Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals > Orthopaedics > Flashcards

Orthopaedics Flashcards

1
Q

What is used to assess fracture risk

A

FRAX tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is squaring of thumbs seen in

A

OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Presentation of a prolapsed disc

A

Back pain worse on sitting
Leg pain worse than back pain
Associated relevant sensory and motor deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Management of prolapsed disc

A

1st line- physio, exercise, NSAID with PPI
If no response after 6 weeks do MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What predisposes people to tendon problems

A

High cholesterol forming tendon xanthomata
Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Eccentric vs concentric movements

A

Eccentric lengthens a joint like elbow extension
Concentric shortens like elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Presentation of achilles tendonitis

A

Pain in heel worse after exercise
Like in inflammatory disorders
- morning pain and stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Achilles tendonitis management

A

Supportive
- analgesia
- physio if persists beyond 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Presentation of Achilles heel rupture

A

Feel pop when playing sport
Debilitating pain in heel/calf-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Examination findings of achilles rupture

A

Simmonds positive
Greater dorsiflexion of that foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

First line imaging for suspected achilles rupture

A

USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of achilles rupture

A

Ortho referral immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of ganglion cyst

A

Will resolve in a few months
Surgery if severe sx or neurovascular compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Presentation of ganglion cyst

A

Lump on dorsal aspect of wrist
Firm and transilluminates
More common in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Examination finding of ganglion cyst

A

Firm and transilluminable cyst most commonly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a ganglion

A

Cyst arising from tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What exercises used for achilles tendonitis

A

Eccentric stretching of achilles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do if achilles tendonitis fails to respond to analgesia

A

If no improvement after 7 days refer for physio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is phalens sign

A

Carpal tunnel sx worsened by flexion of wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is tinels sign

A

Tapping on median nerve leads to parasthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What nerve compressed in carpal tunnel

A

Median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Carpal tunnel presentation

A

Pain or pins and needles in the median nerve distribution- middle finger to thumb
Shaking hand to relieve sx especially at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Electrophysiology findings of carpal tunnel

A

Prolongation of motor and sensory action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are exam findings in carpal tunnel

A

Wasting of thenar eminence
Reduced thumb abduction
Sensory loss middle finger to thumb
Tinels and phalens signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What can cause carpal tunnel

A

Idiopathic
RA
Oedema
Pregnancy
Acromegaly
Amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Management of carpal tunnel

A

Mild/moderate- options include wrist splint (especially if transient cause like pregnancy), corticosteroid injections
Severe- decompression by dividing flexor retinaculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Management of carpal tunnel if pregnant

A

Wrist splint as only transient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Presentation of stress fractures

A

Prolonged usage of that limb
Sudden onset severe pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

X ray finding of stress fracture

A

Callous formation at site of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Management of stress fractures

A

If very severe pain then immobilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is tibial stress syndrome

A

Constant pressure in legs seen in athletes and military personnel leads to pain and tenderness over the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management of tibial stress syndrome

A

Rest and recovery
Do an x ray to rule out a stress fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Causes of cauda equina syndrome

A

Most common- central disc prolapse
Tumours
Haematomas
Abscesses
Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Presentation of cauda equina

A

Back pain
Bilateral sciatica
Saddle paraesthesia/ pins and needles
Reduced anal tone
Incontinence is a late sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a late sign of cauda equina

A

Urinary incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Management of patient with cauda equina

A

Urgent MRI
Surgical decompression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does positive straight leg test indicate

A

sciatic nerve pain from prolapsed disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Knee pain which worse after exercise in teenager, causes knee to lock and clunk

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When urgently do MRI in sciatica

A

Weakness or parasthesia
Bladder or bowel dysfunction
Bilateral symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Second line options for prolapsed discs

A

Neuropathic analgesiacs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do if prolapsed discs fail to respond to NSAIDs, physio and neuropathic options

A

Injections or a surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What causes a colles fracture

A

Falling on outstretched hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What causes a smiths fracture

A

Falling onto posterior side of hand/wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How investigate compartment syndrome

A

Intracompartmental pressure measurements
Above 40 is diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Key presentation features of compartment syndrome

A

Pain on movement
Pallor
Swelling
Paralysis
Parasthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are risk factors for compartment syndrome

A

Supracondylar fractures
Tibial shaft injuries
Fixation with intramedullary nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What use to determine if ankle x ray needed for suspected fracture

A

Ottowa rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When need to use x ray for suspected ankle fracture

A

If pain in ankle area plus 1 of
- bony tenderness in lateral malleolar zone
- bony tenderness in medial malleolar zone
- unable to walk 4 steps after injury and in ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the medial and lateral malleolus zone

