Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BDS Finals > Orthodontics > Flashcards

Orthodontics Flashcards

1
Q

Constituents of Stainless Steel (4)

A
  1. Primary iron
  2. Second most is chromium
  3. Nickel
  4. Titanium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Advantages of URAs (6)

A
  1. Excellent anchorage
  2. Cheaper than fixed
  3. Less chair side time
  4. OH easier to maintain
  5. Non destructive to tooth surface
  6. Can easily reduce overbite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Disadvantages of URAs (6)

A
  1. Less precise control of movement
  2. Teeth cannot be intruded or extruded
  3. Can be easily removed
  4. Only 1-2 teeth can be moved at a time
  5. Specialist technical staff required
  6. Rotations very difficult to correct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ARAB

A

Active Components
Retentive
Anchorage
Baseplate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HSSW

A

Hard Stainless Steel Wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FABP

A

Flat Anterior Bite Plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

URAs - How many teeth can be moved at a time

A

1-2 teeth at a time
1mm per month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Increasing thickness of wire

A

Increasing force applied to teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Types of clasp for URAs (3)

A

Adams clasp
Southend clasp
Labial bow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

URAs - Thickness of wire for retentive components

A

0.7mm permanent
0.6mm deciduous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

URAs - Thickness of wire for active components

A

0.5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Types of active components for URAs (5)

A
  1. Finger Spring
  2. Z Spring
  3. T Spring
  4. Flapper Spring
  5. Buccal Canine Retractor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Components of a Finger Spring and what they do (4)

A

Tag (attaches to acrylic)
Coil (Where force comes from)
Guard (Allows active arm to slide along it)
Arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a Z Spring used for? (3)

A

Used to push teeth forward
Can be used for small amounts of rotation
Uncoiled to activate it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of a buccal canine retractor

A

Moves teeth back into the line of arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What can be done for Class III patients (interceptive orthodontics)

A

If the patient can achieve edge to edge bite on incisors, camouflage/URA is possible
If not, refer patients before they reach the age of 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are posterior cross bites overcorrected

A

As 50% of them relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What age should orthodontic assessment be carried out? (2)

A

Brief - Age 9
Comprehensive - 11/12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contraindications to orthodontic treatment (4)

A
  1. Allergy to nickel or latex
  2. Epilepsy/drugs
  3. Drugs
  4. Imaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Skeletal Base Class I

A

Maxilla 2-3mm in front of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Skeletal Base Class II

A

Maxilla more than 3mm in front of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Skeletal Base Class III

A

Mandible in front of maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FMPA

A

Frankfort Mandibular Planes Angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Incompetent lips

A

Lips that do not meet at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lip Trap (2)

A
  1. May procline upper incisors
  2. Can lead to relapse of overate if persists at end of treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Occlusal features of a digit sucking habit (4)

A
  1. Proclination of UI
  2. Retroclination of LI
  3. Localised AOB or incomplete OB
  4. Narrow upper arch +/- unilateral posterior cross bite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Class II Division 1 (3)

A
  1. The lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors
  2. Upper incisors are proclined or of average inclination
  3. Usually increased OJ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Class II Division 2 (3)

A
  1. LI occludes posterior to the cingulum plateau of UI
  2. Upper incisors retroclined
  3. OJ is reduced but can also be increased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Average overbite

A

Upper incisors cover 1/2 to 1/3 of lower incisors crowns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Radiographs helpful in orthodontic assessment (3)

A
  1. OPT
  2. Maxillary anterior occlusal
  3. Lateral cepahlogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Special investigations for orthodontic assessment (4)

A
  1. Radiographs
  2. Study models
  3. Clinical images
  4. Vitality tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Planes for skeletal pattern assessment (3)

A
  1. Antero-posterior
  2. Vertical
  3. Transverse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Methods for assessing skeletal pattern (3)

A
  1. Visual assessment
  2. Palpate skeletal bases
  3. Lateral cephalometry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Class II FMPA

A

Reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Class III FMPA

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

LAFH (2)

