulder saddle
c. the prehendsion control cable
d. an inverted “y” strap and prehension control cable

A

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37
Q

The rhomboids originate on…

a. thoracic vertebrae and insert along the spine of the scapula
b. cervical vertebrae and insert along the scapula from the root of the spine to the inferior angle.
c. thoracic vertebrae and insert along the scapula from the root of the spine to the inferior angle.
d. cervical vertebrae and inserts along the inferior edge of the clavicle.

A

c. thoracic vertebrae and insert along the scapula from the root of the spine to the inferior angle.

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38
Q

The deltoid provides…

a. humeral abduction, flexion and extension.
b. humeral adduction and flexion and extension.
c. humeral abduction, internal and external rotation.
d. humeral adduction, internal and external rotation

A

a. humeral abduction, flexion and extension.

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39
Q

External rotation of humerus is accomplished with the…

a. infraspinatus and teres major
b. infraspinatus and teres minor
c. supraspinatus and teres minor
d. supraspinatus and teres major

A

b. infraspinatus and teres minor

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40
Q

Internal rotation of the humerus is produced by contraction of the…

a. subscapularis
b. teres major
c. pectoralis major
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above.

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41
Q

The triceps muscle…

a. not only extends the elbow joint but also adducts the gleno-humeral joint.
b. only extends the elbow joint.
c. flexes and extends the shoulder joint.
d. none of the avove

A

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42
Q

The greatest disadvantage to the amputee in using any step-up hinge is…

a. the spread of the angle between socket and forearm when flexed.
b. complication in fabrication.
c. loss of flexion power in forearm.
d. added bulk in the vicinity of socket and elbow joints.

A

Answer coming soon

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43
Q

The triceps not only extends the elbow joint but also…

a. adducts the glenohumeral joint
b. abducts the glenohumeral joint
c. flexes the glenohumeral joint
d. extends the glenohumeral joint.

A

Answer coming soon

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44
Q

The biceps not only extends the elbow joint, but also flexes the glenohumeral joint.

a. true
b. false
c. no contest

A

Answer coming soon

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45
Q

In amputation surgery of the upper extremity…

a. as little length as possible is desirable for the best lever arm advantage.
b. medium length stumps are always the best.
c. all upper extremity amputees should be below the elbow as a rule.
d. as much length as possible should be retained.

A

Answer coming soon

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46
Q

The greatest disadvantage to the amputee in using any step-up hinge is…

a. the spread of the angle between socket and forearm when flexed.
b. complication in fabrication.
c. loss of flexion power in forearm
d. added bulk in the vicinity of socket and elbow joints.

A

Answer coming soon

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47
Q

Which of the following are reasonable ranges of glenohumeral motion in the average human?

a. flexion 180 degrees, extension 60 degrees, abduction 180 degrees, adduction 20 degrees
b. flexion 60 degrees, adduction 60 degrees, extension 180 degrees, abduction 180 degrees
c. flexion 20 degrees, adduction 20 degrees, extension 180 degrees, abduction 180 degrees.
d. adduction 20 degrees, extension 60 degrees, abduction 180 degrees, flexion 50 degrees.

A

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48
Q

The anterior support strap on the AE should…

a. pass over the lower 1/4 of the scapula
b. pass over the lower 1/3 of the scapula
c. pass over the delto-pectoral groove
d. pass over the latissimus dorsi-tendon inferiorly to the insertion of serratus anterior as a rule.

A

Answer coming soon

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49
Q

In the medium length BE there can be some residual pronation because the…

a. biceps brachii remains intact
b. brachialis remains intact
c. pronator teres is still largely intact
d. pronator quadratus is wholly intact and thus provides the desired action.

A

Answer coming soon

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50
Q

The cross point of the figure 8 harness on the AE should be slightly to the sound side because…

a. this keeps the harness below the 7th cervical vertebrae
b. it will allow the terminal device control cable to locate low across the scapula.
c. the cross point is located towards the amputated side.
d. all of the above

A

Answer coming soon

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51
Q

The unit illustrated in Fig. 1 enable the amputee to perform which of the following functions.

a. lock elbow in any of 11 positions.
b. supinate and pronate his prosthesis.
c. exert graded prehension on objects with his hook.
d. lock elvow in any position between full extension and 135 degrees of flexion.

