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Small Animal Studies > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What does VITAMIN D stand for?

A 
V - Vascular
I - Inflammatory
T - Trauma
A - Anomalous 
M - Metabolic
I - Infectious
N - Neoplastic
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2
Q

What is pleocyrosis?

A

Abnormally large amount of lymphocytes in the CSF

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3
Q

What is Discospondylitis?

What is the treatment?

A

Infection of IVD and adjacent vertebrae

8 week antibiotics

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4
Q

What is the prognosis for spinal cord injuries if there is a lack of deep pain perception?
What is this associated with?

A

< 5%

Associated with spinal cord laceration

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5
Q

What spinal malformation are Toy breeds predisposed to?

A

Atlantoaxial instability

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6
Q

What is Chiari-like malformation?

A

Cerebellum and brainstem too big for caudal fossa

Cerebellum displaced caudally out through foramen magnum

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7
Q

What is a clinical sign of Chiari-like malformation?

What is the medical treatment?

A

Neck pain, neck scratching (air guitar)

Gabapentin

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8
Q

What is Fibrocartilagenous embolism (FCE)

How does it present?

A

Fibrocartilage from nucleus pulposus emobolises in spinal cord vasculature, interrupting blood supply to spinal cord
Often at exercise, peracute, non-painful, lateralised signs

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9
Q

What are the differences between IVD in chrondrodystrophic and non-chondrodystrophic breeds?

A 
Chondrodystrophic breeds:
During first 2 years
Nucleus invaded by hyaline cartilage
Nucleus can mineralise
Non-chondrodystrophic breeds:
After middle age
Invasion by fibrocartilage
Mineralisation uncommon
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10
Q

What is the difference between IVDD type I and II?

A

Type I: Extrusion (herniation of nucleus pulposus into spinal canal)
Acute, painful
Type II: Protrusion (annular protrusion, shifting of nuclear material)
Chronic, variable pain

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11
Q

At what grade does the prognosis for IVDD drop dramatically?

A

At Grade 5: Conservative prognosis is 5%, surgical prognosis is 50-60%

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12
Q

In which two spinal diseases is IVDD Type II (protrusion) though to be involved?

A
  1. “Wobblers” (Cervical spondylomyelopathy)

2. Lumbosacral degenerative stenosis

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13
Q

What are the characteristics of Spinal Neoplasia?

A

Chronic
Progressive
Painful

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14
Q

What is degenerative myelopathy?

What is the diagnosis and treatment?

A

Insidious, progressive ataxia and paresis of hindlimbs
Leads to paralysis
By exclusion or genetic test
No treatment: Physio prolongs QOL

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15
Q

How would you expect the bladder to be in lesions cranial to sacral SC?
What about lesions in or caudal to sacral SC?

A

Tense and distended, difficult to express

Floppy and distended, overflowing and dribbling

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16
Q

What is a stress leukogram?

A

Lymphopenia, neutrophilia

Eosinopenia, monocytosis

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17
Q

What is myelography?

A

Injection of contrast material into the spinal cord and subarachnoid space
Visualisation using radiography (real time - fluoroscopy) or CT

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18
Q

What should you always do before performing myelography?

A

Take CSF and check for cloudiness/turbidity

Suggestive of inflammatory process

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19
Q

What would you see with myelography of IVD herniation

A

Extradural

Axial displacement of contrast column(s)

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20
Q

What do cell counts in CSF correlate with?

A

Exfoliation into CSF

NOT severity of disease

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21
Q

Which 2 sites can you sample CSF from?

When should you not sample CSF?

A
  1. Cerebellomedullary cistern
  2. Lumbar cistern
    Increased intracranial pressure
    Coagulopathy
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22
Q

What is the Neostigmine Response test used to diagnose?
What does Neostigmine do?
What side-effect can occur, and what is the treatment?

A

Acquired Myasthenia gravis
Prolongs action of acetylcholine at the NMJ
Cholinergic crisis (miosis, dysponea, tremors, bradycardia)
Atropine

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23
Q

What is EEG (electroencephalography) used for?

A

Assessing forebrain activity and identification of seizures

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24
Q

Which is inhibitory and which is excitatory?

GABA and Glutamate

A

GABA: Inhibitory
Glutamate: Excitatory

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25
Q

What are the 4 stages of a seizure?

A
  1. Prodromal
  2. Aura
  3. Ictal
  4. Post-ictal
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26
Q

What is the signalment for Audiogenic reflex seizures?

What is a reflex seizure?

A

Cats, 15 years old

A seizure that is precipitated by environmental/internal stimuli

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27
Q

What is a reactive seizure?

A

Seizure as a natural response in the brain to a transient disturbance in function (metabolic, toxic)

28
Q

What is structural epilepsy?

A

Seizures due to intracranial or cerebral pathology (inflammatory, neoplastic, traumatic)

29
Q

What is the age range for Idiopathic epilepsy?
What is the origin?
Are concurrent neurological signs present?

A

6 months - 6 years
Genetic
No inter-ictal neurological signs

30
Q

What 3 tests are included in Tier II confidence interval for diagnosis of Idiopathic epilepsy?

A
  1. Unremarkable bile acids
  2. MRI of the brain
  3. CSF analysis
    (+ factors in tier I)
31
Q

What is Phenobarbitone contraindicated in?

Why?

A

Hepatic dysfunction

Potent inducer of Cytochrome P450 enzyme activity (increases reactive oxygen species)

32
Q 
What is the mechanism of? 
1. Phenobarbitone?
2. Bromide?
3. Imepitoin?
Which must be regularly monitored when used as a treatment for epilepsy?
A
  1. Increases inhibitory effect of GABA
  2. Raises the seizure threshold (hyperpolarisation)
  3. Partial agonist for GABA receptors (benzodiazepine binding site)
    Phenobarbitone and Bromide
33
Q

What is the treatment for Audiogenic reflex seizures in cats?
What is this drug also indicated in?

A

Levetiracetam

Treatment of seizures in animals with hepatic dysfunction (liver disease/PSS)

34
Q

How do you stop a seizure?

A

Diazepam (per-rectum)

Midazolam (intransally)

35
Q

What is Status Epilepticus?

A

Seizure lasting over 5 minutes, or

Over 2 seizures without full recovery

36
Q

What are Cluster seizures?

A

2 or more seizures within 24 hours

37
Q

What must you tell owners when administering potassium bromide?

A

Diet needs to be constant

38
Q

What are the only licensed drugs in dogs for epilepsy?

A

Potassium bromide
Phenobarbitone (not as a monotherapy)
Imepition (only as a monotherapy)

39
Q

How long does Potassium Bromide take to reach optimal levels in the blood?

A

12 weeks

40
Q

What is Polyradiculoneuritis?

What is the onset and progression?

A

Inflammation of nerves and roots

Acute onset, rapidly progressive (days)

41
Q

What type of neuromuscular disorder do you frequently see megaoesophagus?

A

Myaesthenia gravis

42
Q

What is the treatment for Myaesthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine or neostigmine (anti-cholinesterase)

43
Q

What would you see on haematology and biochemistry with immune-mediated polymyositis?
What is the treatment?

A

Inflammatory leucogram
Elevated AST/CK
Prednisolone

44
Q

Which protozoa are involved in infectious myositis?

A

Neospora caninum

Toxoplasma gondii

45
Q

What neuromuscular disease can cause a “dropped jaw”

A

Trigeminal neuritis

46
Q

What are half of unilateral temporal muscle atrophy cases caused by?
What is the treatment?

A

Trigeminal nerve sheath tumour

Radiotherapy or prednisolone (palliative)

47
Q

What are the most common clinical signs of Horner’s syndrome in dogs?

A

Miosis (pupil constriction), ptosis (drooping of upper eyelid, and enophthalmos (sunken eye)

48
Q

What is myelopathy?

A

Injury to the spinal cord caused by compression

49
Q

What is the calculation for CPP (Cerebral Perfusion Pressure)?

A

CPP = MABP - ICP

50
Q

What is the Cushing’s reflex? (due to increased ICP)

A

Hypertension (systemic vasoconstriction)

Bradycardia (vagal activation)

51
Q

In head trauma, how does primary injury lead to secondary injury?

A

Primary injury: Physical disruption of parenchyma
Secondary injury:
Inflammatory mediators, continued haemorrhage and oedema all lead to increased ICP

52
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

Which breeds are predisposed?

A

Abnormal dilation of ventricular system within cranium

Toy breeds

53
Q

What are the main causes of hepatic encephalopathy?

A 
Liver failure (acute or chronic)
PSS
54
Q

How is lactulose used to treat hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Traps ammonia in the gut, decreasing its absorption

Also decreases absorption of glutamine in gut

55
Q

How do you diagnose hypoglycaemia?

A

Glucometer

Less than 3mmol/L

56
Q

What do hypernatraemia and hyponatraemia do to cells?

What happens if chronic hypernatraemia is corrected too quickly?

A

Hypernatraemia: Cell shrinkage
Hyponatraemia: Cell swelling
Cerebral oedema and raised intracerebral pressure

57
Q

What does hypocalcaemia cause?

A

Increased excitability and spontaneous discharge of nerve fibers
Muscle contraction and tetany

58
Q

What degenerative changes occur in the brain, causing cognitive dysfunction?

A
  1. Neurofibrillary tangles
  2. Senile plaques
  3. Beta-amyloid accumulation
59
Q

What are the treatments for cognitive dysfunction?

A

Selegiline
Antioxidants
Behaviour modification/environmental enrichment

60
Q

What do the Macula and Crista Ampullaris detect changes in?

A

Macula: Changes in position

Crista Ampullaris: Acceleration/deceleration

61
Q

Which type of nystagmus is ONLT seen with central vestibular dysfunction?

A

Vertical

62
Q

Acute idiopathic vestibular syndrome commonly presents with what clinical sign, and in what age of dog?
Is it peripheral or central?

A

Horizontal nystagmus
Older dogs
Peripheral

63
Q

What type of head tilt can occur with ischaemic/haemorrhagic infarction?

A

Paradoxical (away from lesions)

64
Q

What is the difference in clinical signs of Metronidazole toxicity in cats compared to dogs?
What is the treatment?

A

Both are ataxic
Cats present with more severe signs: blindness and seizures
Dogs: Horizontal nystagmus, and vomiting
Diazepam

65
Q

How does otitis media/interna cause vestibular dysfunction?

A

Ascending infection to the vestibulocochlear nerve

66
Q

What kind of deafness are animals with white pigmentation and blue eyes predisposed to?

A

Congenital sensorineural deafness

Small Animal Studies (10 decks)

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