Orion December Flashcards
38- What database do insurance companies use?
A- C.L.U.E.” database
Comprehensive Loss Underwriting Exchang
39- Sources of data in insurance companies?
A- CLAIMS
b- Health data
C- Information collectio
A
49- Which of the following error detection strategies result in limiting detection ?
A- bar-coding
B- trigger tools
C- voluntary reporting
D- mandatory reporting
D
55- Mid goal to long term future goal?
A- Mission
B- Vision
C- Plan
B
77- Preventive and curative institution is ?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. specialty
B
- Preventive and curative institution is ?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. specialty
b
Mission and vision can be present in which strategy ?
A. Planning
B. Organization
C. Strategic
C. Strategic
Long term plan use all aspects in organization
A- strategy
B- operation
C- organization
A- strategy
pharmacist wrote email to another pharmacist to ask add medication to the
formulary in the hospital this is consider as ?
A. Inter institutional
B. Intra institutional
C. Written communication
D. Non Verbal communication
c
-Head of pharmacy decide to make group to arrange formulary drugs in hospital?
A. organizing
B. planning
C. Leading
b
who’s responsible for accreditation of health care system?
A- SFDA
B- WHO
C- MOH
D- CBAHI
d
You received a prescription on a plain paper what to do ?
A. Tell the manager
B. Talk to the prescriber and don’t dispens
B
pharmacist manager screemed on one of the pharmacist who dispensed wrong
medication in front of all the staff what is the good response ?
A. he should punish him in separate area
B. ask for a meeting with the staff
C. cut from his salary
D. try to find the cause of the error and set solution
D
Which of the following is the function of the pharmacy and therapeutic committee in a
hospital?
A. Responsible for poison management
B. Monitor the adverse reaction reporting
C. Monitor the medication error reporting
D. Responsible for drug formulary managemen
D
Which of the following distribution systems works better for medicine requiring a higher
level of control?
A. Bulk ward stock
B. Direct procurement
C. Automated dispensing
D. Individual medication order
D
Which of the following committees is dedicated to developing and maintaining a list of
approved medicine for the hospital medicines for the hospital use ?
A. Medical records
B. Medication audit
C. Quality assurance
D. Pharmacy and therapeutics
D
Which of the following is the definition of management?
A) The art of maximizing profitability
B) The art of maximizing productivity
C)The art of maximizing possibilities
D)The art of maximizing predictability
B
A 65-year-old man presents to the pharmacy for a refill his medications. On review of his
refill history, the pharmacist noticed that he does not refill his medications regularly. Upon asking
him, the patient started that he has multiple medications that require complex administration.
Which of the following non adherence factors affecting above patient?
A. Patient related factors
B. Provider related factors
C. Health care system factors
D. Medication and condition factor
D
which of the following need to be considered first by a pharmacist in order to rationalize drug
therapy decisions?
A. Care plan
B. Follow-up evaluations
C. Pharmacotherapy workup
A
- Most on prescription?
A- Patient name - mrn- date
B- Phystion name - numeber - signature
C- Pateint name - age - sex - daignosis
D- all above
D
The hierarchy is showing Hospital X organizational chart. A pharmacist assigned as a clinical
pharmacist in neuroscience ward (see image)
Which of the following managerial position will the coworker re submitting a complaint?
A) Pharmacy Director
B) Medical affair Director
C) Neuroscience ward director
D) Clinical pharmacy department Head
D
It is the broad range of health care services provided by in order to optimize therapeutic
outcomes for individual patients
Which of the following is the term used to describe the above- mentioned definition?
A. Pharmaceutical care
B. Medication counseling
C. Medication reconciliation
D. Medication therapy management
D
which of the following anesthetics drug has a higher risk of causing hepatic toxicity?
A) propofol
B) ketamine
C) isoflurane
D) nitrous oxide
C) isoflurane
Free medical sample drugs (formulary or non-formulary) are provided by pharmaceutical
sales representatives to physicians or members of the health care team.
Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended policy for dealing with sample
drugs?
A. Dispense them directly to the patient
B. Keep them with the rest of original items
C. Keep in outpatient clinics or nursing units
D. Exclude them from in-patient pharmacy, drug store or doctors’ offices
D
which drug is used to treat an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Atropine
B. Adrenaline
C. Isoprinosine
D. Phentolamine
b. adrenaline
-which of the following medication has a side effect metalic taste ?
A) cefuroxime
B) azithromycin
C) ciprofloxacin
D) metronidazole
D
What is the type of anemia Lack of intrinsic factor?
A- Megaloblastic anemia
B- Pernicious anemia
C- Hemolytic anemia
D- Aplastic anemia
B
Which of the following is a consequence of stimulation of ꭤ1-Adrenoceptors?
A. A flushing Adrenergic Receptors
B. increased heart rate
C. constricted bronchioles
D. elevated blood pressure
D. elevated blood pressure
Which of the following is the mode of action of Phentolamine?
A. beta-adrenergic blocker
B. beta-adrenergic agonist
C. alpha-adrenergic agonist
D. alpha-adrenergic blocker (non selective alpha blocker)
D. alpha-adrenergic blocker (non selective alpha blocker)
Which of the following is the advantage of using intravenous anesthetic drug?
A. Produce fast onset of anesthesia
B. Helps in maintaining anesthesia
C. Increases the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of the anesthetic drugs
D. Produce less cardiovascular and respiratory suppression
A. Produce fast onset of anesthesia
A 25-year-old driver was held for reckless driving and confronting a policeman. He is too
confident, talkatiye.restless and continuously walking around the hall.
Which of the following is the drug that the driver is abusing?
A. Diazepam
B. Theophylline
C. Amphetamine
D. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
C. Amphetamine
Which of the following is a property of amphetamine?
A. It does not cross the blood brain barrier
B. It stimulates the release of stored acetylcholine
C. It stimulates the release of stored norepinephrine
D. It stimulates the release of five hydroxytryptophan (5-HT
C. It stimulates the release of stored norepinephrine
Which depolarizing neuromuscular blocker is less potent than tubocurarine?
A. succinylcholine (Anectine)
B. rocuronium (Zemuron)
C. pipecuronium (Arduan)
D. doxacurium (Nuromax)
A. succinylcholine (Anectine)
Which of the following is a consequence of stimulation of ꭤ1 - adrenoceptors?
A. flushing
B. increased heart rate
C. constricted bronchioles
D. elevated blood pressure
D. elevated blood pressure
Drug to reverse action of Atropine?
A. Physostigmine
B. Benztropine
C. Disulfiram
D. Propranolol
A. Physostigmine
Catechol amine with COMT ?
A- rapid metabolism
B- slow metabolism
A- rapid metabolism
What is the pharmacological classification of Ipratropium bromide?
A. Beta agonist
B. Alpha agonist
C. Cholinergic agonist
D. Antimuscarinic agent
D. Antimuscarinic agent
A 21-year-old patient went through respiratory depression after receiving anesthetic agent.
Which of the following agents will counteract post-anesthetic respiratory depression?
A. morphine
B. picrotoxin
C. diazepam
D. thiopental
B. picrotoxin
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of rivastigmine?
A. cholinesterase inhibitor
B. alpha-a receptor inhibitor
C. serotonin reuptake inhibitor
D. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibito
A. cholinesterase inhibitor
Which of the following drugs would decrease the amount of minimum alveolar
concentration (MAC) for an anesthetic drug?
A. diazepam
B. buspirone
C. ephedrine
D. loratadine
A. diazepam
What is the antidote for heparin toxicity?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Sodium salicylate
C. Naloxone
D. Glucagon
A. Protamine sulfate
Which of the following anesthetics drugs has a higher risk of causing anemia?
A. propofol
B. ketamine
C. isoflurane
D. nitrous oxide
D. nitrous oxide
Which of the following is heparin antidote?
A. Protamine Sulphate
B. Octreotide
C. N-Acetylcysteine
D. Naloxone Hydrochloride
A. Protamine Sulphate
11-A 55-year-old man presents with an excessive bronchial and oconasal secretions. History
revealed, is exposed to an organophosphate insecticide. Which of the following is the best
management?
A. Atropine IV
B. Diphenhydramine orally
C. Pralidoxime intramuscularly
D. Physostigmine intramuscularly
A. Atropine IV
In case a patient develops toxicity from midazolam. Which of the following medications
can be given as an antidote?
A. Atropine
B. Flumazenil
C. Amifostine
D. Acetylcysteine
B. Flumazenil
Which of the following situation is most likely to be controlled by administering parenteral
calcium as an antidote?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Verapamil overdose
C. Heroine intoxication
D. Cocaine intoxication
B. Verapamil overdose
Which of the following is the precursor for 5_hydroxytryptamine?
A) proline
B) alanine
C) glutamine
D) tryptophan
D) tryptophan
Which of the following enzymes regulate supercoiling of DNA?
A) Helicases
B) Primases
C) Topoisomerases
D) Reverse transcriptase
C) Topoisomerases
Where dose the electron transport chain reaction pathway take?
A) Cell cytoplasm
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Outer mitochondrial membrane
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
The diagram shows the role of a vitamin as coenzyme for cystathionine synthase and
cystathionase enzymes which catalyze the transsulfuration of methionine to cysteine (see image).
Which of the following is the vitamin indicated by the star*
in the figure?
A. B2
B. B3
C. B5
D. B6
number 50 page 8
D
Which of the following vitamin deficiency can cause scurvy?
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B6
C. vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
C. vitamin C
krebs cycle for production of ?
A- ATP
13-The synthesis of glycogen from glucose called?
A- Glycogenesis
Role of ATP ?
A. Energy carrier
B. Oxygen carrier
C. Amino acid carrier
A. Energy carrier
pH difference between extracellular and intracellular fluid is
A. Nil
B. 0.2
C. 0.4
D. 0.8
C. 0.4
use Glucosamine for uses ??
A- Osteoporosis
B- Osteomyelitis
C- Osteoarthritis
C- Osteoarthritis
which is cytokine
A. Leukotriene
B. Adrenaline
C. Gonadotropin
A. Leukotriene
Which Amino acid we give for anorexia?
A. Alanine
B. arginine
C. valine
c
coenzyme for cystathionine synthase and cystathionase enzymes which catalyze the
transfiguration of methionine to cysteine ?
A- B2
B- B3
C- B5
D- B6
D- B6
Which process does Insulin work on increase?
A- Glycogenolysis
B- Glyconeogenesis
C- Glucogensis
D- Ketogenesis
B- Glyconeogenesis
Which process does Insulin work on or increase ?
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glyconeogenesis
C. Glucogensis
D. Ketogenesis
B. Glyconeogenesis
How much molecule ATP molecules are produced for every glucose.
A- 12
B- 24
C- 34
C- 34
Which of the following is the precursor for 5- hydrotryptamine (serotonin)?
A. Proline
B. Alanine
C. Glutamine
D. Tryptophan
d
Where dose the electron transport chain reaction
A. pathway take
B. Cell cytoplasm
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Outer mitochondrial membrane
E. Inner mitochondrial membrane
E. Inner mitochondrial membrane
- starch is digested in saliva by ?
A. Amylase
B. lipase
A
DNA ligase enzyme for ligation of ?
A. mRNA with TRNA
B. 2mRNA molecules
C. 2tRNA molecules
D. 2DNA strands
D. 2DNA strands
POLYSACCHARIDE?
A- Glucose
b- glycogen
c- glucagon
b
How much ATP molecules are produced for every glucose molecule?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 34
c
How many amino acid in the human body ?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
a. 20
Which parameter used when we give statin and there is rhatdomyolysis ?
A- Creatine kinase
B- Crcl
a
Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
A) Lysine
B) Valine
C) Cysteine
D) Isoleucine
C) Cysteine
N.B. the 9 essential amino acids are : histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine ,phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan and valine
Which of the following could lead to decrease in international normalization ratio (INR) in a
patient of warfarin therapy?
A. decrease the consumption of dietary vitamin K
B. carbamazepine therapy
C. cotrimoxazole therapy
D. metronidazole therap
b
Purpose of mitochondria ?
A- Synthesis of DNA
B- Synthesis of RNA
C- Produce ATP
C- Produce ATP
Which is complex protein ?
A. Pr
B. Sec
C. Tri
D. Quaternary in structure
D. Quaternary in structure
acetyl-CoA to form malonyl- coA which vitamine is used ?
A. biotin (B7)
B. riboflavin
C. pyridoxine
D. nicotinamide
A. biotin (B7)
Acetyl coA and cetric acid cycle which vitamine is used ?
A. B6
B. B12
C. B2
D. B9
C. B2
What the function of small nuclear (snRNAs) in protein synthesis?
A. Act as catalyst
B. Modifies mRNA molecules
C. Genetic blueprint for the protein
D. Translates genetic code to amino acid
B. Modifies mRNA molecules
Which the carrier in Krebs Cycle?
A. Carrier in cryps cycle
B. oxaloacetat
C. citric acid
B. oxaloacetat
which the Carbohydrates produce more energy
A. glucose
B. maltose
C. sucrose
A. glucose
Number of ATP in glycolysis ?
A- 1
B- 22
C- 24
D- 2
D- 2
Which of the following is the process of breaking down of glycogen ?
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis
Which of the following pairs represents the purines nitrogenous bases?
A. Adenine (A) and Uracil (U)
B. Cytosine (C) and Uracil (U)
C. C)Adenine (A) and guanine (G)
D. D)Cytosine (C) and guanine (G
C. C)Adenine (A) and guanine (G)
Which of the following inhibits gluconeogenesis?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine
D. Glucocorticodes
A. Insulin
which of the following inhibits gluconeogenesis
A- insulin
B- glucagon
C- epinephrine
D- glucocorticoids
a
Which of the following is a function of alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme?
