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Small Animal Studies > Orthopaedics > Flashcards

Orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

What is a TPLO?

A

Tibial plateau levelling osteotomy

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2
Q

What dogs are suitable for conservative management of cranial cruciate ligament disease?
What is the conservative treatment?

A

Dogs < 15kg

Restricted exercise and analgesia for 608 weeks

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3
Q

What are the 3 types of treatment of cranial cruciate disease?

A

Intracapsular: OTT
Extracapsular: Fabellotibial nylon sutures
Periarticular: TTA or TPLO

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4
Q

How would you describe patellar luxation grade 3?

A

Permanent luxation, reduction possible but reluxates

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5
Q

If a patellar luxation was frequently occurring, and reduction not always immediate, what grade would you class it as?

A

Grade 2

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6
Q

What is the purpose of surgical treatment of patellar luxation?

A

To restore the normal alignment of the quadriceps mechanism

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7
Q

How do you diagnose collateral ligament rupture?

A

Stress radiographs

Widening of joint space

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8
Q

Which is more common, stifle OA or stifle OC?

What is the treatment for stifle OA?

A

Stifle osteoarthritis is more common

TKR (total knee replacement)

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9
Q

What are the 3 landmarks of the hip?

A
  1. Wing of ilium
  2. Ischium
  3. Greater trochanter
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10
Q

How is Hip dysplasia linked to OA?

How does it usually present?

A

Fibrosis occurs as an attempt to stability the joint in HD

Adults dogs with bilateral HL lameness

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11
Q

What does a positive Ortolani test indicate?

A

Laxity of the coxofemoral joint

Characteristic clunk as femoral head is reduced

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12
Q

What radiographic views do you take to assess hip dysplasia?

A 
VD extended (frog-legged)
Lateromedial
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13
Q

What is a TPO?

A 
Triple pelvic osteotomy 
3 osteotomies (cuts), rotation of acetabulum and stabilisation with a plate
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14
Q

What surgical treatments for hip dysplasia can only be done on younger dogs with no OA?

A

JPS (<5 months)

TPO (5-9 months)

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15
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthe’s disese?

What breed is it most common in?

A

Ischaemia of the femoral head bone
Deformity and collapse
WHWT (heritable)

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16
Q

What age of dog do capital physeal fractures occur in?

A

Immature (4-7 months)

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17
Q

What is the commonest luxation in small animals?

What are 2 clinical signs?

A

Coxofemoral

More prominent greater trochanter and leg carried in flexion

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18
Q

What is the treatment for a single MT/MC fracture?

What if multiple?

A

Single: External coaption
Multiple: Internal fixation

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19
Q

What is “Sprung toe”

What breed is it commonly seen in?

A

Proximal interphalangeal luxation

Greyhounds

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20
Q

What is a Dorsal slab fracture?

A

Fracture of the central tarsal bone

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21
Q

What causes CQ instability?
What does it present with?
What is the treatment?

A

Rupture of the plantar ligament
Plantigrade stance
Calcaneoquartal arthrodesis (removal of cartilage and plate applied to fuse all tarsal joints)

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22
Q

What tendons make up the common calcaneal tendon/Achille’s?

A 
SDFT (runs over it)
Biceps femoris
Gracilis
Semitendinosus 
Gastrocnemius
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23
Q

What breed is prone to acquired Achille’s tendon rupture?
What is it called?
How does it present?

A

Dobermanns
Gastrocnemius enthesiopathy
Bilateral, “clenching of toes” as SDFT still intact

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24
Q

Which fractures of the pelvis are suitable for conservative management (non weight-bearing)?

