*Not Finished* Second Orthotics Mock Exam Flashcards
Maximum Dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait? a. Heel off b. toe off c. accleration d. mid-swing e. push-off
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A single cycle of gait is defined as the time… a. from heel off of one foot to heel off of the other. b. from heel off of one foot to push off of the same foot. c. from heel off of one foot to heel strike of the other. d. from heel off of one foot to heel strike of the same foot. e. from contralateral reciprocation of the forefoot weight time.
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During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active? a. mid-stance b. heel-strike to foot flat c. push to mid-swing d. deceleration e. foot flat to mid-stance
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At what phase of gait is medial lateral stability of the knee most important? a. mid-swing b. acceleration c. mid-stance d. foot flat e. free fall
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In measuring for a quadrilateral brim, what is the most important measurement? a. inguinal ligament to posterior b. medial lateral and base scarpa triangle c. anteroposterior and horizontal projection of scarpa triangle d. thigh circumference divided by 2 plus 1 1/2 in e. anteroprosterior and medial lateral
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What comprises the scarpa triangle? a. sartorius, rectus femoris, inguinal ligament b. sartorius, adductor magnus, inguinal ligament c. sartorius, femoral artery, rectus abdominus d. sartorius, inguinal ligament, adductor longus e. anterior, lateral, proximal thigh
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What is the best position for managing the chronically dislocating gleno-humeral joint? a. internally rotated and flexed slightly b. abducted and internally rotated c. abducted and externally rotated d. abducted to at least 70 degrees e. abducted to 50 degrees and compressed
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The oblique diameter of a patients malleoli is 3 5/8 in (90mm). What should the inside dimension of the ankle joint be? a. 3 7/8 in (96mm) b. 4 1/16 in (101mm) c. 3 15/16 in (99mm) d. 4 1/4 in (106mm) e. 4 3/16 in (105mm)
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A hemiplegic patient presents with zero hip extensors, fair quadriceps, zero calf. Which of the following would you recommend? a. HKAFO b. KAFO c. AFO with dorsiflexion assist d. AFO with plantarflexion restraint e. No recommendation
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The 20 year old female patient presents with flaccid anterior compartment and medial lateral instability in her right lower limb. Which of the following would you recommend? a. conventional AFO with dorsiflexion restraint b. polypropylene AFO with trim anterior to the malleoli c. McAushland brace d. conventional AFO with gerdmore mechanism e. Spiral AFO
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Which muscle most clostely duplicates the function of the anterior tibialis? a. posterior tibialis b. peroneus longus c. extensor digitorium d. peroneus tertius e. extensor hallicus longus
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Which of the following is a contra-indication for a spiral AFO? a. periphera nerve type of injury b. weak hip flexors c. edema with frequent volume changes d. mild spasticity e. Guillain-barre
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Why is a Milwaukee brace carefully molded superior to the iliac crests? a. assist in reducing lordosis b. assist in pelvic derotation c. to avoid bony landmarks d. prevent distal migration e. cosmesis
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What level of paraplegia seldom gets braced? a. C5 b. T6 c. T12 d. L1 e. L5
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Bunnell (cock-up) splints are frequently used for… a. quadriplegia b. burns c. hemiplegia d. trauma e. arthritis
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What structure assists the deltoid in gleno humeral abductions? a. latissimus dorsi b. rhomboid c. rotator cuff d. pectoralis minor e. coraco brachialis
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An orthotic patient’s wrist is positionioned in ulnar deviation and flexion. you should try to reposition the patient’s wrist… a. in slight radial deviation b. in 30 degrees extension c. in slight flexion d. in slight flexion and slight radial deviation e. in slight flexion, maintain ulnar deviation
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Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth? a. gower’s sign b. down syndrome c. schmorl’s nodes d. Erb’s palsy e. heterotopic ossification
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Which of the following is an inflammation of the outer covering of the spinal cord and/or brain? a. cerebral palsy b. tuberculosis c. melanoma d. meningitis e. pleuritis
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What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis? a. bone b. cartilage c. synovium d. ligaments e. collagen
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Which of the following best describes a small lubricant filled sac which if removed results in an increase in friction? a. schmorl’s nodes b. nucleus pulposis c. ganglia d. bursa e. synacone
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In an LSO what is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars? a. the inferior angle of the scapula b. one inch inferior angle of the scapula c. the spine of the scapula d. T7 e. halfway between the inferior angle and spine of the scapula
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What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars in a Taylor TLSO? a. L1 b. spine of the scapula c. inferior angle of the scapula d. halfway between spine and inferior angle of the scapula e. superior angle of the scapula
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The superior portion of the Milwaukee CTLSO should be carefully fabricated so as to… a. avoid excessive pressure on the chin b. avoid excessive pressure on the mandibular angle c. avoid excessive pressure on the xyphoid process d. avoid excessive pressure on the ulnar styloid e. maintain distraction of the cervical spine.