A

Medial- within 6 cm upwards from medial malleolus
Lateral- within 6cm upwards from lateral malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is cubital tunnel syndrome

A

Compression of the ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Presentation of cubital tunnel syndrome

A

Tingling and numbness in the 4th and 5th fingers
May develop weakness and muscle wasting in that area
Pain worse when lean on elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Management principals of cubital tunnel syndrome

A

Physio, steroid injections
Surgery if resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How differentiate avascular necrosis of hip from osteoarthritis of hip

A

Avascular necrosis may present with night pain
Exacerbated by exercise too
No stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Causes of avascular necrosis of hip

A

Steroids use
Chemo
Alcohol xs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How image avascular necrosis of hip

A

Plain x ray most likely will be normal but can see crescent sign
MRI investigation of choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Management of avascular necrosis of hip

A

Joint replacement may be necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is pathology in colles fracture and which nerve at risk of being damaged

A

Falling onto an outstretched hands causing distal radial fracture with dorsal displacement of fragments
Median nerve vulnerable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is dinner fork type deformity seen in

A

Colles fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Plantar fasciitis presentation

A

Heel pain worse when walking
Most commonly affected under the back of heel on bony part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Management of plantar fasciitis

A

Rest
Shoes with good arch and cushioned heels
Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In which metatarsal are stress fractures most commonly seen in

A

2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is immediate management of an ankle fracture

A

Prompt closed reduction to prevent damage to skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What factors make more likely to operate on ankle fractures

A

Young
Proximal injury
High velocity
Unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is most common reason for having to revise a total hip replacement

A

Aseptic loosening of the implant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does tibia displacing posteriorly on application of force suggest

A

PCL rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Imaging for spinal canal stenosis

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Management of lumbar spinal stenosis

A

Laminectomy- removes part of vertebral bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is de quervains tenosynovitis

A

Inflammation of the sheath surrounding the extensor pollicis and abductor pollicis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Presentation of de quervains tenosynovitis

A

Pain on radial side of wrist
Abduction of thumb painful
Positive finkelsteins test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is finkelsteins test

A

Put the wrist in ulnar deviation-pull the thumb in abduction movement and will recreate pain over radial styloid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does positive finkelsteins test show

A

De quervains tenosynovitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Management of de quervains tenosynovitis options

A

Analgesia
Steroid injection
Thumb splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Management of rib fractures

A

Conservative- ensure good analgesia to make sure breathing not affected by pain, physio too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are complications of rib fractures

A

Pneumothorax
Haemothorax
Poor ventilation leading to chest infections
Flail chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Management of flail chest from rib fractures

A

Discuss with cardiothoracics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What can be used if simple analgesia does not work for rib fractures

A

Intercostal nerve blocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When consider surgery for rib fractures

A

12 weeks and no healing
Flail chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What imaging need to do for rib fractures

A

CT following CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why give analgesia and physio after a rib fracture

A

To ensure good ventilation thus reducing infection risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How does leg appear in hip fracture

A

Short and externally rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Garden classification of hip fractures

A

Type I: Stable fracture with impaction in valgus
Type II: Complete fracture but undisplaced
Type III: Displaced fracture, usually rotated and angulated, but still has boney contact
Type IV: Complete boney disruption

stage I and II are stable fractures and can be treated with internal fixation (head-preservation)
stage III and IV are unstable fractures and treated with arthroplasty (either hemi- or total arthroplasty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Intra vs extra capsular hip fractures

A

Intra capsular= the angled capsule
Extracapsular= top part of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How are extracapsular hip fractures classified

A

Intertrochanteric
Subtrochanteric
Dividing line is horizontal to the the lesser trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Management of intracapsular fractures in elderly

A

Undisplaced= internal fixation
Displaced= arthroplasty- total preferred if able to walk independantly with stick or more, cognitively functional and medically fit for anaesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Management of extracapsular hip fractures

A

Dynamic hip screw
- stable intertrochanteric
Intramedullar device
- subtrochanteric

85
Q

What undergoes wasting in carpal tunnel

A

Thenar eminence

86
Q

What is a greenstick fracture

A

Bending of bone leads to break in cortex

87
Q

What is a buckle fracture

A

Caused by pressure leading to buckle or shortening

88
Q

What is the meniscus

A

Cartilage sitting on the knee joint

89
Q

Presentation of meniscal tear

A

Twisting injuries
- knee may give way
- pain worse on straightening knee
- locking