A

Lower Anterior Face Height
From menton to subnasale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

UAFH (2)

A

Upper Anterior Face Height
Glabella/Nasion (eyebrows) to subnasale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mild crowding

A

<4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Moderate crowding

A

4-8mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Severe crowding

A

> 8mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Assessment methods for crowding (3)

A
  1. Space available - space required
  2. Overlap technique
  3. Mixed dentition analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Aims of orthodontic treatment (3)

A
  1. Good aesthetics
  2. Functional
  3. Stable occlusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Uses of study casts (7)

A
  1. Record keeping
  2. Track progress
  3. Insight when patient isn’t there
  4. Design appliances
  5. More info - better informed decisions
  6. Teaching purposes
  7. Retrospective studies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Anchorage Definition

A

Resistance to unwanted tooth movement and displacement forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Displacement Forces (5)

A
  1. Tongue
  2. Mastication
  3. Speech
  4. Gravity
  5. Active component
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Size of FABP

A

Overjet + 3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the baseplate for URAs made of

A

Self cure PMMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fitting the URA - DASIIPAADS

A

Details match
Appliance matches
Sharp edges
Integrity of wirework (work hardening)
Insert appliance
Posterior retention
Anterior retention
Activate appliance
Demonstrate insertion and removal to pt.
See pt every 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pt information for URA - BESWIRRAME

A

Big and bulky
Excess salivation
Speech may be difficult at first
Worn 24/7
Initial discomfort
Remove after meals and clean
Remove before contact sport
Avoid hard/sticky foods
Missing appointments
Emergency details

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What machine is needed for lateral cephalometry

A

Cephalostat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of collimation is used in a cephalostat

A

Triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

SNA Avg

A

81 +/- 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SNB Avg

A

78 +/- 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ANB Avg

A

3 +/- 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Angles in Class II (3)

A
  1. SNA avg
  2. ANB usually increased
  3. ANB > 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Concave profile

A

Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Convex profile

A

Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Angles in Class III (3)

A
  1. SNA decreased if maxilla deficient
  2. SNB often avg but may be increased if mandible prognathic
  3. ANB < 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

FMPA - Where do planes meet

A

External occipital protuberance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Frankfurt Plane

A

Orbitale to porion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Mandibular plane

A

Menton to gonion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

FMPA Avg

A

27 +/- 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Aetiology of Malocclusion (4)

A
  1. Skeletal
  2. Dental
  3. Soft tissue
  4. Environmental/Habits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Local causes of malocclusion (5)

A
  1. Variation in tooth number
  2. Variation in tooth size/form
  3. Variation in tooth position
  4. Soft tissue abnormalities
  5. Local pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Supernumerary types (4)

A
  1. Conical
  2. Tuberculate
  3. Supplemental
  4. Odontome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Variation in tooth number (5)

A
  1. Supernumerary
  2. Hypodontia
  3. Retained primary
  4. Early loss of primary
  5. Unscheduled loss of permanent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Why might primary teeth be retained? (5)

A
  1. Absent successor
  2. Ectopic successor or dilacerated
  3. Infra-occluded/ankylosed
  4. Delayed development
  5. Pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Why might children lose primary teeth early? (4)

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Periapical pathology
  3. Caries
  4. Resorption by successor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Variation in tooth size/form (3)

A
  1. Macrodontia
  2. Microdontia
  3. Abnormal form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Abnormalities of tooth position (2)

A
  1. Ectopic teeth
  2. Transpositions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Ectopic canines management options (6)

A
  1. Prevention
  2. Interceptive - extract cs
  3. Accept - Retain 3 and observe
  4. Surgical exposure and orthodontic alignment
  5. Surgical extraction
  6. Autotransplantation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Ectopic canines prevention

A

Monitor from age 9 onwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Transposition definition

A

Interchange in the position of two teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Classification of transposition (2)

A

True
Pseudo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Most common transpositions (2)

A

Upper canine and first premolar
Lower canine and incisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Abnormalities of soft tissue for orthodontics (3)

A
  1. Digit sucking
  2. Frenum
  3. Tongue thrust
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Large labial frenum

A

May cause median diastema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Pathology which may cause malocclusion (3)

A
  1. Caries
  2. Cysts
  3. Tumours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How long should FABP be used for (3)

A
  1. Continued after canines retracted
  2. Active components will move teeth faster than teeth can continue to erupt
  3. New bone is spongy - pressure from posteriors puts pressure on this
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Why does FABP need to be trimmed

A

To allow space for UI to be retracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Roberts Retractor (4)

A
  1. Looks like buccal canine retractor but joined in the middle
  2. Brings anterior teeth back
  3. Need medial stops on mesial aspect of canines
  4. 0.7mm HSSW + 0.5mm ID tubing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which active components need ID tubing

A

Buccal canine retractor
Roberts retractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are stops made of for URAs

A

0.7mm HSSW flattened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Active component for expanding the palatal screw (2)

A

Midline palatal screw
Need posterior bite plane which includes all posterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Midline palatal screw (3)

A
  1. Screw turned once a week
  2. 0.25mm per turn
  3. Pt instructions very important
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Name of plyers (2)

A

Adams 64
Adams 65 coil formers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

MOCDO

A

Missing Teeth
Overjet
Crossbite
Displacement on contact points
Open bite/Overbite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When using IOTN on study casts - overjets

A

Always assume lips incompetent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When using IOTN on study casts - crossbites

A

Assume a discrepancy between RCP and ICP of > 2mm is present and award grade 4c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

When using IOTN on study casts - reverse overjet

A

Assume masticatory and speech components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Correct time for deciduous teeth to be extracted to encourage permanent to erupt

A

One half to two thirds root development of permanent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Functional appliances (3)

A
  1. Very good for Class II Div 1
  2. Mandible postured forward away from its normal rest position
  3. Condyle encouraged to grow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How much of functional appliance change is dentoalveolar and how much is skeletal

A

Skeletal 30%
Dentoalveolar 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Tipping force

A

35-60g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Bodily movement force

A

150-200g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Intrusion force

A

10-20g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Extrusion force

A

35-60g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Rotation force

A

35-60g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Torque force

A

50-100g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Light Force (5)

A
  1. Resorption of lamina dura on pressure side
  2. Apposition on osteoid on tension side
  3. Remodelling of socket
  4. PDL fibres reorganise
  5. Gingival fibres don’t reorganise but become distorted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Moderate Force (3)

A
  1. Cell free areas on pressure side (hylinisation)
  2. Period of stasis
  3. Undermining resorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Undermining resorption

A

Nothing happens for a while and then clunk due to undermining resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Excessive force (3)

A
  1. Necrosis
  2. Undermining resorption
  3. Resorption of root surfaces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Factors affecting response to orthodontic force (4)

A
  1. Magnitude
  2. Duration
  3. Age
  4. Anatomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Interceptive orthodontics definition

A

Any procedure that will reduce or eliminate the severity of a developing malocclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

< 3mm space in deciduous dentition

A

50% crowding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

3-6mm space in deciduous dentition

A

20% crowding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

> 6mm space in deciduous dentition

A

No crowding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

No spacing in deciduous dentition

A

66% crowding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

When do 6s erupt

A

Age 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

When do 1s erupt

A

Age 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

When do 2s erupt

A

Age 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

When do 4s erupt

A

Age 10

114
Q

When do 3s and 5s erupt

A

11-12

115
Q

When do 7s erupt

A

12-13

116
Q

Growth modification methods (2)

A
  1. Functional appliances
  2. Headgear
117
Q

Aims of orthodontic treatment

A

To produce an occlusion which is stable, functional, aesthetic

118
Q

Comprehensive orthodontic treatment

A

Full correction of malocclusion

119
Q

Compromise orthodontic treatment

A

Correct certain aspects and accept others

120
Q

Stages of ortho treatment planning (4)

A
  1. Plan around LLS
  2. Decide on tx in lower
  3. Build upper arch around lower aim for Class I incisor and canine relationship
  4. Decide if molars will be Class I or full unit Class II
121
Q

Why is an overjet of > 9mm such an issue

A

Twice as likely to suffer trauma

122
Q

Most common reason for class II skeletal pattern

A

Retrognathic mandible

123
Q

NNSH

A

Non nutritive sucking habits

124
Q

Habit treatment principles (3)

A
  1. Stop habit
  2. Allow spontaneous improvement
  3. Treat residual malocclusion if required
125
Q

Class II Div 1 management options (5)

A
  1. Accept
  2. Attempt growth modification
  3. Simple tipping of teeth
  4. Camouflage
  5. Orthognathic surgery
126
Q

Functional appliance definition

A

Functional appliances utilise, eliminate or guide the forces of muscle function, tooth eruption and growth to correct a malocclusion

127
Q

Which way does the upper arch move with functional appliances

A

Distally

128
Q

Types of removable functional appliance (3)

A

Tooth borne
- Twin block
- Activator/bionator
Soft tissue borne
- Frankel (FR II)

129
Q

Type of fixed functional appliances

A

Herbst
Difficult to fix if they break

130
Q

When should a functional appliance be used (3)

A
  1. During growth
  2. Ideally 11-14
  3. Motivation best way to assess, rather than growth assessment
131
Q

Disadvantages of early functional appliance use (3)

A
  1. Effects not maintained in long term
  2. Overall tx time increased
  3. Little evidence to support any difference in results with early/normal tx
132
Q

Benefits of early functional appliance tx (3)

A
  1. Improve appearance earlier (psychological)
  2. Reduce trauma risk
  3. Better compliance
133
Q

Class II Div 2 Soft tissue patterns (3)

A
  1. High resting lower lip line
  2. Marked labio mental fold
  3. High masseteric forces
134
Q

Pattern for laterals in Class II div 2 (3)

A

Upper 2s often trap lower lip
Proclined and often mesio-labially rotated
Poor cingulum

135
Q

IIA

A

Inter incisal angle

136
Q

IIA Avg

A

135

137
Q

Effect of Class II Div 2 on gingiva

A

Gingival stripping if teeth occlude onto gingivae

138
Q

IIA of Class II Div 2

A

Increased

139
Q

Management of Class II Div 2 (4)

A
  1. Accept
  2. Growth modification
  3. Camouflage
  4. Orthognathic treatment
140
Q

Modified twin block design

A

Quick alignment of teeth so pt motivation drops quickly

141
Q

Methods of proclining upper incisors (3)

A
  1. Modified twin block
  2. Springs or screw
  3. Upper sectional fixed appliance
142
Q

Camouflage treatment

A

Accept underlying skeletal base and aim for Class I incisor relationship

143
Q

How is IIA corrected (2)

A

Palatal root torque UI
Proclination of LI

144
Q

Upper incisor torquing (2)

A
  1. Need adequate cancellous bone palatal to UI
  2. Risk of root resorption
145
Q

When is a deep overbite best corrected

A

When the patient is still growing

146
Q

What incisor relationship tends to be more affected by dental anomalies

A

Class II Div 2
Hypodontia

147
Q

Opposite of hypodontia

A

Hyperdontia

148
Q

Supplemental teeth definition

A

Supernumerary with the same morphology as a normal tooth

149
Q

Supernumerary distal to the dentition

A

Distodens

150
Q

Rarest tooth for hypodontia

A

Canines

151
Q

What tooth shape abnormality is more common in hypodontia patients

A

Peg laterals

152
Q

Upside down tooth

A

Inverted

153
Q

What is a transpalatal arch used for (3)

A
  1. Anchorage
  2. Rotation
  3. Limited widening or contraction
154
Q

What is a palatal arch with a nance button used for

A

Anchorage

155
Q

What is a quad helix used for (6)

A
  1. Bilateral expansion
  2. Fan style expansion
  3. Rotation of molars
  4. Expansion in cleft palate
  5. Can be modified to procline incisors
  6. Assist in habit breakers
156
Q