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In an attempt to restore upper limb function to a C5 complete quadriplegic, which orthosis should you recommend? a. WHO b. WHO C-bar c. HO d. WDWHO (flexor hinge) e. WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension
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In an attempt to restore upper limb funtion to a C6 complete quadriplegic, which orthosis should you recommend? a. WHO b. WHO with C-bar c. HO d. WDWHO (flexor hinge) e. WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension
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For a median nerve injury at the wrist which is the most appropriate orthosis? a. WHO b. HO c. WHO with C-bar d. WHO with thumb post e. HO with thumb post
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What structure is at the distal end of the humerus? a. olecrenon b. capitate c. coronoid d. epiphysis e. epicondyle
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Primary function of brachioradialis is… a. gleno-humeral flexion b. elbow flexion c. elbow flexion and forearm supination d. glenohumeral flexion and elbow flexion
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The secondary function of the biceps brachii is… a. pronation b. supination c. gleno-humeral extension d. elbow protraction e. glenohumeral adduction
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The primary function of the brachialis is… a. supination b. pronation c. elbow flexion d. elbow flexion and supination e. elbow flexion and pronation
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In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the… a. pronator teres b. teres major c. supriaspinatus d. teres minor e. rhomboids
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Which of the following compliments the deltoid in performing glenohumeral abduction? a. rotator cuff b. triangular ligament c. subclavius d. pectoralis major-calvicular head e. levator scapulae
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Which of the following is a contra-indication for a plastic AFO? a. weak dorsiflexors b. subtalor instability c. flaccid peroneus tertius d. weak calf e. deep peroneal nerve injury
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Which orthosis would you recommend to a mid-humerus Fx which included injury to the radial nerve? a. WHO with wrist flexion assist b. WHO with thumb extension assist c. WHO with thumb extension and finger extension assist d. WHO with wrist, thumb, and finger extension assist e. HO with thumb and finger extension assist
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Which best describes the purpose of the thumb post? a. positioning for lateral prehension b. positioning circumduction c. adduction stop d. abduction stop e. positioning for palmar prehension
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In picking up an object from a table what is the best position of the wrist? a. 5 degrees flexion b. 10 degrees extension c. 35 degrees flexion d. 30 degrees extension e. 10 degrees flexion with 15 degrees ulnar deviation
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Which of the following does not contribute to spinal extension? a. erector spinae b. quadrutus lumborum c. levator scapulae d. lateral abdominus obliques e. latissimus dorsi
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Which of the following best describes the orthotic objective of the UCBL FO? a. compress talo-navicular joint b. align mid-tarsal articulation c. redirect metatarsal forces over larger area d. diminish calcaneus ML instability e limit sagittal motion of calcaneus
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A patient wearing a Dennis Brown orthosis exhibits undesirable eversion, you should… a. contour the crossmember concave to the patient to pronate the feet. b. contour the crossmember convex to the patient to pronate the feet. c. contour the crossmember concave to the patient to supinate the feet. d. contour the crossmember convex to the patient to supinate the feet. e. contour the sidebar to promote inversion.
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Which of the following is the best means to accommodate valgus in a patient’s lower limb? a. extend the medial stirrup extension b. extend the lateral stirrup extension c. medial wedge d. scaphoid pad e. slight internal rotation in orthosis
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Which muscle flexes the middle phalanx? a. flexor communis b. flexor digitii brevis c. flexor digitorum profundus d. flexor digitorum sublimis e. flexor palmaris
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Abduction and adduction occurs in the… a. sagittal plane b. coronal plane c. transverse plane d. horizontal plane e. oblique plane
b. Coronal plane
Abduction and adduction occurs in the hand at the… a. carpal-metacarpal joint b. carpal phalangeal joint c. metacarpal-phalangeal joint d. proximal interphalngeal joint e. distal interphalangeal joint
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Loss of the opponens pollicis is the result of an injury to the… a. median nerve b. axillary nerve c. radial nerve d. ulnar nerve e. carpus nerve
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The primary purpose of a C-bar is… a. opponens assist b. opponens stop c. adduction stop d. abduction stop e. abduction assist
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The distal edge of the C-bar should… a. fall 3mm (1/8 in) proximal to the nail bed b. fall 3mm (1/8 in) distal to the nail bed c. cover the planus articularis d. extend just distal to the pollicis IP e. extend just proximal to the pollicis IP
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The superior surface of the atlas articulates with the… a. odontoid process b. axis c. CI d. Biceptal articularis e. mandibular angle
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Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as… a. anterior displacement of SI with respect to L5 b. par articulares Fx c. Superior facet subluxation d. anterior displacement of L5 with respect to SI e. Lateral-anterior migration of L5-S1 disc
d. anterior displacement of L5 with respect to SI
In order to treat kyphosis with a Milwaukee TLSO the pads should be placed… a. anteriorly b. posteriorly c. 2 ribs below the lateral curvature d. 2 ribs above the lateral curvature e. laterally 2cm below scoliotic apex
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The optimum hip angle of the patient during casting for a Milwakee TLSO is… a. hyperextension b. full flexion c. slight flexion d. flexion commensurate with minimum lordosis e. not pertinent
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The pelvic band for an LSO or TLSO should… a. overlap the greater trochanters b. fall just distal to the greater trochanter c. be fitted superior (3mm) to the iliac crest d. lie halfway between the inferior costal margin and the iliac crest e. lie halfway between the iliac crest and the greater trochanter
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The axis of rotation of the hip joint can be located… a. anterior/posterior to the greater trochanter b. anterior/superior to the greater trochanter c. posterior/superior to the greater trochanter d. anterior/inferior to the greater trochanter e. posterior/inferior to the greater trochanter
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What is the most frequently fit lumbosacral orthosis in the United States? a. taylor b. knight c. chairback d. corset e. milwaukee
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In fabricating a PTB type of orthosis, it is necessary to carefully form the material in the popliteal area to a. produce adequate anteriorly directed force b. promote quadriceps c. avoid pressure against the posterior tibial artery d. allow for frequent volume changes e. maintain destimulation of the gogi tendon appartus
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Which of the following is not an upper motor neuron injury? a. multiple sclerosis b. cerebral palsy c. spinal injury d. diabetes neuropathy e. cerebro-vascular accident
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As an orthotist your primary concern with a spinal injury patient is… a. distribution of impaired/loss sensation b. skin sensitivity to pressure c. heterotopic ossification d. autonomic dysreflexia e. spasticity
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What nerve is most likely affected on a patient with a foot drop? a. femoral nerve b. obturator nerve c. tibial nerve e. medial plantar nerve
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Aponeurosis is a a. flat tendon b. thin tendinous sheath c. ligamentous expanse d. membrane dividing muscle masses e. lining between joint capsule and synovium
a. flat tendon