90
Q

Twisting injury that leads to pain on extension of knee

A

Meniscal tear

91
Q

Imaging for meniscal tear

A

MRI

92
Q

What is thessalys test

A

Weight bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion, supported by doctor leas to pain on twisting

93
Q

What does positive thessalys test indicate

A

Meniscal tear

94
Q

What does a positive mcmurrays test reveal

A

Meniscal tear

95
Q

What is mcmurrays test

A

Patient lies down
Flex hip and knee holding sole and knee with either hand
Internally rotate whilst extending the knee
Positive test shown by click or pain on movement

96
Q

What organism causes osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients

A

Salmonella

97
Q

Fall mechanism in posterior cruciate ligament injuries

A

Hyperextension injuries

98
Q

Fall mechanism in anterior cruciate ligaments

A

Twisting force applied to a bent knee

99
Q

Presentation of ACL injuries

A

Cracking sound
Pain
Rapid swelling

100
Q

Meralgia parasthetica presentation

A

Pain and burning sensation over upper lateral aspect of thigh
Symptoms worsened by standing up and relieved by sitting

101
Q

Presentation of fat embolism

A

CNS
- confused
- retinal haemorrhages
Petechial rash
Tachycardia
Fever and dyspnoea

102
Q

Iliotibiral band syndrome presentation

A

Tenderness above lateral joint line
Lateral knee pain in runners

103
Q

Management of iliotibial band syndrome

A

Activity modification and iliotibial band stretches
2nd line physio

104
Q

What is a bakers cyst

A

Popliteal cysts which develop as part of a bursa behind the knee

105
Q

Causes of bakers cysts

A

In children- idiopathic
Adults- osteoarthritis

106
Q

Mechanism of fall in saphoid fracture

A

Falling onto outstretched hand

107
Q

Presentation of scaphoid fracture

A

Falling onto an outstretched hand
Pain along radial aspect of wrist
Loss of grip and pinch strength

108
Q

Investigations for suspected scaphoid fractures

A

Plain X rays in PA, lateral, PA with ulnar and oblique views first line
MRI gold standard and used if x rays inconclusive

109
Q

Immediate management of scaphoid fracture

A

Immobilisation with futuro splint or below elbow backslab
Refer to orthopaedics, if radiographs inconclusive then review in 7-10 days

110
Q

What do if initial radiographs are inconclusive for scaphoid fracture

A

Review in 10 days
Put in futuro splint in meantime

111
Q

Ortho management of scaphoid fractures

A

Undisplaced scaphoid waist fractures
- cast for 6-8 weeks
Displaced waist fracture
- surgical fixation
Proximal scaphoid pole fractures
- surgical fixation

112
Q

What is the most concerning type of scaphoid fracture

A

Proximal due to avascular necrosis risk

113
Q

Metatarsal fractures causes

A

Runners
Women who wear heels consistently

114
Q

What is an iliopsoas abscess

A

Collection of pus in the iliopsoas compartment

115
Q

Most common organism in iliopsoas abscess

A

S.aureus

116
Q

Secondary causes of iliopsoas abscess

A

Crohns
Diverticulitis
Endocarditis
IVDU

117
Q

Investigation of choice for iliopsoas abscess

A

CT abdomen

118
Q

Management of iliopsoas abscess

A

Abx
Percutaneous drainage
Surgery indicated if fails

119
Q

Presentation of iliopsoas abscess

A

Fever
Flank pain
Weight loss
Limp
Pain on extension of hip

120
Q

Where in bone does osteomyelitis most typically affect children

A

Metaphysis

121
Q

Causes of dupuytrens contracture

A

Alcohol
Trauma
Manual labour
Phenytoin
DM

122
Q

What drug can cause dupuytrens contracture

A

Phenytoin

123
Q

Management of dupuytrens

A

In GP use analgesia
Refer to ortho when
- function severely affected
- unable to place hand straight on table
Options from ortho include surgery or corticosteroid injections

124
Q

In anterior shoulder dislocations, what nerve needs to be checked

A

Axillary

125
Q

What causes posterior shoulder dislocation

A

Electrocution
Seizure

126
Q

Management of posterior shoulder dislocation

A

Refer to orthopaedic surgeons

127
Q

Management of anterior shoulder dislocation

A

Reduction, analgesia

128
Q

2 principles in management of an open fracture

A

Wound debridement+ IV abx
External fixation device

129
Q

When debride an open fracture wound

A

Contaminated- immediately
High speed- within 12 hours
Other- within 24 hours

130
Q

Where is an open fracture wound debrided

A

Theatre

131
Q

What is a charcot joint

A

Neuropathic joint where feet joint over time have disrupted and damaged. Can get dislocation, disfigurement