A

Answer coming soon

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52
Q

What is the unit pictured in fig. 2

a. F-M wrist disconnect
b. model b flexion unit
c. “economy” wrist unit
d. step-up wrist rotation unit.

A

Answer coming soon

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53
Q

What does this unit enable the amputee to do? Fig. 2

a. actively supinate and pronate his terminal device.
b. Easily interchange terminal devices.
c. flex his wrist so he can work in close to his body.
d. compensate for difference in length of various terminal devices.

A

Answer coming soon

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54
Q

What is the name of the terminal device pictured in Fig. 3?

a. Dorrance #555
b. hosmer dual control
c. northrop-sierra two load
d. APRL voluntary closing

A

Answer coming soon

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55
Q

What are the characteristics of this device? Fig 3

a. voluntary closing, two ranges of opening.
b. voluntary opening, two prehension forces.
c. voluntary opening, selective grasp.
d. voluntary closing, graded prehension.

A

Answer coming soon

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56
Q

What type of terminal device is shown in Fig. 4?

a. voluntary opening, voluntary locking.
b. manual locking, manual closing
c. snap thumb, voluntary opening.
d. voluntary closing, automatic locking.

A

Answer coming soon

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57
Q

What type of prehension was this termianl device (fig. 4) designed to perform?

a. hook
b. lateral
c. palmar
d. spherical

A

Answer coming soon

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58
Q

What is the name of the terminal device shown in fig 5?

a. APRL
b. Dorrance #88X
c. N-S two load
d. Trautman utility

A

Answer coming soon

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59
Q

In using this terminal device the amputee exerts force to… (Fig 5)

a. open the device, then relaxes to close it.
b. unlock it, then relaxes to open it.
c. close the device, then operates the switch button to open it.
d. open the device, then exerts force to close it.

A

Answer coming soon

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60
Q

In order to flex the elbow, the AE amputee with a figure 8 harness…

a. unlocks the elbow and adducts his scapulae
b. locks the elbow and rotates his humerus.
c. unlocks the elbow and flexes the gleno-humeral joint.
d. locks the elbow and shrugs his opposite shoulder.

A

Answer coming soon

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61
Q

The amount of humeral flexion required to fully flex the elbow of an AE prosthesis should not exceed…

a. 20degrees
b. 45degrees
c. 90degrees
d. 135degrees.

A

Answer coming soon

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62
Q

If the prehension force of the terminal device is less than the force required to flex the elbow, the AE amputee, harnessed for dual control with a dorrance hook, will find what happens when he attempts to flex his elbow?

a. the elbow will lock.
b. the terminal device will lock
c. the elbow will flex.
d. the terminal device will open.

A

Answer coming soon

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63
Q

The should disarticulation prosthesis is operated primarily by what control motion?

a. humeral flexion.
b. scapular abduction.
c. shoulder depression.
d. scapular adduction.

A

Answer coming soon

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64
Q

If the AE amputee is having difficulty in flexing the elbow his prosthesis would be aided least by…

a. adding a cross back strap to the harness.
b. moving the foarm lift loop distally.
c. increasing the prehension force of the terminal device.
d. replacing a steel hook with an aluminum one.

A

Answer coming soon

65
Q

The lever type excursion amplifier provides increased excursion at the expense of…

a. forearm lift
b. terminal device operation.
c. force
d. shoulder mobility

A

Answer coming soon

66
Q

Which of the following normal functions can be mechanically reproduced in a prosthetic arm?

a. shock absorbing
b. tactile sensation
c. feed back
d. joint stabilization

A

Answer coming soon

67
Q

The initial socket brim for a short AE amputation would be trimmed on a line…

a. made horizontal from the axilla.
b. over the shoulder from the axilla
c. one to two inches above the acromion
d. marked by the plumb line on the test socket.

A

Answer coming soon

68
Q

The basic harness for a shoulder amputation prosthesis is…

a. figure 8
b. perineal
c. chest strap
d. delto-pectoral

A

Answer coming soon

69
Q

If the application of cable and housing were made on the AE prosthesis as it is on the BE, the amputee would lose…

a. terminal device function.
b. elbow flexion.
c. humeral flexion
d. elbow lock control.

A

Answer coming soon

70
Q

If the distance between the acromion and the lateral epicondyle is fourteen inches and the length of the stump is twelve inches from the acromion to the end of the stump, the amputee would be classified as a…

a. shoulder disarticulation
b. elbow disarticulation
c. standard above elbow.
d. short above elbow.

