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Small Animal Studies > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What does VITAMIN D stand for?

A 
V - Vascular
I - Inflammatory
T - Trauma
A - Anomalous 
M - Metabolic
I - Infectious
N - Neoplastic
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2
Q

What is pleocyrosis?

A

Abnormally large amount of lymphocytes in the CSF

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3
Q

What is Discospondylitis?

What is the treatment?

A

Infection of IVD and adjacent vertebrae

8 week antibiotics

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4
Q

What is the prognosis for spinal cord injuries if there is a lack of deep pain perception?
What is this associated with?

A

< 5%

Associated with spinal cord laceration

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5
Q

What spinal malformation are Toy breeds predisposed to?

A

Atlantoaxial instability

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6
Q

What is Chiari-like malformation?

A

Cerebellum and brainstem too big for caudal fossa

Cerebellum displaced caudally out through foramen magnum

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7
Q

What is a clinical sign of Chiari-like malformation?

What is the medical treatment?

A

Neck pain, neck scratching (air guitar)

Gabapentin

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8
Q

What is Fibrocartilagenous embolism (FCE)

How does it present?

A

Fibrocartilage from nucleus pulposus emobolises in spinal cord vasculature, interrupting blood supply to spinal cord
Often at exercise, peracute, non-painful, lateralised signs

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9
Q

What are the differences between IVD in chrondrodystrophic and non-chondrodystrophic breeds?

A 
Chondrodystrophic breeds:
During first 2 years
Nucleus invaded by hyaline cartilage
Nucleus can mineralise
Non-chondrodystrophic breeds:
After middle age
Invasion by fibrocartilage
Mineralisation uncommon
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10
Q

What is the difference between IVDD type I and II?

A

Type I: Extrusion (herniation of nucleus pulposus into spinal canal)
Acute, painful
Type II: Protrusion (annular protrusion, shifting of nuclear material)
Chronic, variable pain

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11
Q

At what grade does the prognosis for IVDD drop dramatically?

A

At Grade 5: Conservative prognosis is 5%, surgical prognosis is 50-60%

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12
Q

In which two spinal diseases is IVDD Type II (protrusion) though to be involved?

A
  1. “Wobblers” (Cervical spondylomyelopathy)

2. Lumbosacral degenerative stenosis

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13
Q

What are the characteristics of Spinal Neoplasia?

A

Chronic
Progressive
Painful

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14
Q

What is degenerative myelopathy?

What is the diagnosis and treatment?

A

Insidious, progressive ataxia and paresis of hindlimbs
Leads to paralysis
By exclusion or genetic test
No treatment: Physio prolongs QOL

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15
Q

How would you expect the bladder to be in lesions cranial to sacral SC?
What about lesions in or caudal to sacral SC?

A

Tense and distended, difficult to express

Floppy and distended, overflowing and dribbling

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16
Q

What is a stress leukogram?

A

Lymphopenia, neutrophilia

Eosinopenia, monocytosis

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17
Q

What is myelography?

A

Injection of contrast material into the spinal cord and subarachnoid space
Visualisation using radiography (real time - fluoroscopy) or CT

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18
Q

What should you always do before performing myelography?

A

Take CSF and check for cloudiness/turbidity

Suggestive of inflammatory process

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19
Q

What would you see with myelography of IVD herniation

A

Extradural

Axial displacement of contrast column(s)

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20
Q

What do cell counts in CSF correlate with?

A

Exfoliation into CSF

NOT severity of disease

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21
Q

Which 2 sites can you sample CSF from?

When should you not sample CSF?

A
  1. Cerebellomedullary cistern
  2. Lumbar cistern
    Increased intracranial pressure
    Coagulopathy
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22
Q

What is the Neostigmine Response test used to diagnose?
What does Neostigmine do?
What side-effect can occur, and what is the treatment?

A

Acquired Myasthenia gravis
Prolongs action of acetylcholine at the NMJ
Cholinergic crisis (miosis, dysponea, tremors, bradycardia)
Atropine

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23
Q

What is EEG (electroencephalography) used for?

A

Assessing forebrain activity and identification of seizures

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24
Q

Which is inhibitory and which is excitatory?

GABA and Glutamate

A

GABA: Inhibitory
Glutamate: Excitatory

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25
What are the 4 stages of a seizure?
1. Prodromal 2. Aura 3. Ictal 4. Post-ictal
26
What is the signalment for Audiogenic reflex seizures? | What is a reflex seizure?
Cats, 15 years old | A seizure that is precipitated by environmental/internal stimuli
27
What is a reactive seizure?
Seizure as a natural response in the brain to a transient disturbance in function (metabolic, toxic)
28
What is structural epilepsy?
Seizures due to intracranial or cerebral pathology (inflammatory, neoplastic, traumatic)
29
What is the age range for Idiopathic epilepsy? What is the origin? Are concurrent neurological signs present?
6 months - 6 years Genetic No inter-ictal neurological signs
30
What 3 tests are included in Tier II confidence interval for diagnosis of Idiopathic epilepsy?
1. Unremarkable bile acids 2. MRI of the brain 3. CSF analysis (+ factors in tier I)
31
What is Phenobarbitone contraindicated in? | Why?
Hepatic dysfunction | Potent inducer of Cytochrome P450 enzyme activity (increases reactive oxygen species)
32
``` What is the mechanism of? 1. Phenobarbitone? 2. Bromide? 3. Imepitoin? Which must be regularly monitored when used as a treatment for epilepsy? ```
1. Increases inhibitory effect of GABA 2. Raises the seizure threshold (hyperpolarisation) 3. Partial agonist for GABA receptors (benzodiazepine binding site) Phenobarbitone and Bromide
33
What is the treatment for Audiogenic reflex seizures in cats? What is this drug also indicated in?
Levetiracetam | Treatment of seizures in animals with hepatic dysfunction (liver disease/PSS)
34
How do you stop a seizure?
Diazepam (per-rectum) | Midazolam (intransally)
35
What is Status Epilepticus?
Seizure lasting over 5 minutes, or | Over 2 seizures without full recovery
36
What are Cluster seizures?
2 or more seizures within 24 hours
37
What must you tell owners when administering potassium bromide?
Diet needs to be constant
38
What are the only licensed drugs in dogs for epilepsy?
Potassium bromide Phenobarbitone (not as a monotherapy) Imepition (only as a monotherapy)
39
How long does Potassium Bromide take to reach optimal levels in the blood?
12 weeks
40
What is Polyradiculoneuritis? | What is the onset and progression?
Inflammation of nerves and roots | Acute onset, rapidly progressive (days)
41
What type of neuromuscular disorder do you frequently see megaoesophagus?
Myaesthenia gravis
42
What is the treatment for Myaesthenia gravis?
Pyridostigmine or neostigmine (anti-cholinesterase)
43
What would you see on haematology and biochemistry with immune-mediated polymyositis? What is the treatment?
Inflammatory leucogram Elevated AST/CK Prednisolone
44
Which protozoa are involved in infectious myositis?
Neospora caninum | Toxoplasma gondii
45
What neuromuscular disease can cause a "dropped jaw"
Trigeminal neuritis
46
What are half of unilateral temporal muscle atrophy cases caused by? What is the treatment?
Trigeminal nerve sheath tumour | Radiotherapy or prednisolone (palliative)
47
What are the most common clinical signs of Horner's syndrome in dogs?
Miosis (pupil constriction), ptosis (drooping of upper eyelid, and enophthalmos (sunken eye)
48
What is myelopathy?
Injury to the spinal cord caused by compression
49
What is the calculation for CPP (Cerebral Perfusion Pressure)?
CPP = MABP - ICP
50
What is the Cushing's reflex? (due to increased ICP)
Hypertension (systemic vasoconstriction) | Bradycardia (vagal activation)
51
In head trauma, how does primary injury lead to secondary injury?
Primary injury: Physical disruption of parenchyma Secondary injury: Inflammatory mediators, continued haemorrhage and oedema all lead to increased ICP
52
What is hydrocephalus? | Which breeds are predisposed?
Abnormal dilation of ventricular system within cranium | Toy breeds
53
What are the main causes of hepatic encephalopathy?
``` Liver failure (acute or chronic) PSS ```
54
How is lactulose used to treat hepatic encephalopathy?
Traps ammonia in the gut, decreasing its absorption | Also decreases absorption of glutamine in gut
55
How do you diagnose hypoglycaemia?
Glucometer | Less than 3mmol/L
56
What do hypernatraemia and hyponatraemia do to cells? | What happens if chronic hypernatraemia is corrected too quickly?
Hypernatraemia: Cell shrinkage Hyponatraemia: Cell swelling Cerebral oedema and raised intracerebral pressure
57
What does hypocalcaemia cause?
Increased excitability and spontaneous discharge of nerve fibers Muscle contraction and tetany
58
What degenerative changes occur in the brain, causing cognitive dysfunction?
1. Neurofibrillary tangles 2. Senile plaques 3. Beta-amyloid accumulation
59
What are the treatments for cognitive dysfunction?
Selegiline Antioxidants Behaviour modification/environmental enrichment
60
What do the Macula and Crista Ampullaris detect changes in?
Macula: Changes in position | Crista Ampullaris: Acceleration/deceleration
61
Which type of nystagmus is ONLT seen with central vestibular dysfunction?
Vertical
62
Acute idiopathic vestibular syndrome commonly presents with what clinical sign, and in what age of dog? Is it peripheral or central?
Horizontal nystagmus Older dogs Peripheral
63
What type of head tilt can occur with ischaemic/haemorrhagic infarction?
Paradoxical (away from lesions)
64
What is the difference in clinical signs of Metronidazole toxicity in cats compared to dogs? What is the treatment?
Both are ataxic Cats present with more severe signs: blindness and seizures Dogs: Horizontal nystagmus, and vomiting Diazepam
65
How does otitis media/interna cause vestibular dysfunction?
Ascending infection to the vestibulocochlear nerve
66
What kind of deafness are animals with white pigmentation and blue eyes predisposed to?
Congenital sensorineural deafness

Small Animal Studies (10 decks)

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