132
Q

Causes of charcot joint

A

DM most common
Used to be syphilis

133
Q

Presentation of charcot joint

A

Swollen
Red and warm
Moderate pain
Joint remodelled and appears abnormal

134
Q

What is an acetabular labral tear

A

Tear in acetabulum surrounding hip joint

135
Q

Causes of acetabular labral tear

A

Young- trauma
Older- degenerative changes

136
Q

Presentation of acetabular labral tear

A

Hip/groin pain
Snapping sensation
Locking sensation

137
Q

Young man with hip pain following rugby match with snapping and locking sensation

A

Acetabular labral tear

138
Q

Initial management in ED of open fracture

A

IV abx
Photography
Apply saline soaked gauze with impermeable dressing

139
Q

Discitis presentation

A

Back pain
Pyrexia
Sepsis
Neuro features

140
Q

Most common cause of discitis

A

S. aureus

141
Q

Best imaging for discitis

A

MRI

142
Q

Complications of discitis

A

Sepsis
Epidural abscess

143
Q

Treatment of discitis

A

IV abx
To echo to look for vegetations

144
Q

What need to do for all patients with discitis

A

TTE

145
Q

What can help guide antibiotics choice in discitis

A

Blood culture or CT guided biopsy

146
Q

What analgesia used for NOF

A

Iliofascial nerve block

147
Q

After a intramedullary nail when can weight bear

A

ASAP as tolerated

148
Q

Difference in blood work between metastatic bone disease and primary bone tumours

A

In metastases- ALP and calcium raised

149
Q

When does hip dislocation most commonly occur

A

RTA
Falling from height

150
Q

What are the types of hip dislocation and how do they present on examination

A

Anterior- abducted and externally rotated
Posterior- shortened, adducted and internally rotated

151
Q

What is most common type of hip dislocation

A

Posterior

152
Q

Management of hip dislocation

A

Analgesia
Reduction under GA within 4 hours
Physio long term

153
Q

Which nerves are often injured in hip dislocation

A

Sciatic and femoral nerve

154
Q

What is main function of the patella

A

Knee extension

155
Q

Management of patella fractures

A

Non displaced and extensor mechanisms intact- hinged knee brace
Displaced or extensor mechanisms affected- surgical repair

156
Q

Classifying ankle fractures

A

Weber A- distal to syndesmosis
Weber B- at level of syndesmosis
Weber C- proximal to syndesmosis

157
Q

What is a maisonneuve fracture

A

combination of a spiral fracture of the proximal fibula together with an unstable ankle injury

158
Q

Management of maisonneuve fracture

A

Surgery

159
Q

If not operating on an ankle fracture, what do

A

Analgesia, weightbearing as tolerated, CAM boot

160
Q

What is the ulnar nerve paradox

A

Injuries at level of elbow produces better deformity.

In lower lesions the hand muscles are weak but the long flexors which are supplied by the ulnar nerve just below the elbow are not affected.

In the high lesion both are weak and the clawing is more mild.

161
Q

Trauma to knee followed by swelling, x ray shows no fractures

A

Patella dislocation

162
Q

Presentation of patella dislocation

A

Traumatic injury to knee
Lots of swelling and tense due to haemoarthrosis

163
Q

What is in simmonds triad

A

Calf squeeze
Observation of the angle of declination
Palpation of the tendon

164
Q

What can cause rotator cuff injuries

A

Subacromial impingement
Calcific tendonitis
Rotator cuff tears
Arhtropathy

165
Q

What does pain in first 60 degrees of abduction suggest

A

Rotator cuff tear

166
Q

What is within painful arc syndrome

A

Conditions where get painful abduction between 60-120 degrees
- subacromial impingement
- supraspinatus tendonitis

167
Q

Supraspinatus tendonitis presentation

A

Pain and tenderness over lateral shoulder
Painful arc syndrome

168
Q

Things to think about in shoulder pain

A

Frozen shoulder
Subacromial impingement
Rotator cuff tear- weakness and pain, pain in first 60 degrees of abduction
Supraspinatus tendonitis- tender on lateral part of shoulder

169
Q

What is a hill sachs lesion seen in

A

Glenohumeral fracture

170
Q

What is acromioclavicular dislocation

A

Where clavicles comes out of its joint into the shoulder

171
Q

Examination finding of acromioclavicular dislocation

A

Loss of shoulder contour
Clavicle more prominent
Step deformity visible where clavicle appears out

172
Q

Management of ankle fractures in a young person

A

Unstable or proximal = surgery with compression plate
Stable= if Weber A or B use below knee plaster to include midfoot