A. Accelerates the reduction of ethanol
B. Accelerate the addition of hydrogen to ethanol
C. Accelerates the addition of phosphate to ethanol
D. Accelerates the removal of hydrogen from ethanol
D. Accelerates the removal of hydrogen from ethanol
A water-soluble vitamin catalyzes the carboxylation of acetyl-COA to form malonyl-CoA, which
is required for the synthesis of fatty acids (see image) Which of the following vitamins plays this
role?
A. biotin (b7)
B. riboflavin
C. pyridoxine
D. nicotinamide
image number 84 page 12
a
which of the following anti platelets is contraindicated patients with transient ischemic
attack (TIA) or stroke?
A. Prasugrel
B. Ticagrelor
C. Clopidogrel
a
Which of the following compounds is urea cycle a biochemical reaction that produce urea
from?
A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Glycogen
D. Ammonia (NH3)
D. Ammonia (NH3)
Which of the following is an example of a parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor?
A) enoxaparin
B) argatroban
C) fondaparinux
D) unfractionated heparin
B) argatroban
Which of the following is a potential serious side effect that is common among all
anticoagulant agents?
A. Hypokalemia.
B. Major Bleeding
C. Liver Dysfunction
D. Renal Dysfunction
B. Major Bleeding
which of the following antiplatelet agents the highest risk of causing dyspnea ?
A. Prasugrel
B. Ticagrelor
C. Clopidogrel
D. Dipyridamole
b
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for forming DNA copy from RNA?
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Helicase
D. Primase
A. Reverse transcriptase
A 51-year-old man diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The patient planned for warfarin
and started combination with warfarin until INR is therapeutic (see lab result)
weight :80kg
height : 160 cm
test:creatine
result: 85
normal value: 44-115 umol/L
test: creatinin clearance
result: 103
normal value: 70-103 umol/L
Which of the following enoxaparin dose regimen should the patient receive?
A. Enoxaparin 30 mg SC every 24h
B. Enoxaparin 40 mg SC every 24h
C. Enoxaparin 80 mg SC every 12h
D. Enoxaparin 160 mg SC every 12h
C. Enoxaparin 80 mg SC every 12h
Which of the following medications is an anticoagulant agent?
A. Aspirin
B. Warfain
C. Clopidogrel
D. D. Streptokinase
B. Warfain
Which of the following medications produces antiplatelet effect by inhibiting Adenosine
Diphosphate (ADP) receptors?
A. aspirin
B. abciximab
C. clopidogrel
D. streptokinase
C. clopidogrel
Which of the following drugs can be used to lyse fibrin clots?
A. heparin
B. warfarin
C. enoxaparin
D. streptokinase
D. streptokinase
Which of the following is the recommended anti-coagulation strategy for atrial fibrillation
patient with a CHA2DS2-VACS score of 5?
A. aspirin
B. dabigatran
C. clopidogrel
D. no anticoagulation
b
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of apixaban?
A. an indirect inhibitor of thrombin
B. an indirect inhibitor of factor Xa
C. a direct inhibitor of thrombin
D. a direct inhibitor of factor Xa
D. a direct inhibitor of factor Xa
Which of the following is a potential serious side effect that is common among all
anticoagulant agents?
A. hypokalemia
B. major bleeding
C. liver dysfunction
D. renal dysfunction
B. major bleeding
Which of the following is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during hemodialysis
procedure?
A. Enoxaparin
B. Dabigatran
C. Rivaroxaban
D. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
D. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
Which of the following can decrease the effect of warfarin?
A. Antibiotics
B. Paracetamol
C. Multivitamins (contain vit k)
D. Calcium supplement
C. Multivitamins (contain vit k)
What is the route of administration of Enoxaparin?
A. Intrathecal bolus
B. Transdermal injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
D. Intramuscular injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
Which of the following best represents the activity of dipyridamole?
A. It has fibrinolytic activity
B. It has antifibrinolytic activity
C. It is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
D. It is a phosphodiesterase enzyme induce
C. It is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
Which of the following is recommended regarding air bubble in the syringe for a patient
starting on enoxaparin subcutaneous Injection?
A. inject the dose with the air bubble
B. Inject the air bubble if the volume is small
C. remove the air bubble to avoid wastage of the dose
D. remove air bubble and adjust volume before injection
A. inject the dose with the air bubble
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of apixaban?
A. an indirect inhibitor of thrombin
B. an indirect inhibitor of factor Xa
C. a direct inhibitor of thrombin
D. a direct inhibitor of factor Xa
D. a direct inhibitor of factor Xa
Which of the following can decrease the effect of warfarin?
A. antibiotics
B. paracetamol
C. multivitamins
D. calcium supplement
C. multivitamins
What is the route of administration of Enoxaparin?
A. Intrathecal bolus
B. Transdermal injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
D. Intramuscular injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
Which of the following can decrease the effect of warfarin?
A. Antibiotics
B. Paracetamol
C. Multivitamins (contain vit k)
D. Calcium supplemen
C. Multivitamins (contain vit k)
Which of the following statements describes unfractionated heparin?
A. enolic acid derivative
B. propionic acid derivative
C. acetyl ester of salicylic acid
D. mucopolysaccharide polymer
D. mucopolysaccharide polymer
Which of the following best represents the activity of dipyridamole?
A. It has fibrinolytic activity
B. It has antifibrinolytic activity
C. It is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
D. It is a phosphodiesterase enzyme induce
C. It is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
Which of the following medications is an anticoagulant agent?
A. Aspirin
B. Warfain
C. Clopidogrel
D. D. Streptokinase
B. Warfain
Which of the following drugs can be used to lyse fibrin clots?
A. heparin
B. warfarin
C. enoxaparin
D. streptokinase
D. streptokinase
Which of the following can decrease the effect of warfarin?
A. antibiotics
B. paracetamol
C. multivitamins
D. calcium supplement
C. multivitamins
Which of the following medications produces antiplatelet effect by inhibiting Adenosine
Diphosphate (ADP) receptors?
A. aspirin
B. abciximab
C. clopidogrel
D. streptokinase
C. clopidogrel
Which of the following is parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor?
A. Argatroban
B. Dabigatran (ORAL )
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin
A. Argatroban
Risk factor cause DVT?
A. Age
B. food rich of VK
C. surgery
C. surgery
Which of the following is recommended regarding air bubble in the syringe for a patient
starting on enoxaparin subcutaneous injection?
A. Inject the dose with the air bubble
B. inject the air bubble if the volume is small
C. remove air bubble to avoid wastage of the dose
D. remove air bubble and adjust volume before injection
A. Inject the dose with the air bubble
how ibuprofen inhibit antiplatelet effect of aspirin
A- Ibuprofen bind to cox1 and hinder it’s acetylation by aspirin
The recommended DVT prophylaxis dose for postpartum in women with heigh risk of
DVT is?
A. 3 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
B. 6 weeks
Neonate with coagulopathy which vit K route will you use ?
A. Suppository
B. Iv
C. Sc
D. Im
b. IV
child is IM
Coagulopathy.. IV
- Which of the following antiplatelet working by inhibition of adenosine diphosphate
receptor?
A. Aspirin
B. Abciximab
C. Clopidogrel
D. Streptokinase
C. Clopidogrel
Which direct anticoagulant needs premedication 5-10 days
with anticoagulant ?
A. Apixaban
B. Dabigatran
B. Dabigatran
patient on warfarin and has mechanical valve and INR 3.5, what should you do ?
A- No management
b- decrease warfarin dose
A- No management
antiplatelet C.I. in patients with transient ischemic attack ?
A- dipyradimole
B- clopidogrel
C- prasugrel
D- ticagrelor
C- prasugrel
INR monitoring after initiation as outpatient ?
A- next day
B- 2-5 days
C- 1 month
D- 3 months
B- 2-5 days
treatments of pulmonary embolism?
A- Enoxaparin 40 mg sc once daily
B- Rivaroxaban
C- Enoxaparin 1 mg/ kg twice daily
Or 2 mg/ kg once daily
C- Enoxaparin 1 mg/ kg twice daily
Or 2 mg/ kg once daily
patient is taking warfarin 4.5 mg PO daily came to the clinic with INR of 5.1 without
any signs of active bleeding, what is the appropriate management for her ?
A. Hold warfarin and give vit K IV
B. Hold warfarin and resume with lower dose
C. Hold warfarin and give platelet
B. Hold warfarin and resume with lower dose
in pregnancy what the trimester can be use warfarin ?
A. first
B. second
C. third trimester
D. avoided use in pregnancy
D. avoided use in pregnancy
Pt use Warfarin 10mg and INR low why ?
A. Low dose
B. Dite
C. Low bioavailability of warfarin
B. Dite
which the fallowing uses in prophylaxis strock
A. anticoagulant
B. thrombolytic drug
C. antipletalate
C. antipletalate
Which the fallowing drugs inducing thrombocytopenia
A- UFH heparin
B- LMWH
C- warfarin
D- Aspirin
A- UFH heparin
Which the fallowing drugs treatment thrombocytopenia
A- UFH
B- LMWH
C- warfarin
D- Argatroban
D- Argatroban
Medication for osteoporosis in menopausal women given monthly?
A. Zoledronic acid
B. ibandronate
C. raloxifene
B. ibandronate
Medication for osteoporosis in women given weekly ?
A- Zoledronic acid
B- ibandronate
C- raloxifene
D- Alendronate
D- Alendronate
gold standard test for Osteoporosis ?
A- (DEXA) ✅
dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
285- Patient with Osteoporosis which need for Diagnosis?
A- X-ray
B- MRI
C- CT
A- X-ray
Which of the following osteoporosis drugs can cause esophageal ulcers?
A. denosumab
B. teriparatide
C. alendronate
D. zelodronic acid
C. alendronate
Which of the following medications for osteoporosis will significantly reduce the risk of hip
fracture?
A. Phosphate
B. Risedronate
C. Raloxifene
D. Calcitonin
B. Risedronate
A 65-year patient suffered from Osteomalacia with finger numbness, tingling and burning of
extremities. The doctor prescribed vitamin D and an IV calcium supplement. Which of the following
calcium salts did the physician most likely prescribed ?
A. Calcium citrate (21%calcium)
B. Calcium lactate(13%calcium)
C. Calcium gluconate (9%calcium)
D. Calcium phosphate (39% calcium)
C. Calcium gluconate (9%calcium)
N.B:-Ca phosphate no more effective — and may in fact be less effective — than calcium citrate
or calcium carbonate
A 6-year-old child weighing 28 kg came to the clinic with viral infection. The physician
prescribed acyclovir at a dose of 20 mg/kg four times a day. Acyclovir is available as 200 mg/5 ml
oral suspension. How many milliliters would be administered per day?
A. 10
B. 14
C. 44
D. 56
D. 56
A physician prescribed heparin at a dose of 75 units/Kg every six hours for a child weighing
15 kg, heparin is available in 2.5 ml vial containing 12,500 units. How many milliliters of heparin
solution would be administered every day?
A. 0.5
B. 0.9
C. 1.5
D. 1.8
B. 0.9
The following formula was prescribed by a dermatologist for a patient with dermatitis.
Hydrocortisone 1.5% w/w
Cream base to make 50g
the pharmacist has two strengths of hydrocortisone creams in his hand, 2.5% and 1%.
Therefore, in order to compound this prescription, the pharmacist is going to add these two
creams strength together in certain proportions to fulfill this formulation.
Which of the following is the weight ratio of the two strengths of hydrocortisone needed?
A. 1:2
B. 1:1
C. 0.5:1
D. 2:1
C. 0.5:1
The pharmacist received a prescription to extemporaneously prepare moxifloxacin oral
suspension from the 400 mg tablet in a concentration of 20 mg/ml with total volume of 60 mL
Which of the following is the number of tablets of moxiflaxacin 400 mg needed to prepare the
above prescription?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
B. 3
Drug X has an infusion rate of 0.95 mg/kg/hr. Which of the following is the amount of drug
X (in mg) needed for a 12- hr infusion if patient weight is 70 kg?
A. 66.5 mg
B. 84 mg
C. 665 mg
D. 798 mg
D. 798 mg
A 6-year-old child weighing 28 kg came to the clinic with viral infection. The physician
prescribed acyclovir at a dose of 20 mg/kg four times a day. Acyclovir is available as 200 mg/5 ml oral
suspension.
How many milliliters would be administered per day?
A. 10
B. 14
C. 44
D. 56
D. 56
A patient is to receive one mg of hydromorphine hydrochloride injection for pain.
Hydromrophine hydrochloride is available as 500 mg in a 50 ml vial. How many milliliters would be
injected?
A. 0.1
B. 0.5
C. 1.0
D. 2.0
A. 0.1
A solution contains 2.5 mg of a drug per milliliter. administered at a rate of 50 mg/hr. (1 ml =
30 drops).
Which of the following Is the most appropriate infusion rate?
A) 5 drops/min
B) 10 drops/min
C) 20 drops/min
D) 40 drops/min
B) 10 drops/min
A 2.5% intravenous drug is infused at a rate of 1.5 ml/min. Which of the amount of the drug
(in mg) that is infused in each hour?
A) 25
B) 225
C) 2000
D) 2250
D) 2250
-A technician is preparing 250 ml of 70% (w/v) dextrose solution.
Which of the following is the total amount of dextrose (in grams) in the final preparation?
A) 125 g
B) 150 g
C) 175g
D) 200 g
C) 175g
How many milliliters of paracetamol syrup of 120 mg/5 ml strength would be prepared
using 1.8 kg of paracetamol?
A) 15,000 mL
B) 30,000 mL
C) 50,000 mL
D) 75,000 mL
D) 75,000 mL
What is the percentage w/v of 10 ml vial that contains 50 mEq of ammonium chloride per 10
ml if 1 mEq of ammonium chloride = 0.0535g?
A) 0.535
B) 2.675
C) 5.350
D) 26.750
B) 2.675
One folic acid tablet contains 400 mcg of folic acid as an active ingredient. How many tablets
would be required for the preparation of 30 grams of folic acid?
A) 5000 tablets
B) 7500 tablets
C) 50000 tablets
Đ) 75000 tablets
Đ) 75000 tablets
A 6-year-old HIV infected boy measuring 0.9 m2
is to receive nevirapine 140 mg/m’ two times
daily. Nevirapine is available as 50 mg/5 ml suspension. How many millilters of nevirapine
suspension would be administered per dose?
A) 6.3
B) 12.6
C)14.0
D) 16.5
B) 12.6
A drug has a clearance value of 4.75 L/hour and 65% is cleared by renal excretion.
Which of the following would be the non-renal clearance value?
A) 1.25 L/hrs
B) 1.66 L/hrs
C) 1.90 L/hrs
D) 2.05 L/hr
B) 1.66 L/hrs
A patient is to receive 400 ml intravenous infusion of a 1% drug that will be over 10 hours
Which of the following is the amount (milligrams)of the drug that will be delivered in 15
minutes ?
A) 100 mg
B) 150 mg
C) 200 mg
D) 400 mg
A) 100 mg
Penicillin-G potassium Is available in 50 ml vial containing 20 gram. Each milligram of
penicillin-G potasslum is equal to 1500 units.
How many units of penicillin G potassium are there in each vial?
A) 15,000,000
B) 20,000,000
C) 25,000,000
D) 30,000,000
D) 30,000,000
A physician prescribes, for a 6-year-old child 10 mg, omeprazole daily for seven days as a
syrup formulation. Omeprazóle capsules strength are available in the pharmacy is 10 mg
Which of the following is the number of capsules required to make to suffice the total doses in
the prescription if the final concentration syrup should be 2 mg/mL?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
D) 7
A 35-year-old individual is receiving 20 mg of propranolol hydro four times daily as a
prophylaxis to migraine attacks. The drug 25% bioavailability due to extensive first pass effect.
What amount of the drug reaches the systemic circulation after dosing?
A) 2.5 mg
B) 5.0 mg
C) 7.5 mg
D)10mg
B) 5.0 mg
A 55-year-old man with a history of recurrent back pain is admitted to the hospital, he was
prescribed paracetamol 1000 mg P.O Q6hr PRN for 1-month available tablet is 500mg. What is the
maximum quantity given for a refill?
A. 8 tablets
B. 24 tablets
C. 42 tablets
D. 240 tablets
D. 240 tablets
-A child weighing 25 kg is prescribed acetazolamide 2.5 mg/kg every 12 hours. Acetazolamide
is available in a liquid dosage form with strength of 25 mg/ml.
How many milliliters would the patient be administered per dose?
A. 2.5
B. 5.0
C. 7.5
D. 10
A. 2.5
The diclophenac sodium suppository is prepared according to the following formula:
Diclophenac sodium 2.5%
Triglyceride base to make 1g
How many grams of diclophenac sodium should be used to prepare 24000 suppositories?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 600
D. 600
Which of the following is the amount of dextrose (in grams) that is present in 100 ml of 10%
dextrose solution?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1000
B. 10
a 4-year-old boy is admitted with dehydration. he is started on dextrose 5% and normal
saline with 40 milliequivalent potassium chloride per liter at a rate of 40 ml per hour weight is 16
kilograms.
How much potassium chloride (in milliequivalent per kilograms per day) is her receiving?
A. 2.4
B. 3
C. 4.5
D. 6
A. 2.4
which of the following is the percentage (%) strength of ketorolac tromethamine in an
ophthalmic solution if 200 micrograms of the drug are present in 50 microliters of the solution?
A. 0.25
B. 0.40
C. 0.50
B. 0.40
10 ml vial contains 1 gm of clindamycin hydrochloride. each milligram of clindamycin
hydrochloride is equivalent to 800 micrograms (mcg) of clindamycin.
How much clindamycin in micrograms (mcg) is present in 3 ml solution?
A. 240
B. 2,400
C. 24,000
D. 240,000
D. 240,000
A solution contains 27 mg of antipyrine per 500 microliter. How many grams of antipyrine
are there in 3 ml of the solution?
A. 0.162 gm
B. 0.270 gm
C. 162 gm
D. 270 gm
A. 0.162 gm
A 5-years-old girl weights 16 kilograms and is 95 centimeters tall. Which of the following is
her body surface area in squared meter (m)?
A. 0.1
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 0.9
C. 0.6
he following prescription is received in a hospital pharmacy: Losartan 25 mg
S: Take 1 tab BID M: 3 weeks
Which of the following instructions will be on the prescription label?
A. Take 1 tablet once daily (21 tablets)
B. Take 2 tablets once daily (42 tablets)
C. Take 1 tablet twice daily (42 tablets)
D. Take 2 tablets twice daily (48 tablets)
C. Take 1 tablet twice daily (42 tablets)
How many milliliters are there in one table spoonful in a metric system?
A. 2.5 ml
B. 5.0 ml
C. 10 ml
D. 15 ml
D. 15 ml
A solution contains 2.5 mg of a drug per milliliter. The drug is to be administered at a rate of
50 mg/hr. (1 mL= 30 drops). Which of the following is the most appropriate infusion rate?
A. 5 drops/min
B. 10 drops/min
C. 20 drops/min
D. 40 drops/min
B. 10 drops/min
A patient is to receive two drops of dexamethasone four times daily. The dexamethasone is
available as 0.1% solution in a 5 ml bottle with a dropper calibrated to deliver 16 drop per ml.
How many days will the bottle last?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
D. 10
What is the specific gravity of a liquid if 121.92 ml of its weight is 107.56 g?
A. 0.882 s.g.
B. 1.88 s.g.
C. 2.88 s.g.
D. 8.822 s.g.
A. 0.882 s.g.
- A physician prescribed 5000 units of heparin two times daily for five days. Heparin is
available in a vial containing 20,000 units/ml.
How many milliliters should be given for each dose?
A. 0.25
B. 0.50
C. 0.75
D. 1.50
A. 0.25
A solution contains 5 gm of drug per 25 ml.
Which of the following is the concentration, in mg/ml, of the drug?
A. 50 mg/ml
B. 100 mg/ml
C. 200 mg/ml
D. 400 mg/ml
C. 200 mg/ml
-A 20-year-old boy who weighs 10 kg is prescribed Drug x as 1 mg/kg/hour infusion, The
pharmacy prepared the prescription by diluting 5 ml of 25 mg/ml concentration via to100 ml with
normal saline. Which of the following is the rate of infusion (in ml/hour)
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
D. 8
A drug has a total body clearance of 2.5 L/hr. Its hepatic metabolism accounts for 25%
during less blood perfusion and 40 % when blood perfusion is higher to the liver.
What will be the hepatic clearance value in fed state of stomach?
A. 0.50 L/hr
B. 0.75 L/hr
C. 1.00 L/hr
D. 1.50 L/hr
C. 1.00 L/hr
2-A physician ordered Labetalol hydrochloride intravenous infusion at a close of 500
micrograms/min over an hour for a hypertensive patient. Labetalol hydrochloride is available in a
20 ml vial containing 5 mg/ml of the drug.
Which of the following is the amount in (milliliters) of labetalol hydrochloride solution that
should be administered?
A. 4.5
B. 6
C. 7.5
D. 10
B. 6
An ointment was prepared by incorporating 15 g of a drug into 150 g of petrolatum.
What would be the concentration of the drug in the ointment?
A. 0.91%
B. 1.00%
C. 0.10%
D. 10.00%
D. 10.00%
A 2.5%intravenous drug is infused at a rate of 1.5 m/min Which of the amount of the drug
(in mg) that is infused in each hour?
A. 25 mg
B. 225 mg
C. 2000 mg
D. 2250 mg
D. 2250 mg
If a pharmacist has a stock solution of D5W and D50W
How many milliliters form each solution will need in order to prepare a 450 ml of D15W
solution?
A. D50w/ D5w=100/350
B. D50w/D5w=350/100
C. D50w/D5W=200/250
D. D50w/D5w= 250/200
A. D50w/ D5w=100/350
How much of 5% w/v solution would be required to prepare 60 ml of 5mg/ml solution?
A. 6 ml
B. 10 ml
C. 15 ml
D. 18 ml
A. 6 ml
The pharmacy receives a prescription for labetalol 800 mg twice daily for three days. The
available strength of labetalol in the pharmacy is 200 mg. Which of the following is the number of
200 mg labetalol tablet needed to prepare the above prescriptions for the total duration?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
D. 24
