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Small Animal Studies > Orthopaedics > Flashcards

Orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

What is a TPLO?

A

Tibial plateau levelling osteotomy

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2
Q

What dogs are suitable for conservative management of cranial cruciate ligament disease?
What is the conservative treatment?

A

Dogs < 15kg

Restricted exercise and analgesia for 608 weeks

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3
Q

What are the 3 types of treatment of cranial cruciate disease?

A

Intracapsular: OTT
Extracapsular: Fabellotibial nylon sutures
Periarticular: TTA or TPLO

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4
Q

How would you describe patellar luxation grade 3?

A

Permanent luxation, reduction possible but reluxates

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5
Q

If a patellar luxation was frequently occurring, and reduction not always immediate, what grade would you class it as?

A

Grade 2

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6
Q

What is the purpose of surgical treatment of patellar luxation?

A

To restore the normal alignment of the quadriceps mechanism

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7
Q

How do you diagnose collateral ligament rupture?

A

Stress radiographs

Widening of joint space

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8
Q

Which is more common, stifle OA or stifle OC?

What is the treatment for stifle OA?

A

Stifle osteoarthritis is more common

TKR (total knee replacement)

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9
Q

What are the 3 landmarks of the hip?

A
  1. Wing of ilium
  2. Ischium
  3. Greater trochanter
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10
Q

How is Hip dysplasia linked to OA?

How does it usually present?

A

Fibrosis occurs as an attempt to stability the joint in HD

Adults dogs with bilateral HL lameness

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11
Q

What does a positive Ortolani test indicate?

A

Laxity of the coxofemoral joint

Characteristic clunk as femoral head is reduced

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12
Q

What radiographic views do you take to assess hip dysplasia?

A 
VD extended (frog-legged)
Lateromedial
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13
Q

What is a TPO?

A 
Triple pelvic osteotomy 
3 osteotomies (cuts), rotation of acetabulum and stabilisation with a plate
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14
Q

What surgical treatments for hip dysplasia can only be done on younger dogs with no OA?

A

JPS (<5 months)

TPO (5-9 months)

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15
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disese?

What breed is it most common in?

A

Ischaemia of the femoral head bone
Deformity and collapse
WHWT (heritable)

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16
Q

What age of dog do capital physeal fractures occur in?

A

Immature (4-7 months)

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17
Q

What is the commonest luxation in small animals?

What are 2 clinical signs?

A

Coxofemoral

More prominent greater trochanter and leg carried in flexion

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18
Q

What is the treatment for a single MT/MC fracture?

What if multiple?

A

Single: External coaption
Multiple: Internal fixation

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19
Q

What is “Sprung toe”

What breed is it commonly seen in?

A

Proximal interphalangeal luxation

Greyhounds

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20
Q

What is a Dorsal slab fracture?

A

Fracture of the central tarsal bone

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21
Q

What causes CQ instability?
What does it present with?
What is the treatment?

A

Rupture of the plantar ligament
Plantigrade stance
Calcaneoquartal arthrodesis (removal of cartilage and plate applied to fuse all tarsal joints)

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22
Q

What tendons make up the common calcaneal tendon/Achille’s?

A 
SDFT (runs over it)
Biceps femoris
Gracilis
Semitendinosus 
Gastrocnemius
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23
Q

What breed is prone to acquired Achille’s tendon rupture?
What is it called?
How does it present?

A

Dobermanns
Gastrocnemius enthesiopathy
Bilateral, “clenching of toes” as SDFT still intact

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24
Q

Which fractures of the pelvis are suitable for conservative management (non weight-bearing)?

A
  1. Pubis
  2. Ischium
  3. Wing of ilium
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25
Q

What type of pelvic fracture is common in cats after RTAs?

What is the treatment?

A 
Sacroiliac separation
Lag screw (one long screw into sacral body)
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26
Q

What is the treatment for acetabular fractures?

Are there other treatments for small dogs/cats?

A 
Internal fixation (plate fixation, contoured on similar pelvis before surgery)
K wires and tension band, FHNE
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27
Q

How is stability generated in Dynamic compression plates (DCPs) and Locking plates?

A

DCPs: Stability through bone plate friction

Locking plates: Stability through interface between screw and plate

28
Q

What type of plate is ideal for use in poor quality bone (juvenile, ostopenic etc.)

A

Locking plates

29
Q

What are the main differences between positional and lag screws?

A

Lag screws compress bone
Lag screws have to be placed PERPENDICULAR to fracture
Lag screws can’t be used in oblique fractures

30
Q

What is the difference between type I and type II frames (external skeletal fixators)?

A

Type I: Unilateral, goes in one side

Type II: Bilateral, goes in one side and out the other

31
Q

What are 3 the disadvantages of IM (intramedullary) pins?

A
  1. Poor at resisting shear and rotational forces
  2. Interferes with medullary blood supply
  3. Difficult in chondrodystrophic dogs (curved and short limbs e.g. dachshunds)
32
Q

What is the main use of IM pins?

A

Medium/long oblique simple fractures WITH external fixator or cerclage wire

33
Q

What type of fracture can an IM pin and Cerclage wire be used for?