173
Q

Differentiating medial from lateral meniscal tear

A

Which side of knee pain and tenderness

174
Q

What is crescent sign/sub chondral curved lucency seen in

A

Avascular necrosis- can see curved dark bit where arrows are

175
Q

Management of ankle fractures in elderly

A

Ideally avoid surgery

176
Q

Popping in knee, swelling and instability of joint being unable to stand

A

ACL injury

177
Q

Management of acromicoclavicular joint injuries

A

Grade 1-2= conservative
Grade 3 and above= surgery

178
Q

What tends to cause acromioclavicular injuries

A

High contact sports
Falling onto outstretched hands

179
Q

Parts of bone in a child (the physis’)

A
180
Q

Painful swelling over posterior elbow with erythematous tended swelling

A

Olecranon bursitis

181
Q

Flank pain which radiates to back differentials

A

Pyelonephritis
Stone
Psoas abscess
Ruptured AAA

182
Q

Presentation of osteoporotic vertebral fracture

A

Acute back pain
GI problems from compression of bowel
SOB from compressing lungs

183
Q

Signs on examination of osteoporotic vertbral fractue

A

Loss of height
Kyphosis
Tenderness on back

183
Q

Investigation for osteoporotic vertebral fracture

A

X ray

184
Q

What do if patient develops suspected avascular necrosis of hip

A

Refer for MRI

185
Q

Differences between trigger finger and dupuytrens contracture

A

Trigger finger
- flexion starts in fingers
- mainly affects middle and index
Dupuytrens
- flexion starts in palm
- mainly affects pinky and ring fingers

186
Q

Causes of trigger finger

A

Idiopathic- common in women
RA
DM

187
Q

Management of trigger finger

A

Steroid injection then put in splint
Surgery if resistant

188
Q

How does trigger finger present

A

Pain when flexing
Nodule at base of finger
Finger flexed- typically middle and index

189
Q

Elbow fracture after falling onto outstretched hand

A

Fracture of radial head

190
Q

Fracture of radial head presentation

A

Falling onto outstretched hand
Tenderness over elbow point
Restricted pronation and supination

191
Q

What type of motor neurone signs does CES present with

A

Lower

192
Q

Presentation of cauda equina

A

Low back pain
Bilateral sciatica
Decreased anal tone
Reduced perianal sensation
Urinary dysfunction

193
Q

Examination features of scaphoid fractures

A

Tenderness over snuffbox
Effusion in wrist
Pain on longitudal compression of thumb
Pain on ulnar deviation

194
Q

What is a supracondylar fracture

A

Fracture of the humerus just above the elbow

195
Q

What fractures are most commonly associated with compartment syndrome

A

Supracondylar
Tibial shaft

196
Q

What is vessel affected in scaphoid fracture

A

Dorsal carpal arch of radial artery

197
Q

What heel pain is worse when walk on toes

A

Plantar fasciitis

198
Q

What is a bennetts fracture

A

Caused by punching
Fracture in thumb of first carpometacarpal joint

199
Q

What is a potts fracture

A

Bimalleolar ankle fracture from forced foot eversion

200
Q

How does stimson method work

A

Lie patient face down
Place weights in affected hand

201
Q

Difference in fractures causing dislocation of radio-ulnar joint

A

Ulnar fracture- monteggia
Radial fracture- galeazzi
Remember as UM and GRRR

202
Q

Risks for bicep rupture

A

Heavy overhead exercises
Shoulder overuse
Smoking
Steroids

203
Q

Presentation of biceps rupture

A

Sudden pop followed by burising and pain
Subsequent weakness
Popeye sign where bulge present in middle of arms

204
Q

What are 2 types of bicep rupture

A

Long tendon- proximal insertion to shoulder
Short tendon- distal insertion to elbow

205
Q

What to do with bicep ruptures

A

Diagnosis should be made clinically
MRI if uncertainty or suspected distal rupture

206
Q

Management of bicep ruptures

A

Conservative typically
Severe cases may require surgery

207
Q

What tendon is harvested in ACL surgery

A

Semitendinosus tendon

208
Q

First line for OA

A

If knee or hand- topical NSAID
If hip- oral NSAID and PPI

209
Q

Management of trochanteric bursitis

A

Simple- NSAIDs, rest, ice, physio
Injections may be required
If red, inflamed and fever very indicative is infected as rarely causes inflamed normally unlike other bursitis- admit for abx and assessment

210
Q

What is the blood supply to femoral head

A

Retrograde flow from lateral and medial circumflex femoral artery
Is why femoral head needs replacing in displaced intracapsular fractures

Finals (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions