Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common bacterial skin commensal?

What is the most common fungal skin commensal?

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

Malassezia

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2
Q

What is an example of a primary skin pathogen?

A

Dermatophytes

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3
Q

What is pyotraumatic dermatitis caused by?

What is the treatment?

A

Self-trauma due to underlying trigger: allergy, pruritus, pain
Clip, clean, topical antiseptics/antimicrobials, steroids

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4
Q

What is the common locations for Bacterial Overgrowth?

What is the differential diagnosis

A

Ventral trunk and interdigital spaces

Malassezia dermatitis

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5
Q

What may you see on cytological examination of deep pyoderma that you wouldn’t see with superficial or surface pyoderma?

A

Erythrocytes

Macrophages

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6
Q

Is surface pyoderma pyogenic? What WOULDN’T you see on cytological exmination?

A

Not pyogenic

Wouldn’t see neutrophils

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7
Q

What is the best way to sample a deep pyodermal infection for culture?

A

Fresh tissue sample (biopsy punch)

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8
Q

What is MRSP?

What is it resistant to?

A

Meticillin Resistant S. pseudintermedius
Beta-lactams (penicillins) + fluoroquinolones
Can be multidrug resistant or panresistant

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9
Q

What are risk factors for MRSP?

A

Hospital admission
Multiple vet visits
Previous (especially broad spectrum) systemic antimicrobials

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10
Q

How long should you treat deep pyoderma with systemic antimicrobials?
What do you do if progress stops with treatment?

A

Treat past clinical, cytological and palpable cure (4-12 weeks)
Repeat culture

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11
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of pathogenesis of Canine Atopic Dermatitis?

A
  1. Cutaneous inflammation and pruritus
  2. Defective skin barrier function
  3. Microbial colonisation
  4. Other flare factors
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12
Q

What is the age range at which dogs develop signs of cAD?

What about FIAD?

A

< 3 years old (up to 6 years)

FIAD < 1 year old

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13
Q

How many of Favrot’s criteria is needed for a diagnosis of cAD with 85% sensitivity and 79% specificity

A

5/7 criteria

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14
Q

Name a pruritic cytokine involved in cAD

A

Interleukin-31 (IL-31)

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15
Q

Name a pruritic cytokine involved in cAD

What specific therapy targets this?

A

Interleukin-31 (IL-31)
Lokivetmab (Cytopoint) injections
Anti-canine IL-31 monoclonal antibody

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16
Q

When should oclacitinib (Apoquel) NOT be used?

A

In dogs < 12 months

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17
Q

When should oclacitinib (Apoquel) NOT be used?

What is its action?

A

In dogs < 12 months, immunosuppressed
Breeding dogs
Serious infections Underlying neoplasia
Janus kinase inhibitor (JAK 1)

18
Q

If ear margins are affected, what is your most likely diagnosis?

A

Mites

NOT cAD

19
Q

If ear margins are affected, what is your most likely diagnosis?
If dorso-lumbar area affected?

A

Mites
Fleas
NOT cAD

20
Q

What is a signs of a compromised skin barrier?

A

Increased transepidermal water loss

21
Q

What is an adverse effect of systemic glucocorticoids in relation to the endocrine system?

A

Iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism

22
Q

What is the mechanism of Ciclosporin (Atopica)?

Why is it not often used?

A

Oral calcineurin inhibitor

Expensive in large breed dogs

23
Q

Rate the treatments for cAD with:
Ant-inflammatory
To
Antipruritic

A

Corticosteroids/systemic glucocorticoids
Ciclosporin
Oclacitinib
Lokivetmab

24
Q

Which is the gold-standard for elimination diets?

A

Home-cooked

25
What part of the body is Oclacitinib not advised for? What is the risk?
Feet | Pododermatitis
26
What are two differential diagnosis for ear margin seborrhea? What breed is predisposed to it?
1. Scabies 2. Vasculitis (early) Dachshunds
27
What two types of glands are located in the ear?
Sebaceous and ceruminous
28
What is a common disease progression of secondary disease in otitis externa?
1. Malassezia 2. Staphylococci 3. Gram -ve rods Psudemonas aeruginosa (end-point)
29
Name 3 primary causes of otitis externa
Grass seeds Parasites FIAD/cAD
30
Name 3 perpetuating causes of otitis externa
1. Rupture/dilation of tymphanum 2. Hyperplasia of glandular tissue 3. Changes in ear canal (stenosis, oedema, hyperplasia, inflammation)
31
Name 4 predisposing causes of otitis externa
1. Ear confirmation 2. Obstructive (polyps, neoplasia) 3. Water 4. Altered microflora
32
What are 3 consequences of Otitis Media?
1. Conduction deafness 2. Vestibular syndrome 3. Horner's syndrome
33
What breeds can present with PSOM (Primary Secretory Otitis Media)
CKCS | Brachycephalics
34
What is myringotomy? | Where is the incision made?
Creating a hole in the tymphanic membrane for sampling/fluid drainage Caudoventral aspect of pars tensa
35
What 4 clinical signs can present with otitis interna?
1. Head tilt (towards the affected side) 2. Falling 3. Vomiting/anorexia 4. Asymmetrical limb ataxia (NO PARESIS)
36
What is the most likely cause of these type of exudates from the ear? 1. Dry coffee grounds 2. Moist brown exudate 3. Purulent yellow/green + malodourous 4. Ceruminous discharge, little smell
1. Otodectes cynotis 2. Staphylococcus spp. or Malassezia spp. 3. Pseudomonas spp. (or other gram -ves) 4. cAD, FIAD
37
How do you check the integrity of the tymphanic membrane?
Flush back and forth with sterile saline, if bubble(s) appear there is a hole present
38
When should you ALWAYS do bacteriology in otitis?
If rods present (for antibiotic choice) If treatment failure or suspicion of MRS(P) In pyogranulomatous inflammation (hard to see organisms on cytology)
39
What type of ear cleaner should you pick if presented with waxy discharge? What abut mucoid, purulent discharge?
Ceruminolytics (emulsify ear wax for easier removal, Cleanaural) High water content (TRIZChlor or Otodine)
40
What should you NOT use in the treatment of Chronic allergic otitis? (FIAD, cAD)
Antibiotics | Use cleaning, control of the cAD, and local topical steroids
41
What does Psuedomonas cause in the tymphanic membrane and how?
TM rupture | Production of collagenase
42
What is the treatment for Pseudomonas otitis?
Ear cleaner - TRIZChlor (disenfectant) Ear cream - Marbofloxacin/Dexamethasone Prednisolone