A

Long oblique fractures

34
Q

What is the best treatment for a torsion fracture of the diaphyseal tibia?
In this case, what would be the problem with using cerclage wires and IM pins?

A

DC plates and lag screws

Fibula in the way of cerclage wires, IM pin may go across growth plates

35
Q

What would you use for a oblique comminuted non-reconstructable fracture of tibia and fibula in a cat?

A 
Locking plate (so no lag screws, can't use in oblique fractures) and IM pin
Leave the fracture site alone (no screws etc.) as non-reconstructable
36
Q

What is the advantage of arthroscopy, compared to CT and radiography?

A

Can assess cartilage

37
Q

What 4 diseases are part of elbow dysplasia?

A
  1. Medial coronoid disease (MCD)
  2. OCD of the medial aspect of the humeral condyle
  3. Ununited anconeal process (UAP)
  4. Elbow incongruity
38
Q

What are 3 factors thought to be involved in the pathophysiology of MCD?

A
  1. Elbow incongruency
  2. Mechanical overload
  3. Abnormal endochondral ossification
39
Q

What is the pathogenesis of UAP?

A

Elbow incongruency (short ulna)

40
Q

What is the best surgical treatment for UAP?

A

Proximal ulna osteotomy and reattachment of anconeal process

41
Q

What is the surgical treatment for HIF?

A

Transcondylar screw + lateral condylar plating

42
Q

Which breeds are over-represented for humeral condylar fractures and HIFs?
When do humeral condylar fractures typically occur?

A

French bulldogs
English Springer Spaniels
4-5 months

43
Q

What is OATS?

What can it be used to treat?

A

Osteochondral Autograft Transfer System
Replacement of cartilage using host healthy cartilage from another area
OCD

44
Q

What is intraarticular methylprednisolone used to treat?

What is another treatment for this condition?

A

Biceps tendinopathy

Arthroscopic tenotomy

45
Q

Which type of injury presents with a palmigrade stance?

What is it caused by?

A

Carpal hyperextension injury

Damage to the flexor reticulum and palmar fibrocartilage

46
Q

What orthopaedic disease is caused by an inherited immunodeficiency in Weirmaraners?

A

Metaphyseal Osteopathy

47
Q

Which limbs and which bones is Panosteitis most commonly seen in?

A

Forelimbs

Radius and Ulna

48
Q

What is Craniomandibular osteopathy?

A

Non-inflammatory, non-neoplastic proliferative bone disease of immature dogs

49
Q

What is Feline Metaphyseal Osteopathy?

What kind of cats is it common in?

A

Widening and displacement of the capital femoral growth plate
Neutered male, overweight Siamese cats <2 years old

50
Q

Which osteopathy is a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

Hypertrophic osteopathy

Secondary to abdominal or thoracic neoplasia

51
Q

What is Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism caused by?

A

Diets high in phosphorous or low in calcium

Hypocalcaemia causes increased PTH, which induces skeletal demineralisation

52
Q

What bone disorder can chronic kidney disease cause, and how?

A

Renal osteodystrophy
Hyperphosphataemia leads to hypocalcaemia (binds to it), increased PTH
Impaired vitamin D production, which impairs osteoid mineralisation

53
Q

What does increased PTH cause?

A

Increased skeletal demineralisation

54
Q

What does hypocalcaemia cause?

A

Increased PTH secretion

55
Q

What does lack of vitamin D cause?

A

Impaired osteoid mineralisation

56
Q

Which elbow dysplasia causes pain on extension?

A

Medial coronoid disease/fragmented coronoid process

57
Q

What radiographs should you take if you suspect carpal hyperextension injury?

A

STRESSED mediolateral radiographs

Big triangular gap present, compare to other side

58
Q

What dogs are prone to tibial tuberosity avulsions?
How do you treat them?
If left untreated to heal naturally, what is the risk?

A

Young, small breed dogs
4-5 months - before growth plates have closed
Pins and tension band wire (care with putting screws in physis, compression)
Steeper tibial plane, predisposes to cruciate rupture

59
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Infection and inflammation of the bone/bone barrow. From infection in the blood (surgery, injury) entering bone tissue

60
Q

Describe normal joint fluid
How does this change in a septic joint?
How does the turbidity change in OA?

A 
Small volume
Clear/yellow (no turbidity)
High viscosity (sticky)
Septic joint: Larger volume, more turbid and less viscous
OA: No turbidity
61
Q

Where does osteosarcoma most commonly occur?

A

Away from the elbow

Near to the knee

62
Q

OCD commonly occurs in the?

A

Medial malleolus

63
Q

Pancarpal arthrodesis involves fusion of the?

A

Radiocarpal joint

64
Q

What injury is commonly associated with CCL rupture?

A

Medial meniscal injury

Occur in 25-50% of cases

65
Q

How do you diagnose a partial CCL tear?

A

Cranial drawer exam in FLEXION

66
Q

Stressed radiographs of the stifle joint will show a?

A

Collateral ligament rupture

Small Animal Studies (10 decks)

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