A

Answer coming soon

71
Q

A “non-prehensil” activity may be illustrated by holding a…

a. large glass.
b. Pin
c. suitcase
d. piece of chalk

A

Answer coming soon

72
Q

When fitting a socket for a VSBE, the mechanical elbow should flex to…

a. 135degrees
b. 110degrees
c. 90degrees
d. 45degrees

A

Answer coming soon

73
Q 
External movable sheave type excursion amplifier is used with what type of prosthesis?
a. BE
b. VSBE
c. AE
D. SD
A

Answer coming soon

74
Q

When the control cable breaks, the unilateral amputee is instructed to manually open his terminal device and allow it to close over an object to be grasped. These instructions are for an amputee wearing a…

a. voluntary closing hook
b. manual opening hook
c. voluntary opening hook
d. sliding action hook

A

Answer coming soon

75
Q

What does the nudge control enable the amputee to do?

a. Lock and unlock the elbow by pressing lever with the chin.
b. release the terminal device by pressing lever with opposite hand.
c. switch from dual control to triple control by pressing the lever with the opposite hand.
d. open and close terminal device by pressing lever with chin.

A

a. Lock and unlock the elbow by pressing lever with the chin.

76
Q

When making a plaster wrap for a VSBE splint socket or muenster, the elbow is flexed…

a. 80 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 105 degrees
d. 135 degrees.

A

Answer coming soon

77
Q

What is the chief advantage of using the housing cross bar assembly?

a. enables the amputee to flex the elbow by flexing his gleno-humeral joint.
b. enables the amputee to use the same cable to lock the elbow and operate the terminal device.
c. reduces wear and tear on the terminal device.
d. reduces control coable bending, increasing cable life.

A

Answer coming soon

78
Q

The major limitation that is incurred by the SD amputee is…

a. sphere of activity of a prosthesis.
b. force to operate a prosthesis.
c. excursion to operate a prosthesis.
d. components to fabricate a prosthesis.

A

Answer coming soon

79
Q

When using the single pivot hinge, the center of the joint is placed 1/2” above the medial superior brim of the socket.

a. true
b. false
c. don’t know.

A

Answer coming soon

80
Q

Which of the following are friction wrist units?

a. FM-100 and SP-100
b. WE-500 and WA-600
c. WA-600 and PC-100
d. WE-300 and WD-400

A

Answer coming soon

81
Q

The brachioradialis assists in flexion of the elbow.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

82
Q

In the forearm the ulna remains stationary while the radius rotates around it.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

83
Q

In the stable anatomical elbow joint, the only motion that takes place between the forearm and humerus is flexion and extension.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

84
Q

Gleno-humeral abduction is performed primarily by the deltoid muscle.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

85
Q

The 7th cervical veertebra is the most prominent of all the vertebrae.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

86
Q

in the anatomical position, the ulnar styloid is nearer to the midline of the body than is the thumb.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

87
Q

Triple control simply means there is one cable for elbow flexion, one cable for terminal device operation, and a third for elbow locking.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

88
Q

The E-400 elbow is set in 5degrees- 10degrees of initial elbow flexion.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

89
Q

When harnessing bilateral amputees, the harness cross should be…

a. centered over the vertebral column.
b. lower than for the unilateral.
c. toward the side of the “best” stump.
d. away from the side of the “best” stump.

A

Answer coming soon

90
Q

The FM wrist disconnect is not recommended for use on…

a. shoulder disarticulation amputees
b. very short below elbow amputees
c. elbow disarticulation amputees
d. short above elbow amputees.

A

Answer coming soon

91
Q

The triceps pad is often used for…

a. medium and short BE’s
b. very short BE and elbow disarticulation.
c. short and very short BE’s
d. long BE and wrist disarticulation.

A

Answer coming soon

92
Q

The polycentric hinge is used on which types of amputees?

a. wrist disarticulation.
b. short below elbow.
c. elbow disarticulation.
d. short above elbow.

A

Answer coming soon

93
Q

The acromion is a part of the…

a. scapula
b. clavicle
c. humerus
d. ulna

A

a. scapula

94
Q

The basic BE control motion is gleno-humeral…

a. elevation
b. extension
c. flexion
d. rotation

A

Answer coming soon

95
Q

The acceptable range of gleno-humeral flexion for AE prosthesis application is…

a. 60 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 135 degrees
d. 180 degrees

A

Answer coming soon

96
Q

In what position should the muscle tunnel be when assembling the control system of the biceps cineplasty.

a. at rest length
b. at maximum stretch
c. at maximum shortening
d. midway between rest length and maximum shortening.