What wire is used for palatal arches

A

0.9mm HSSW

157
Q

Fixed orthodontics advantages (7)

A
  1. 3D tooth movement
  2. Can be used in both lower and upper
  3. Individual forces on each tooth
  4. Not easily removed by pt
  5. Works 24/7
  6. Less invasive of tongue space
  7. Minimal palatal coverage
158
Q

Fixed orthodontics disadvantages (9)

A
  1. Root resorption risk
  2. Decalcification
  3. Visual appearance
  4. Soft tissue trauma
  5. Cost
  6. OH - motivation
  7. Poor anchorage
  8. Destructive - etching
  9. Highly specialised
159
Q

Why can’t 6’s be moved backwards with a palatal arch with a nance button

A

Molars will rotate and cause extra force on the button which can cause resorption on the palate

160
Q

Is the trans palatal arch an active component

A

No - anchorage

161
Q

Why is unilateral expansion with a quad helix difficult

A

Newtons law - equal and opposite forces

162
Q

How can unilateral expansion with a quad helix be made easier

A

Make the arm on one side larger and on the other side shorter

163
Q

Where might fan type expansion be used

A

Cleft patients who have narrow palates
Scar tissue cannot grow like normal tissue

164
Q

What are arch wires made of for fixed orthodontics

A

Nickel Titanium

165
Q

What property of arch wire makes the teeth move

A

Shape memory

166
Q

What are stops made of in URAs

A

0.7mm flattened HSSW

167
Q

What do you need to do to a FABP as anteriors move

A

Cut it so the anteriors have space to move back

168
Q

Why shouldn’t posterior bite planes be used for patients with overjets

A

They will relapse
When URA is removed, force is on anteriors

169
Q

Purpose of GIC around bands on 6s (2)

A
  1. Fixes band to tooth
  2. Seals gap between band and tooth
170
Q

How long do orthodontic spacers take to work

A

Very quick
Can get patient back the same day

171
Q

Types of retainer (3)

A
  1. Thermoplastic
  2. Holly/conventional
  3. Bonded
172
Q

If bands on 6s fall of what should be done? (3)

A

Alginate impression with bands in situ
Orthodontic spacers back in
Pt back in a week

173
Q

Benefits of orthodontics (3)

A
  1. Appearance
  2. Function
  3. Dental health
174
Q

How likely is orthodontics to impact speech

A

Rarely impacts speech

175
Q

IOTN 1-2

A

No/Low need for treatment

176
Q

IOTN 3

A

Borderline need for treatment

177
Q

IOTN 4-5

A

High need for treatment

178
Q

Risks of remaining impacted teeth (3)

A
  1. Rooth resorption
  2. Delayed eruption
  3. Cyst formation
179
Q

Risks associated with significant displacement - crossbites (3)

A
  1. Loss of periodontal support
  2. Tooth wear
  3. Asymmetry
180
Q

Risk associated with overbites (3)

A
  1. Only an issue if traumatic
  2. Gingival stripping
  3. Loss of perio support
181
Q

With what orthodontic malocclusions is there a weak connection with TMD (4)

A
  1. Crossbite with displacement
  2. Class II with retrusive mandible
  3. Class III
  4. AOB
182
Q

Orthodontics for TMD

A

No guarantee TMD will improve

183
Q

Main risks of orthodontics (4)

A
  1. Decalcification
  2. Root resorption
  3. Relapse
  4. Soft tissue trauma
184
Q

Other risks of orthodontic treatment (7)

A
  1. Recession
  2. Loss of periodontal support
  3. Headgear injuries
  4. Enamel fracture and toothwear
  5. Loss of vitality
  6. Allergy
  7. Poor/failed treatment
185
Q

Patients at higher risk of decalcification (3)

A
  1. Caries history
  2. Pre existing decalcification
  3. Erosion
186
Q

Average root resorption

A

1mm over 2 years fixed appliances

187
Q

How common is severe root resorption due to ortho

A

1-5%

188
Q

Risk factors for root resorption due to ortho (4)