A
  1. Pubis
  2. Ischium
  3. Wing of ilium
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25
What type of pelvic fracture is common in cats after RTAs? | What is the treatment?
``` Sacroiliac separation Lag screw (one long screw into sacral body) ```
26
What is the treatment for acetabular fractures? | Are there other treatments for small dogs/cats?
``` Internal fixation (plate fixation, contoured on similar pelvis before surgery) K wires and tension band, FHNE ```
27
How is stability generated in Dynamic compression plates (DCPs) and Locking plates?
DCPs: Stability through bone plate friction | Locking plates: Stability through interface between screw and plate
28
What type of plate is ideal for use in poor quality bone (juvenile, ostopenic etc.)
Locking plates
29
What are the main differences between positional and lag screws?
Lag screws compress bone Lag screws have to be placed PERPENDICULAR to fracture Lag screws can't be used in oblique fractures
30
What is the difference between type I and type II frames (external skeletal fixators)?
Type I: Unilateral, goes in one side | Type II: Bilateral, goes in one side and out the other
31
What are 3 the disadvantages of IM (intramedullary) pins?
1. Poor at resisting shear and rotational forces 2. Interferes with medullary blood supply 3. Difficult in chondrodystrophic dogs (curved and short limbs e.g. dachshunds)
32
What is the main use of IM pins?
Medium/long oblique simple fractures WITH external fixator or cerclage wire
33
What type of fracture can an IM pin and Cerclage wire be used for?
Long oblique fractures
34
What is the best treatment for a torsion fracture of the diaphyseal tibia? In this case, what would be the problem with using cerclage wires and IM pins?
DC plates and lag screws | Fibula in the way of cerclage wires, IM pin may go across growth plates
35
What would you use for a oblique comminuted non-reconstructable fracture of tibia and fibula in a cat?
``` Locking plate (so no lag screws, can't use in oblique fractures) and IM pin Leave the fracture site alone (no screws etc.) as non-reconstructable ```
36
What is the advantage of arthroscopy, compared to CT and radiography?
Can assess cartilage
37
What 4 diseases are part of elbow dysplasia?
1. Medial coronoid disease (MCD) 2. OCD of the medial aspect of the humeral condyle 3. Ununited anconeal process (UAP) 4. Elbow incongruity
38
What are 3 factors thought to be involved in the pathophysiology of MCD?
1. Elbow incongruency 2. Mechanical overload 3. Abnormal endochondral ossification
39
What is the pathogenesis of UAP?
Elbow incongruency (short ulna)
40
What is the best surgical treatment for UAP?
Proximal ulna osteotomy and reattachment of anconeal process
41
What is the surgical treatment for HIF?
Transcondylar screw + lateral condylar plating
42
Which breeds are over-represented for humeral condylar fractures and HIFs? When do humeral condylar fractures typically occur?
French bulldogs English Springer Spaniels 4-5 months
43
What is OATS? | What can it be used to treat?
Osteochondral Autograft Transfer System Replacement of cartilage using host healthy cartilage from another area OCD
44
What is intraarticular methylprednisolone used to treat? | What is another treatment for this condition?
Biceps tendinopathy | Arthroscopic tenotomy
45
Which type of injury presents with a palmigrade stance? | What is it caused by?
Carpal hyperextension injury | Damage to the flexor reticulum and palmar fibrocartilage
46
What orthopaedic disease is caused by an inherited immunodeficiency in Weirmaraners?
Metaphyseal Osteopathy
47
Which limbs and which bones is Panosteitis most commonly seen in?
Forelimbs | Radius and Ulna
48
What is Craniomandibular osteopathy?
Non-inflammatory, non-neoplastic proliferative bone disease of immature dogs
49
What is Feline Metaphyseal Osteopathy? | What kind of cats is it common in?
Widening and displacement of the capital femoral growth plate Neutered male, overweight Siamese cats <2 years old
50
Which osteopathy is a paraneoplastic syndrome?
Hypertrophic osteopathy | Secondary to abdominal or thoracic neoplasia
51
What is Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism caused by?
Diets high in phosphorous or low in calcium | Hypocalcaemia causes increased PTH, which induces skeletal demineralisation
52
What bone disorder can chronic kidney disease cause, and how?
Renal osteodystrophy Hyperphosphataemia leads to hypocalcaemia (binds to it), increased PTH Impaired vitamin D production, which impairs osteoid mineralisation
53
What does increased PTH cause?
Increased skeletal demineralisation
54
What does hypocalcaemia cause?
Increased PTH secretion
55
What does lack of vitamin D cause?
Impaired osteoid mineralisation
56
Which elbow dysplasia causes pain on extension?
Medial coronoid disease/fragmented coronoid process
57
What radiographs should you take if you suspect carpal hyperextension injury?
STRESSED mediolateral radiographs | Big triangular gap present, compare to other side
58
What dogs are prone to tibial tuberosity avulsions? How do you treat them? If left untreated to heal naturally, what is the risk?
Young, small breed dogs 4-5 months - before growth plates have closed Pins and tension band wire (care with putting screws in physis, compression) Steeper tibial plane, predisposes to cruciate rupture
59
What is osteomyelitis?
Infection and inflammation of the bone/bone barrow. From infection in the blood (surgery, injury) entering bone tissue
60
Describe normal joint fluid How does this change in a septic joint? How does the turbidity change in OA?
``` Small volume Clear/yellow (no turbidity) High viscosity (sticky) Septic joint: Larger volume, more turbid and less viscous OA: No turbidity ```
61
Where does osteosarcoma most commonly occur?
Away from the elbow | Near to the knee
62
OCD commonly occurs in the?
Medial malleolus
63
Pancarpal arthrodesis involves fusion of the?
Radiocarpal joint
64
What injury is commonly associated with CCL rupture?
Medial meniscal injury | Occur in 25-50% of cases
65
How do you diagnose a partial CCL tear?
Cranial drawer exam in FLEXION
66
Stressed radiographs of the stifle joint will show a?
Collateral ligament rupture

Small Animal Studies (10 decks)

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