A

Answer coming soon

97
Q

When the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees, the forearm can be rotated through an arc by humeral rotation. The size of this arc is…

a. 90 degrees
b. 80 degrees
c. 110 degrees
d. 140 degrees

A

Answer coming soon

98
Q

The following description is of which level of upper extremity amputation…wrist loss, forearm rotation absent, good humeral rotation, good shoulder motion:

a. VSBE
b. ED
c. standard AE
d. short AE

A

Answer coming soon

99
Q

What percentage of loss of elbow flexor power results from severance of the biceps tendon?

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%

A

Answer coming soon

100
Q

The proximal-posterior border of the VSBE socket is shaped to contain the olecranon process, as a result the:

a. amputee sacrifices force for range of motion.
b. terminal device must be fabricated of aluminum
c. amputee must be fitted with a chest strap harness
d. the elbow cannot fully extend.

A

Answer coming soon

101
Q

Which one of the following wrist units is of least value to the bilateral amputee?

a. Model B flexion
b. oval wrist
c. manual friction
d. quick change

A

Answer coming soon

102
Q

The terminal device most desirable for use with cineplasty amputees is…

a. voluntary closing
b. voluntary opening
c. according to the tunnel’s strength and excursion.
d. no advantage of one device over the other.

A

Answer coming soon

103
Q

If the amputee complains of difficulty rolling over the ball of the foot, the most likely cause is…

a. excessive dorsiflexion
b. excessive medial placement of foot.
c. excessive lateral placement of foot
d. excessive plantar flexion of foot.

A

Answer coming soon

104
Q

In which portion of stance phase is the prosthetic side in knee extension most likely to occur?

a. initial contact
b. loading response
c. mid-stance
d. terminal stance

A

Answer coming soon

105
Q

Rehabilitation of the BK amputee should ideally be initiated…

a. operatively
b. preoperatively
c. one week post operatively
d. only after the wound has healed.

A

Answer coming soon

106
Q

When wrapping a BK limb for shrinkage, it is important that…

a. most of the pressure is in the proximal portion of the limb
b. most of the pressure is in the distal end of the limb
c. the elastic only extends up to the head of the fibula
d. BK limbs need not be wrapped due to small amount of soft tissue.

A

Answer coming soon

107
Q

The purpose for wearing prosthetic socks are…

A

Answer coming soon

108
Q

The PTB cuff suspension strap derives its suspension over which area?

a. condyles of femur
b. by means of a waist belt
c. proximal patella
d. along the shaft of the fibula

A

Answer coming soon

109
Q

Redundant tissue is described as…

a. edematous tissue
b. muscle unattached to bone
c. excessive soft tissue
d. muscle bunching

A

Answer coming soon

110
Q

A sac filled with heavy fluid which lies between the skin and a bony prominence is called?

a. edema
b. muscle bunching
c. bulbous tissue
d. bursa

A

Answer coming soon

111
Q

A lack of total contact in the PTB limb…

a. has not effect on the fit
b. increases proprioceptive feedback
c. can cause shrinkage
d. can cause distal edema

A

Answer coming soon

112
Q

Residual limb shape may be described in three ways. What are they?

A

Answer coming soon

113
Q

The AP measurement of a BK amputee is taken in flexion at…

a. 5 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. 20 degrees
d. 35 degrees

A

Answer coming soon

114
Q

The AP measurement of the BK amputee is taken between the ________ ________ and the _______ ________.

A

Answer coming soon

115
Q

ML dimension of the plaster model when using a soft liner should be…

a. larger by 1/4
b. smaller by 1/8
c. larger by 3/16
d. same as measurement

A

Answer coming soon

116
Q

What are the two advantages in the use of test sockets?

A

Answer coming soon

117
Q

The purpose of a compression bandage before fitting of a prosthesis is…

a. to shrink the residual limb
b. to shape the residual limb
c. to prevent edema
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

118
Q

The preferred prosthetic foot and ankle unit for the BK PTB prosthesis is the…

a. single axis
b. double axis
c. SACH
d. universal

A

Answer coming soon

119
Q

The impression of feeling in the amputated member is commonly called…

a. phantom pain
b. peripheral pain
c. phantom sensation
d. psychogenic sensation

A

Answer coming soon

120
Q

The evaluation of a PTB prosthesis, the anterior brim of the socket should extend to the…

a. lower border of the patella
b. upper border of the patella
c. medial tibial plateau
d. point midway between upper and lower borders of the patella

A

Answer coming soon

121
Q

Phantom sensation is experienced by…

a. nearly all acquired amputees
b. about 50% of all amputees
c. amputees past 40 years of age.
d. about 25% of congenital amputees

A

Answer coming soon

122
Q

In evaluating the unilateral lower-limb amputees ability to utilize a prosthesis successfully, an important consideration is his…

a. general hygiene
b. balance and coordination on crutches
c. limb length and circumference
d. ability to pay for the prosthesis

A

Answer coming soon

123
Q

If the patient complains of prolonged anterior distal tibia discomfort, probable cause is…

a. foot too posterior
b. foot too anterior
c. foot too dorsiflexed
d. foot too plantarflexed

A

Answer coming soon

124
Q

Piston action of the BK PTB prosthesis is a result of…

a. inadequate suspension
b. loose socket fit
c. excessive knee flexion
d. poor alignment

A

Answer coming soon

125
Q

In order to obtain optimum medio-lateral stability of the PTB type prosthesis during locomotion…

a. observe that the pylon is vertical during the midstance phase of locomotion
b. observe that the ball of the foot is 1 1/2 inches from the floor at the instant of heel strike
c. observe that socket displaces laterally not more than 1/2 inch during midstance phase of locomotion
d. observe that the knee flexes smoothly to approximately 25 degrees or the same as normal leg during heel contact to foot flat phase of locomotion.

A

Answer coming soon

126
Q

As the amputee rolls over the foot in stance phase, his knee joint should…

a. hyperextend
b. extend slightly
c. remain flexed
d. flex a slight additional amount

A

Answer coming soon

127
Q 
In dynamic alignment, lateral gapping at the socket brim is reduced by...
a. sliding the socket medially
b sliding the socket laterally
c. tilting the socket medially
d. tilting the socket laterally
A

Answer coming soon

128
Q

In dynamic alignment, if the knee is forced forward and knee flexion is exaggerated at heel contact, it indicates…

a. socket positioned too far anteriorly
b. excessive posterior tilt of the socket
c. socket positioned too far posteriorly
d. excessive anterior tilt of the socket.

A

Answer coming soon

129
Q

In evaluating the PTB prosthesis during gait, the foot must be flat on the floor at midstance, of which the indication is…

a. pylon vertical
b. pylon 5 degrees anterior
c. pylon 5 degrees posterior
d. pylon 8 degrees lateral

A

Answer coming soon

130
Q

If the amputated limb is quite short, it may be necessary in dynamic alignment to reduce the medial-proximal and lateral-distal forces on the stump by…

a. moving foot posteriorly
b. moving foot laterally
c. moving foot anteriorly
d. moving foot medially

A

Answer coming soon

131
Q

As the outset of the foot is increased in aligning a BK prosthesis, pressures are increased on the following areas of the stump…

a. the medial proximal and lateral distal aspect
b. the medial distal and lateral proximal aspect
c. the medial proximal and medial distal aspect
d. the lateral proximal and lateral distal aspect

A

Answer coming soon

132
Q

When the BK amputee controls the tendency of the knee to flex after heelstrike, the pressures are increased on the following aspects of the stump…

a. anterior distal and posterior proximal
b. anterior proximal and posterior distal
c. anterior distal and posterior distal
d. posterior distal only

A

Answer coming soon

133
Q

In the below knee stump the peroneal nerve passes above the head of the fibula and therefore care must be exercised in fitting to avoid pressure in this area.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

134
Q

A below knee amputee with a knee joint flexion contracture of 15 degrees should not be fitted with the PTB limb.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

135
Q

Hyperextension of the knee can be decreased by moving the socket posteriorly in relation to the foot.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

136
Q

The only way to change the action derived from any one particular heel wedge on the SACH foot is by changing the wedge.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

137
Q

The heel of the SACH foot takes the place of the gastrocnemius.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

138
Q

Even pressure is applied over the entire BK stump surface by a socket…

a. that is cylindical in shape
b. that is shaped to relieve soft areas
c. that is shaped to relieve hard areas and press in soft areas
d. none of the above

A

Answer coming soon

139
Q

The scarpa’s triangle area extends laterally about 2/3 of the distance across the proximal anterior socket.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

140
Q

Edema is usually found in the proximal portion of the limb.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

141
Q

If the prosthetic foot is set in excessive plantar flexion, the amputee will have the sensation of “walking over a hill.”

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

142
Q

The closed end of the total contact socket is planned as a weight bearing surface as much as possible for each patient.

a. true
b. false

A

Answer coming soon

143
Q

When a myoplasty is performed in an amputation…

a. the muscles are sewn to the bone
b. the muscles are stretched and trimmed
c. the distal end of the bone is rounded
d. the muscles are sewn to each other.

A

Answer coming soon

144
Q

What are the two main functions of the BK cuff suspension strap?

a. absorbs shock
b. prevents rotation
c. suspends prosthesis
d. maintains the knee in flexion.

A

Answer coming soon

145
Q

When measuring length- which landmark is not used…

a. iliac crest
b. MTP
c. trochanter
d. PSIS
e. ASIS

A

Answer coming soon

146
Q

A BK amputee returns to your office complaining that he is stopping in mid-stance and having trouble rolling over the toe. His gait and alignment were perfect at the time of delivery of the prosthesis one week ago. what could be the problem?

a. he’s changed his shoes and the new shoes have a lower heel height.
b. suspension cuff not worn tight enough
c. patient is wearing excessive amount of stump sockets
d. patient has started to use a walking cane.

A

Answer coming soon

147
Q

When the foot of a BK is inset, the forces are distributed…

a. proximal/lateral and distal/medial
b. proximal/medial and distal/lateral
c. straight down to the floor
d. distally

A

Answer coming soon

148
Q

With a BK at mid-stance where are the pressure (forces) in the socket in the sagittal plane?

a. distally
b. straight down to the floor
c. proximal/anterior and distal/posterior
d. proximal/posterior and distal/anterior

A

Answer coming soon

149
Q

What are the main areas of weight bearing in a BK…

a. crest of tibia
b. patella tendon
c. medial tibial flare
d. medial tibial plateau

A

Answer coming soon

150
Q 
For a very short BK, why is a PTS advantageous?
a. less distal pressures
b .greater step length
c. a lighter weight prosthesis
d. added ML stability
A

Answer coming soon

151
Q

When bench aligning a BK, the ML foot placement is…

a. outset 1/2”
b. inset 1/2”
c. set right on center of socket
d. none of the above

A

Answer coming soon

152
Q

When static aligning a BK, if the pylon leans laterally, the cause may be…

a. the foot outset too far
b. too much abduction in the socket
c. too much adduction in the socket
d. none of the above

A

Answer coming soon

153
Q

What is the effect of moving the socket more forward over the foot?

a. reduces length of the posterior lever arm of foot
b. reduces length of anterior lever arm of foot
c. increases amount of socket flexion
d. increases length of anterior lever arm of the foot.

A

Answer coming soon

154
Q

The modification at the medial flare of the tibia is primarily made…

a. to gain ML stability
b. to tighten the distal ML of the socket
c. to aid in vertical loading in the socket
d. to tighten the proximal ML of the socket

A

Answer coming soon

155
Q

What is the effect on gait of lengthening the posterior lever arm of the foot?

a. tends to flex the knee at heel strike
b. tends to extend the knee at heel strike
c. tends to increase lateral shear forces between foot and floor
d. tends to cause “toe drag”

A

Answer coming soon

156
Q

Function of a prosthetic foot must simulate motion of a normal foot. if plantarflexion or heel compression does not occur…

a. knee stability of the amputee will be enhanced
b. knee stability of the amputee will not be affected
c. knee stability of the amputee will be affected
d. plantar flexion is not necessary for a prosthetic foot if the amputee has proper gait training.

A

Answer coming soon

157
Q

When the prosthetic foot is placed in excessive dorsiflexion….

a. the knee is made more stable
b. the amputee vaults when walking.
c. the knee is made unstable
d. the ankle is made rigid

A

Answer coming soon

158
Q

What role does the fibular shaft play in stance phase of gait for the BK amputee?

A

Answer coming soon

O & P Mock Exams (17 decks)

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