A
  1. Type of tooth movement (intrusion, torque)
  2. Root form (blunt, pipette, resorbed already)
  3. Previous trauma
  4. Nail biting
189
Q

Relapse definition

A

The return of features of the original malocclusion following correction

190
Q

Features more prone to relapse (6)

A
  1. LI crowding
  2. Rotations
  3. Instancing 2s
  4. Spaces & diastemas
  5. Class II Div 2
  6. AOBs
191
Q

How to avoid recession from ortho

A

Keep teeth within alveolar bone

192
Q

Periodontal health and ortho (2)

A

Periodontitis must be treated, stabilised and maintained before ortho starts
Treated as priority over ortho

193
Q

Prevention of headgear trauma

A

Minimum 2 safety mechanisms

194
Q

Safety mechanisms on headgear (3)

A
  1. Snap away traction spring
  2. Nitom facebow
  3. Masel strap
195
Q

Toothwear due to ortho (2)

A
  1. Greater risk with ceramic brackets
  2. Enamel fracture during debond
196
Q

Risk of loss of vitality due to ortho (3)

A
  1. Rare
  2. More risk if previous trauma or compromised tooth
  3. Warn patient
197
Q

Ortho allergies (3)

A
  1. Nickel
  2. Latex
  3. Colophony (adhesive)
198
Q

Risk of poor/failed treatment - ortho (6)

A
  1. Poor diagnosis
  2. Poor tx planning
  3. Technique error
  4. Poor cooperation
  5. Repeated breakages
  6. Attendance
199
Q

Risks vs benefits of ortho (3)

A

Benefits more apparent at end of tx
Risks throughout tx
Benefits must outweigh risks

200
Q

What must you do if an orthodontic component has broken off (2)

A

Account for the missing piece
If unaccounted for send pt to A&E

201
Q

When can silver soulder be used to fix URAs (3)

A
  1. When its not too close to gingivae
  2. When its far enough away from the acrylic
  3. Not an area of flex
202
Q

Broken southend clasp

A

Turn them into C clasps

203
Q

Debonded retainer (4)

A
  1. Remove composite
  2. Ensure wire passive
  3. Bond back composite
  4. OHI
204
Q

Debonded bracket

A

Remove bracket and return to orthodontist

205
Q

Debonded wire on square arch wire (3)

A
  1. Make sure ligature is firmly attached
  2. Get pt to slide to side to clean
  3. Return to ortho
206
Q

Broken Adams clasp (5)

A
  1. Account for missing piece (A&E)
  2. Grind down edges
  3. Check retention
  4. If unretentive get component replaced
  5. Need working model, appliance and prescription
207
Q

Archwire slippage (4)

A
  1. Cut end of archwire
  2. Hold it as you cut it
  3. Bend back on itself
  4. Return to orthodontist
208
Q

Debonded retainer with now active wire (3)

A
  1. Cute wire off and smooth
  2. Explain to pt what you’ve done
  3. Give pt options (nothing, get new one)
209
Q

Multiple teeth debonded from bonded retainer (4)

A
  1. Remove whole retainer
  2. Check health of teeth
  3. Give pt options (thermoplastic/bonded)
  4. If pt wants nothing get them to sign something with risks on it
210
Q

Broken transpalatal arch (2)

A
  1. Floss in loop and get pt to hole
  2. Cut off wire high speed
211
Q

Band debonded (4)

A
  1. Cut wire distal to 5
  2. Bend wire back on itself
  3. OHI
  4. Return to ortho
212
Q

Adams clasp fractured at arrowhead (4)

A
  1. Can soulder
  2. OR squeeze arrowhead together
  3. OR cut whole thing off
  4. Check retention
213
Q

Smashed baseplate (2)

A

Offer thermoplastic retainer
Return to ortho

214
Q

Lots of brackets debonded (5)

A
  1. Normally trauma
  2. Trauma stamp
  3. Remove arch wire
  4. Cut wire distally
  5. Splint any mobile teeth
215
Q

Which gender is cleft palate more common in

A

Females

216
Q

Which gender is cleft lip and palate more common in

A

Males

217
Q

LAHSHAL classification (2)

A

Assigns a letter to every part which has a cleft
Lowercase for partial cleft

218
Q

Left side cleft lip and palate

A

SHAL

219
Q

Right side cleft lip and palate

A

LAHS

220
Q

Environmental aetiology of CLP (5)

A
  1. Social deprivation
  2. Smoking
  3. Alcohol
  4. Anti-epileptics
  5. Multivitamins
221
Q

Genetic aetiology of CLP (5)

A
  1. Syndromes
  2. Family history
  3. Sex
  4. Laterality
  5. Ethnicity
222
Q

How did the smoking ban alter CP and CLP

A

CP reduced by 10%
CLP unchanged

223
Q

What other major organ is more likely to have anomalies in CLP patients

A

Heart

224
Q

Timeframe for lip closure in CLP after birth

A

3 months

225
Q

Timeframe for palate closure in CLP after birth

A

6-12 months

226
Q

CLP speech impacts (3)

A
  1. Soft palate doesn’t work as well - plosive sounds impacted
  2. Hypernasal - more air through nose
  3. Speech specialist every 6 months
227
Q

Why is hypodontia more likely in CLP pts

A

Dental lamina impacted when cleft goes through alveolus

228
Q

Timeframe for alveolar bone graft in CLP patients

A

8-10 years

229
Q

Timeframe for definitive orthodontics for CLP

A

12-15 years

230
Q

Timeframe for surgery for CLP

A

18-20 years

231
Q

Dental impacts of CLP (5)

A
  1. Hypodontia
  2. Impacted teeth
  3. Crowding
  4. Growth
  5. Caries
232
Q

What information should be included when consenting a pt with perio for orthodontics

A

Appearance of black triangles - not all space will disappear

233
Q

Overbite reduction in adults

A

Tooth intrusion more difficult than continuation of molars to erupt

234
Q

What type of brackets should not be used on lowers

A

Ceramic

235
Q

Ortho - Differences treating adults compared to children (5)

A
  1. Lack of growth
  2. Periodontal disease
  3. Missing/heavily restored dentition
  4. Physiological factors
  5. Adult motivation
236
Q

Can mid palatal screws be used in adults

A

No the mid palatal suture has been closed
Can only expand with surgery

237
Q

Loss of perio support impacts on ortho (2)

A
  1. Tooth centre of rotation moves apically
  2. Anchorage value reducing
238
Q

Physiological factors impacting adult ortho (3)

A
  1. Decreased cell turnover
  2. Initial movement can be slower
  3. Use lighter forces
239
Q

Ortho as an adjunct to restorative (3)

A
  1. Intrusion of over erupted teeth
  2. Upright abutments to aid restoration
  3. Extrusion to increase crown length
240
Q

Team involved in planning orthognathic surgery (4)

A
  1. Orthodontist
  2. Maxfax surgeon
  3. Clinical psychologist
  4. Technologist
241
Q

Ideal tx goals of orthodontics (6)

A
  1. Tight contacts with no rotations
  2. Class I incisors
  3. Class I molars
  4. Flat occlusal plane or slight curve of spee
  5. Long axis of teeth have slight medial inclination except LI
  6. Crowns of canines and posterior have a lingual inclination
242
Q

Andrews six keys

A

Ideal goals of orthodontic tx

243
Q

Wire used for fixed applianced

A

Nickel titanium

244
Q

Which type of wire has lower friction and slides easier

A

Stainless Steel

245
Q

Gates on brackets (2)

A
  1. Self ligating system
  2. Can get clogged up with plaque but only works when fully closed
246
Q

Why does a pt given power chain need to be seen more frequently

A

Elastomers lose force very quickly

247
Q

What can be used to stop patient biting on flexible wire

A

Bumper tubing

248
Q

Temporary anchorage devices (2)

A

Non osseointegrating mini screw
Sometimes called absolute maximum anchorage

249
Q

Type of anchorage (3)

A
  1. Simple
  2. Compound
  3. Reciprocal
250
Q

Simple anchorage

A

Increased root surface area

251
Q

Compound anchorage

A

Link groups of teeth together

252
Q

Reciprocal anchorage (2)

A

Same root surface area leads to equal tooth movement
Good for diastemas

253
Q

Types of arch wires (4)

A
  1. SS
  2. NiTi
  3. CoCr
  4. Beta titanium (TMA)
254
Q

Advantages of SS archwire (2)

A

Slides teeth easier
Formable - loops

255
Q

Force generating components on fixed appliances (4)

A
  1. Powerchain
  2. NiTi coils
  3. Intra-oral elastics
  4. Active ligature
256
Q

Features with high relapse potential (6)

A
  1. Diastema
  2. Rotations
  3. Palatally ectopic canines
  4. Proclamation of LI
  5. AOB
  6. Instanding upper laterals
257
Q

Average ortho treatment length

A

18-24 months

258
Q

Average hypodontia/orthognathic ortho case length

A

24-30 months

259
Q

How often are fixed appliances adjusted

A

4-8 weeks

260
Q

Initial fixed appliances issues (4)

A
  1. Pain
  2. Mucosal irritation
  3. Ulceration
  4. Appliance breakage
261
Q

Dental reasons to treat class III (3)

A
  1. Attrition
  2. Gingival recession
  3. Mandibular displacement
262
Q

Class III factors which make tx more difficult (4)

A
  1. Number of teeth in crossbite
  2. Skeletal element in aetiology
  3. AP discrepancy
  4. Presence of AOB
263
Q

Radiographic methods of assessing growth spurts (~3)

A

Cervical vertebrate maturation on lateral ceph
Hand wrist radiographs
Both low reliability

264
Q

Class III tx options (5)

A
  1. Accept/Monitor
  2. Intercept early with URA
  3. Growth modification
  4. Camoflage
  5. Orthognathic
265
Q

When is interceptive tx suitable for class III

A

If class III incisors due to early contact on permanent incisors
(Mandibular displacement)

266
Q

When can interceptive tx be used in class III to correct 2s in crossbite

A

When canines high above lateral roots

267
Q

Functional appliances for class III (3)

A
  1. Chin cup
  2. Reverse twin block
  3. Frankel III
268
Q

Chin Cup (3)

A
  1. Historic
  2. Lingual tipping of LI
  3. Rotates mandible down and back
269
Q

Frankel III (3)

A
  1. Pellotes labial to UI to hold lip away
  2. Palatal arch to procline UI
  3. Lower labial bow to retrocline LI
270
Q

Protraction headgear (3)

A
  1. 14hr/day wear
  2. Best results early mixed dentition (8-10)
  3. Rapid maxillary expansion
271
Q

Class III - Favourable features for camouflage (5)

A
  1. Growth stopped
  2. Mild/moderate class III skeletal base
  3. Avg or >OB
  4. Edge to edge achievable
  5. Little/no dentoalveolar compensation
272
Q

Extraction pattern for class III (2)

A
  1. Further back in upper
  2. Further forward in lower
273
Q

ANB limits for class III camouflage

A

Must be >0

274
Q

Full alignment of class III while pt still growing (2)

A

Don’t do
Consider upper alignment only

275
Q

Anodontia

A

Complete absence of teeth

276
Q

Severe hypodontia

A

6+ congenitally absent teeth

277
Q

Aetiology of hypodontia (3)

A

Non-syndromic
Syndromic
Environmental

278
Q

If order of eruption varies

A

Consider hypodontia

279
Q

Hypodontia - Refer to ortho if (3)

A
  1. Crowding delays eruption
  2. Severely infra-occluded teeth with tipping
  3. 6+ months contralateral eruption
280
Q

If e’s last until the pt is 20

A

Will last the rest of their lives

281
Q

Space needed for implants for hypodontia patients

A

7mm
Can look weird if small teeth

BDS Finals (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions