4 Flashcards
abbreviation :
AC
a. before meal
b. after meal
a. before meal
PC
a. before meal
b. after meal
b. after meal
PRN
a. as needed
b. at bed time
a. as needed
dangerous abbreviation
a. as needed
b. at bed time
a. as needed / PRN
HS- BT
a. as needed
b. at bed time
b. at bed time
PO
a. by oral
b. by rectum
a. by oral
PR
a. by oral
b. by rectum
b. by rectum
OD
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. four times a day
a. once a day
BID
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. four times a day
b. twice a day
TID
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. four times a day
c. thrice a day
QID
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. four times a day
d. Four times a dayt
Tw
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. twice a week
d. twice a week
QD
a. everyday
b. every other day
c. every hour
d. every morning
a. everyday
QOD
a. everyday
b. every other day
c. every hour
d. every morning
b. every other dayQH
QH
a. everyday
b. every other day
c. every hour
d. every morning
c. every hour
QAM
a. everyday
b. every other day
c. every hour
d. every morning
d. every morning
QPM
a. every night
b. every 4 hours
a. every nigth
Q4H
a. every night
b. every 4 hours
b. every 4 hours
BD
a. before dinner
b. before breakfast
a. before dinner
BBF
a. before dinner
b. before breakfast
b. before breakfast
Per siem
a. before dinner
b. before breakfast
c. daily - per day
c. daily- per day
C.
a. with
b. cubic centimeter
c. without
a. with
CC
a. with
b. cubic centimeter
c. without
b. cubic centimeter
S
a. with
b. cubic centimeter
c. without
c. without
Rx
a. treatment
b. history
c. diagnosis
d. fracture
a. treatment
Hx
a. treatment
b. history
c. diagnosis
d. fracture
b. history
Dx
a. treatment
b. history
c. diagnosis
d. fracture
c. diagnosis
Fx
a. treatment
b. history
c. diagnosis
d. fracture
d. fraction
G-Gm
a. gram
b. grain
c. ounce
d. milligram
a. gram
Gr
a. gram
b. grain
c. ounce
d. milligram
b. grain
Oz
a. gram
b. grain
c. ounce
d. milligram
c. ounce
Mg
a. gram
b. grain
c. ounce
d. milligram
d. Milligram
Mcg
a. microgram
b. milliequivalent
c. teaspoonful
a. Microgram
Meq
a. microgram
b. milliequivalent
c. teaspoonful
b. milliequivalent
TSF
a. microgram
b. milliequivalent
c. teaspoonful
c. teaspoonful
5mL
a. microgram
b. milliequivalent
c. teaspoonful
c. teaspoonful
IM
a. intramuscular
b. intravenous
c. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
a. intramuscular
IV
a. intramuscular
b. intravenous
c. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
b. intravenous
ID
a. intramuscular
b. intravenous
c. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
c. intradermal
SC - SQ
a. intramuscular
b. intravenous
c. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
d. subcutaneous
SOS
a. if needed
b. capsule
a. if needed
Cap
a. if needed
b. capsule
b. capsule
antidote for anticholinergic (Atropine, Benztropine Xss CNS depression from DIazepam ) Toxicity
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leuxovorin
a. Physostigmine
what is the antidote of isoniazide (INH) toxicity?
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leuxovorin
b. vitamin B6P
Pyridoxine
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leuxovorin
b. vitamin B 6
what is the antidote for valproic acid toxicity?
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B 6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leucovorin
c. L-carnitine
what is the antidote for Methotrexate toxicity?
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B 6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leucovorin
d. Leucovorin
MTX
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B 6
c. L-carnitine
d. Methotrexate
d. Methotrexate
what is the antidote for methemoglobinemia including agents: nitrites , nitrates toxicity
a. methylene blue
b. digibind, digifab
c. glucagon
d. calcium - Glucagon
a. methylene blue
what is the antidote of Digoxin toxicity
a. methylene blue
b. digibind, digifab
c. glucagon
d. calcium - Glucagon
b. digibind, digifab
what is the antidote of Beta blockers toxicity
a. methylene blue
b. digibind, digifab
c. glucagon
d. calcium - Glucagon
c. glucagon
what is the antidote of calcium channel blocker toxicity
a. methylene blue
b. digibind, digifab
c. glucagon
d. calcium - Glucagon
d. calcium - glucagon
what is the treatment for Opiods ( Morphine, Heroin, Codeine, Fentanyl)
a. Naloxone - Natrexone - Nalmefene
b. flumazenil
c. sodium bicarbonate
a. Naloxone- Naltrexone - Nalmefene
what is the treatment for benzodiazepine (diazepam , zolpidem) toxicity?
a. Naloxone - Natrexone - Nalmefene
b. flumazenil
c. sodium bicarbonate
b. Flumazenil
what is the treatrement for TCA ( Imipramine, Amitriptyline ) toxicity ?
a. Naloxone - Natrexone - Nalmefene
b. flumazenil
c. sodium bicarbonate
c. sodium bicarbonate
what is the treatment for warfarin toxicity?
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
a. vitamin K1
phyto-menadione
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
a. vitamin K1
what is the treatment for Heparin toxicity?
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
b. protamine sulfate
what is the treatment for dabigatran toxicity ?
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
c. Idarucizumab
what is the treatment for thrombolytics ( streptokinasae, urokinase, alteplase, reteplase) toxicity
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
d. aminio caprioc acid and tranexamic acid
what is the treatment for nerve gases toxicity?
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM )
b. Atropine
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
a. Atropine followed by Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
what is the treatment fot organophosphorus insecticides toxicity?
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM )
b. Atropine
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM)
what is the treatemtn for carbamate insecticides
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM )
b. Atropine
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
b. atropine
what is the treatment for cyanide gas toxicity
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM )
b. Atropine
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
what is the treatment for chlorine gas toxicity?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. 100% O2
c. sodium nitrite
a. sodium bicarbonate
what is the treatment for carbon monoxide toxicity?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. 100% O2
c. sodium nitrite
b. 100% O2
what is the treatment for hydrogen sulfide toxicity?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. 100% O2
c. sodium nitrite
c. sodium nitrite
what is the treatmnet for methanol?
a. ethanol- fomepizole - amyl nitrite -Na nitrite
b. ethanol-fomepizole - pyridoxime
a. ethanol- fomepizole - amyl nitrite -Na nitrite
what is the treatment for ethylene glycol
a. ethanol- fomepizole - amyl nitrite -Na nitrite
b. ethanol-fomepizole - pyridoxime
b. ethanol-fomepizole - pyridoxime
what is the treatemtn for Iron toxicity ?
a. deferoxamine
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
c. BAL
d. prussian blue
a. deferoxamine
what is the treatment for lead toxicity?
a. deferoxamine
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
c. BAL
d. prussian blue
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
what is the treatemnt for arsenic toxicity?
a. deferoxamine
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
c. BAL
d. prussian blue
c. BAL
what is the treatemtn for thallium toxicity?
a. deferoxamine
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
c. BAL
d. prussian blue
d. prusian blue
what is the treatemtn for mercury toxicity?
a. BAL - DMSA
b. D- penicillamine
c. Sodium bicarbonate - polystyrene sulfonate
a. BAL - DMSA
what is the treatemnt for Cupper toxicity?
a. BAL - DMSA
b. D- penicillamine
c. Sodium bicarbonate - polystyrene sulfonate
b. D-penicillamine
what is the treatemtn for Lithium toxicity?
a. BAL - DMSA
b. D- penicillamine
c. Sodium bicarbonate - polystyrene sulfonate
c. Sodium bicarbonate - polystyrene sulfonate
what is the treatemnt for paracetamol / Acetaminophen toxicity?
a. N-acetyl cysteine (NAC)
b. alkalinization (NaHCO3)
a. N-acetyl cysteine (NAC)
what is the treatment for aspirin (salicylic acid )toxicity
a. N-acetyl cysteine (NAC)
b. alkalinization (NaHCO3)
b. alkalinization (NaHCO3)
what is the treatment for sulfonylurea
toxicity
a. octreotide
b. Dextrose 50%
a. octreotide
what is the treatment for insuline toxicity ?
a. octreotide
b. dextrose 50%
b. dextrose 50%
what is the treatemtn for crotaline snake bites (e.g. rattle snakes )
toxicity
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
what is the treatment for black widow spider venom toxicty?
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
what is the treatemnt for brown recluse spider bite toxicity ?
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
what is the treatemnt for scorpion sting toxicity?
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
what is the treatment for Clostridium botulinum toxicity?
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Botulinum anti-toxin
d. Botulinum anti-toxin
what controls high blood levels of phosphorus in people with chronic kidney disease who are on dialysis
a. aspirin
b. sevelamer
c. sulfonylurea
b. sevelamer
what ate the essential amino acids
Isoleucine
Lysine
Leucine
Valine
Methionine
Phehylalanine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Histidine
Arginine
mnemonic :
I Love Lucy Very Much Please Try To Help Arginine
histidine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
isoleucine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
leucine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
lysine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
methionine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
phenylalanine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
threonine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
tryptophan
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essentialva
valine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
alanine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
arginine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential
asparagine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
aspartic acid
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
cysteine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
glutamic acid
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
glutamine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
glycine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
proline
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
Selenocysteine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
serine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
tyrosine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
Ala
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
a. alanine
A
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
a. alanine
Arg
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
b. arginine
R
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
b. arginine
Asn
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
asparagine
N
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
c. asparagine
Asp
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
d. aspartic acid
D
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
d. aspartic acid
Cys
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
a. cysteine
C
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
a. cysteine
Gln
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
b. Glutamine
Q
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
b. Glutamine
Glu
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
c. Glutamic acid
E
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
c. Glutamic acid
Gly
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
d. Glycine
G
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
d. Glycine
His
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
a. Histidine
H
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
a. histidine
Ile
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
b. Isoleucine
L
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
b. Isoleucine
Leu
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
c. Leucine
L
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
c. Leucine
Lys
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
d. Lysine
K
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
d. lysine
Met
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
a. methionine
Phe
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
b. phenylalanine
M
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
a. methionine
F
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
b. phenylalanine
Pro
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
d. proline
P
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
d. proline
Phe
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
c. phenylalanine
F
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
c. phenylalanine
Ser
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
a. serine
Thr
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
b. threonine
T
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
b. threonine
Trp
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
W
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
c. trypthophan
Tyr
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
d. tyrosine
Y
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
d. Tyrosine
Val
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. aspartic acid or asparagine
d. glutamic acid or glutamine
a. valine
V
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. aspartic acid or asparagine
d. glutamic acid or glutamine
a. valine
Pyl
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. aspartic acid or asparagine
d. glutamic acid or glutamine
b. pyrrolysine
O
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. aspartic acid or asparagine
d. glutamic acid or glutamine
b. pyrrolysine
Sec
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. selenocysteine
d.aspartic acid or asparagine
c. selenocysteine
U
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. selenocysteine
d.aspartic acid or asparagine
c. selenocysteine
Asx
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. selenocysteine
d.aspartic acid or asparagine
d. aspartic acid or asparagine
B
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. selenocysteine
d.aspartic acid or asparagine
d. aspartic acid or asparagine
Glx
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
a. glutamic acid or glutamine
Z
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
a. Glutamic acid or Glutamine
Xaa
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
b. any amino acid
X
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
b. any amino acid
Xle
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
c. Leuxine or Isoleucine
J
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
TERM
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
d. termination codon
what amino acids are produce in shikimic pathway in plants?
phenylalanine , tyrosine , tryptophan
alanine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
valine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
leucine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
isoleucine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
proline
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
methionine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
serine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
threonine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
cysteine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acids
asparagine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
glutamine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
glycine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
aspartate
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
glutamate
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
c.acidic amino acid
arginine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
d. basic amino acid
histidine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
d. basic amino acid
lysine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
d. basic amino acid
phenylalanine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
e. aromatic amino acid
tyrosine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
e. aromatic amino acid
tryptophan
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
e. aromatic amino acid
alanine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
valine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
leucine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
isoleucine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
proline
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
methionine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
b. thioether
serine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
c. R= alcohol
threonine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
c. R= alcohol
cysteine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
d. R= thiol
asparagine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
e. R=amide
glutamine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
e. R= amide
glycine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
f. R=H
- CH3
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine
a. valine
isopropyl
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine
valine
isobutyl
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine
leucine
sec-butyl
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine
isoleucine
pyrrolidine
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. proline
d. proline
R-S-R
a. methionine
b. serine
c. threonine
a. methionine
primary alcohol
a. methionine
b. serine
c. threonine
serine
secondary alcohol
a. methionine
b. serine
c. threonine
c. threonine
amine of aspartate
a. asparagine
b. glutamine
a. asparagine
amide of glutamate
a. asparafine
b. glutamine
b. glutamine
sakaguchi test
a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
a. arginine
guanidino
a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
arginine
imidazole
a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
histidine
E- amino group
a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
c. Lysine
phenyl
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
phenylalalnine
millon nasse test
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
tyrosineop
phenol
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
tyrosine
indole
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
tryptophan
old rose complex
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
tyrosine
xanthoproteic test
a. aromatic amino acids
b. basic amino acid
c. acidic amino acids
aromatic amino acid
dicarboxylic acids
a. aromatic amino acids
b. basic amino acid
c. acidic amino acids
c, acidic amino acid
which coagulates in the liver?
a. glycine
b. methionine
c. taurine
d. a and b
e. a and c
e. a and c
what are the 4 amino acids that are considered the best when it comes to producing keratin
Cysteine, lysine , arginine and methionine .
These are present in hair and nails
linolenic acid
a. essential fatty acid
b. non essential fatty acids
a. essential fatty acidlino
linoleic acid
a. essential fatty acid
b. non essential fatty acids
a. essential fatty acid
palmitic acid
a. essential fatty acid
b. non essential fatty acids
b. non essential fatty acid
oleic acid
a. essential fatty acid
b. non essential fatty acids
b. non essential fatty acid
glucose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
a. monosaccharide
galactose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
a. monosaccharide
fructose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
a. monosaccharide
sucrose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
b. disaccharide
maltose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
b. disaccharide
lactose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
b. disaccharide
starch
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
c. polysaccharide
glycogen
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
c. polysaccharide
cellulose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
c. polysaccharide
wha tis the building block of carbohydrate?
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
a. monosaccharide
glucose + fructose
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. cellobiose
a. sucrose
glucose + galactose
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. cellobiose
b. lactose
glucose + glucose (alpha 1-4)
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. cellobiose
c. maltose
glucose + glucose ( beat 1-4)
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. cellobiose
d. cellobiose
2 monosaccharide unit
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. oligosaccharide
d. polysaccharide
b. disaccharide
<20 monosaccharide
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. oligosaccharide
d. polysaccharide
c. oligosaccharided
> 20 monosaccharide
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. oligosaccharide
d. polysaccharide
d. polysaccharide
what are the classification of adverse drug reaction
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
what is the classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
-common
-related to pharmacological action
-predictable
- low mortality
-dose related
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
what classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
-uncommon
-not related to pharmacological action
-unpredictable
-high mortality
-non dose related
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
what classification of adverse drug reaction is this one :
-uncommon
-dose related -> related to cumulative dose
- time related
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
c. chronic
waht classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
- uncommon
-time related
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
what classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
-uncommon
-occur soon after withdrawal of drug
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use (withdrawal )
what classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
- common
-often caused by drug interaction
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
f. failure
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
drugs with narrow TI
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
toxic effects of drugs :
digoxin toxicity
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
toxic effects of drug:
seotonin toxicity with SSRI
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
toxic effects of drugs:
anticholinergic effects of TCA
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management: reduced dose or withhold
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
penicillin hypersensitivity
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
idiosyncratic reactions:
acute porphyria
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
idiosyncratic reactions:
malignant hyperthermia
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
Idiosyncratic reactions:
Pseudo allergy
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management :
withhold and avoid in future
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
cortisone for long time cause supression of hypothalamic pituitary afrenal axis
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
c. chronic
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management: reduce dose or withhold
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
c. chronic
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management:
withdrawal may have to be prolonged
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
c. chronic
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
teratogenicity
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
carcinogenesis
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
Tardive dyskinesia
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management:
Intractable
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
opiate withdrawal syndrome
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
beta blocker withdrawal
-Myocardial ischemia
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management:
reintroduced
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management :
withdraw slowly
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
oral contaceptive failure when taken with enzyme inducer drug
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
f. failure
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management:
increase dosage
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
f. failure
what type of risk factor in the heart that has no disease and no symptoms
a. risk factor A
b. risk factor B
c. risk factor C
d. risk factor D
a. risk factor A
what type of risk factor in the heart that has a disease and no symptoms
a. risk factor A
b. risk factor B
c. risk factor C
d. risk factor D
b. risk factor B
what type of risk factor in the heart that a structural disease and symptoms
a. risk factor A
b. risk factor B
c. risk factor C
d. risk factor D
c. risk factor C
what type of risk factor in the heart that
has advanced heart disease with continued Heart failure
a. risk factor A
b. risk factor B
c. risk factor C
d. risk factor D
d. risk factor D
what NYHA heart failure severity that has no symptoms and no exercise
a. 1 mild
b. 2mild
c. 3 moderate
d. 4 severe
a. 1 mild
what NYHA heart failure severity that
has symptoms with moderate exercise
a. 1 mild
b. 2mild
c. 3 moderate
d. 4 severe
b. 2 mild
what NYHA heart failure severity that
has symptoms with minimal exercise
a. 1 mild
b. 2mild
c. 3 moderate
d. 4 severe
c, 3 moderate
what NYHA heart failure severity that
has symptoms with no exercise ( at rest )
a. 1 mild
b. 2mild
c. 3 moderate
d. 4 severe
d. 4 severe
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of cortisone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 5mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
a. 25mg
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of hydrocortisone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 5mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
b. 20 mg
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of prednisone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 5mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
c. 5 mg
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of Prednisolone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 5mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
c. 5mg
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of Methylprednisolone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 4mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
c. 4mg
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of Triamcinolone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 4mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
c. 4mg
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of betamethasone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 4mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
d. 0.6-0.75mg
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of Dexamethasone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 4mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
e. 0.75mg
what drug information resources that is first hand information, meaning that you are reading author’s own account on specific topic.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
indexing and abstracting systems that organize
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
provide easy retrieval of primary resources
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
primary and secondary resources has been collected and distilled
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
they present summaries
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
study design
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
journal article of original research
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
conference papers
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
dissertation
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
technical reports
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
patents
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
Medline
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
PubMed
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
EBSCO
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
Ovid
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :lowa drug information service
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
IDIS
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
international pharmaceutical abstract
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong : IPA
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary
what drug information resources
where this belong : LexisNexis Review articles
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
google scholar
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
textbooks/ books
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
ATLAS
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
treatment guidelines
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
dictionary
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c.tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
encyclopedia
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
electronic data bases
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c, tertiary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
micromedex
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
Lexicomp
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
facts and comparisons
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
review articles in journals
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
its advantage is it is accessible to detailed information about a topic
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
advantage : ability to personally assess the valididty and utility of study results .
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
advantage : more recent than secondary or tertiary resources.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage : misleading conclusion based on the results of only one trial without the context of other researches.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: need good skills in medical literature
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: time needed to evaluate large volume of data available
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: lag time between publication and tertiary resources
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary resources
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: inforamtion may be incomplete
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary resources
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: errors in transcription and interpretations
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: human bias
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: lack of experience
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c, tertiary source
Meyler’s side effects of drugs
a. adverse drug reactions
side effects of drugs annual 40
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
Trissel’s stability of compunded formulations
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
b. pharmaceutical compounding
Remington the science and practice of pharmacy
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
b. pharmaceutical compounding
Pediatric drug formulations
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
b. pharmaceutical compounding
Handbook of injectable drugs
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
King guided to parenteral admixtures
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
Pediatric injectable drugs
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
C. IV medications compatibility and stability
drug prescribing in renal failure
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
d. renal dose adjustment
the renal drug handbook
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
d. renal dose adjustment
renal pharmacotherapy
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
d. renal dose adjustment
drugs in pregnancy and lactation
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
drugs during pregnancy and lactation
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
Hale’s medication and mothers’ milk
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
Brigg’s drug in pregnancy and lactation
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactations
Stockey’s drug interactions
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
b. drug interactions
basic skills in interpreting laboratory data
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
c. drug laboratory interference
laboratory tests and diagnostic procedures
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
c. drug laboratory interference
pediatric injectable drugs
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
neonatal formulary
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
winter’s basic clinical pharmacokinetics
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
a. pharmacokinetics
applied biopharmaceutics and pharmacokinetics
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
a. pharmacokinetics
basic and clinical pharmacology
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
b. pharmacology
good and gilman’s the pharmacological basis of therapeutics
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
b. pharmacology
pharmacotherapy a pathophysiologic approach
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
c. pharmacotherapy
pharmacotherapy principles and practice
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
c. pharmacotherapy
Goldfrank’s toxicologic emergencies
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
d. toxicology
Casarett and Doull’s toxicology
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
d. Toxicology
Poisoning and drug overdose
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
d. toxicology
martindale the complete drug reference
a. internation al drugs
b. identification of unknown pills
c. clinical trials
a. international drugs
Dailymed
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
EMC
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
EMA
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
Drugs@FDA
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
Medscape
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
Drug.com
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
Rxlist
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
ASHP’s interactive handbook on injectable drugs
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
lexicomp
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
Micromedex
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
Medicines complete
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
Clinical key
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a, medication sagety in pregnancy and lactation
Lexi interact
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
b. drug interactions
uptodate
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
Dynamed plus
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
Micromedex
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
Access pharmacy
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a.
a. pharmacotherapy
Access medicine
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
Clinical key
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
BMJ best practice
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
NIH
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
b. toxicology
LiverTox
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
b. Toxicology
Toxnet
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
b. Toxicology
NIH-Dietary supplements label database
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
c. herbal,natural products and alterantive medicine
Medline plus
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
Altmedex
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
Identidex
a. identification of unknown pills
b. clinical trials
a, identification of unknown pills
Lexi-drug ID
a. identification of unknown pills
b. clinical trials
a. identification of unknown pills
Pubmed
a. identification of unknown pills
b. clinical trials
b. clinical trial
ClinicalTrials.gov
a. identification of unknown pills
b. clinical trials
b. clinical trials
what is the color drug reference of this:
provides list of approved drug products and indicated which drugs can be interchanged (e.g. Zocor can be substituted with simvastatin)
a. orange book
b. pink book
c. purple book
d. red book
a. orange book
what is the color drug reference of this:
Provides information on epidemiology and vaccine-preventable disease
a. orange book
b. pink book
c. purple book
d. red book
b. pink book
what is the color drug reference of this:
Provides list of biological drug products and indicates which biological products are biosimilar
a. orange book
b. pink book
c. purple book
d. red book
c. purple drug
what is the color drug reference of this:
Provides drug pricing information
a. orange book
b. pink book
c. purple book
d. red book
d. redbook
provides drug pricing information
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
summaries of infectious disease
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
Summaries of antimicrobial treatments
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
summaries of vaccination
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
Provides health information for healthcare professionals who advise international treavelers of health risks , vaccines and prophylaxis medications
a. yellow book
b. Green book
a. yellow book
provides information about approved animal drug products
a. yellow book
b. Green book
B. GREEN book
1- Which of the following statements is TRUE about tertiary resources ?
a) Tertiary resources should not include a bibliography .
b) Textbooks usually include the most recent literature and/or information .
c) Tertiary resources include computer databases and textbooks
d) The credentials and expertise of the authors of a tertiary resource are not important
c) Tertiary resources include computer databases and textbooks
2- Which of the following resources would be appropriate for identifying a drug manufactured in a foreign
country?
a) Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
b) Clinical Pharmacology
c) Trissel’s stability of compounded formulations
d) AHFS
a) Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
3- Which of the following resources could be appropriate for identifying the tablets with the imprint code of
APO-K 600?
a) Identidex
b) Lexi-Drugs ID (Lexicomp Online)
c) Brigg’s drugs in pregnancy and lactation
d) A and B
d) A and B
4- Which of the following resources could be appropriate for determining the adverse effects of ginkgo
biloba?
a) Altmedex
b) Natural medicines database
c) Trissel’s stability of compounded formulations
d) A and B
d) A and B
5- Which of the following resources would be appropriate in evaluating the drug interaction between
Clopidogrel and escitalopram?
a) Lexi-Interact
b) Trissel’s stability of compounded formulations
c) Stockley’s drug interactions
d) A and C
d) A and C
6- Which of the following resources would be appropriate for determining whether Amlodipine causes
edema?
a) Brigg’s drugs in pregnancy and lactation
b) Trissel’s stability of compounded formulations
c) Meyler’s side effects of drugs
d) Stockley’s drug interactions
c) Meyler’s side effects of drugs
7- What resource should be used when searching for the most current clinical trials on the use of novel
anticoagulants for pulmonary embolism?
a) Pharmacotherapy, the pathophysiologic approach
b) PubMed
c) Uptodate
d) Micromedex
b) PubMed
what drugs used in pregnancy for hypertension
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
b. MgSO4
c. Cromolyn(Category B)
d. insulin m Metformin
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
what drugs used in pregnancy for HTN + hypoproteinemia + seizures
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
b. MgSO4
c. Cromolyn(Category B)
d. insulin m Metformin
b. MgSO4
what drugs used in pregnancy for asthma
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
b. MgSO4
c. Cromolyn(Category B)
d. insulin m Metformin
c. cromolyn (category B)
what drugs used in pregnancy for gestational diabetes
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
b. MgSO4
c. Cromolyn(Category B)
d. insulin ,Metformin
d. insulin, Metformin
what drugs used in pregnancy for headache
a. paracetamol
b. heparin
c. valproic acid + folic acid
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
a. paracetamol
what drugs used in pregnancy for DVT ( deep vein thrombosis)
a. paracetamol
b. heparin
c. valproic acid + folic acid
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
b. heparin
what drugs used in pregnancy for tonic clonic seizure
a. paracetamol
b. heparin
c. valproic acid + folic acid
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
c. valproic acid + folic acid
what drug used in pregnancy for epilepsy
a. paracetamol
b. heparin
c. valproic acid + folic acid
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
what drug used in pregnancy for depression (mild)
a. Fluoxetine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole
d. Cyclizine
a. Fluoxetine
what drugs is used in pregnancy for hypothyroidism
a. Fluoxetine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole
d. Cyclizine
b. levothyroxine
what drugs used in pregnancy for hyperthyroidism
a. Fluoxetine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole
d. Cyclizine
c. propyltjiouracil PTU), Methimazole
what drugs used in pregnancy for nausea and vomiting
a. Fluoxetine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole
d. Cyclizine
d. cyclizine
what drug used inpregnancy for UTI
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
a. Nitrofurantoin
what drugs use din pregnancy for UTI + G6PD deficiency
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
b. cefuroxime
what drug used in pregnancy for otitis media
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
c. azithromycin
what drugs used in pregnancy is used in chlamydia
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
c, azithromycin
what drugs used in pregnancy for syphilis ?
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
what drugs used in pregnancy for vaginal discharge + candida albicans
a. clotrimazole
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
c. Tenofovir
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
a. clotrimazole
what drugs used in pregnancy for herpes ( genital infections
a. clotrimazole
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
c. Tenofovir
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
what drugs used in pregnancy for Hepatitis B
a. clotrimazole
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
c. Tenofovir
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
c. Tenofovir
what drugs used in pregnancy for HIV
a. clotrimazole
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
c. Tenofovir
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
what drugs used in pregnancy for Malaria
a. Chloroquine, Hydrochloroquine
b. Metronidazole
a. Chloroquine, Hydrochloroquine
what drugs is used in pregnancy for Trichomoniasis
a. Chloroquine, Hydrochloroquine
b. Metronidazole
b. Metronidazole
drugs that are contraindicated in pregnancy
Misoprostol category X cause abortion
* Vitamin A is contraindicated in high doses
* Castor oil is contraindicated as laxative
* ACEi cause renal dysfunction in fetus
* Naproxen cause uncontrolled bleeding to baby
* Finasteride cause genital malformation to infant
* Warfarin (category X) cause cranial facial abnormalities → nasal bone hypoplasia
it is a drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy that is category X causes abortion
a. Misoprostol
b. Vitamin A
c. Castor oil
d. ACEi
a. Misoprostol
a drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy that is contraindicated in high doses
a. Misoprostol
b. Vitamin A
c. Castor oil
d. ACEi
b. vitamin A
it is contrain dicated in pregnancy as laxative
a. Misoprostol
b. Vitamin A
c. Castor oil
d. ACEi
c. castor oil
it is contraindicated in pregnancy because it causes renal dysfunction in fetus
a. Misoprostol
b. Vitamin A
c. Castor oil
d. ACEi
d. ACEi
it is contraindicated in pregnancy because it causes uncontrolled bleeding to baby
a. Naproxen
b. Finasteride
c. warfarin
a. naproxen
it is contraindicated in preganancy because it causes genital malformation in infant
a. Naproxen
b. Finasteride
c. warfarin
b. Finasteride
it is contraindicated in pregnancy (category X) because it causes cranial facial abnormalities -> nasal bone hypoplasia
a. Naproxen
b. Finasteride
c. warfarin
c. warfarin
what if the pregnant woman is sensitive to ampicillin, what should you give ?
erythromycin
what should be given to pregnant woman
a. inactive influenza vaccine
b. active influenza vaccine
a. inactive influenza vaccine
what is pregnancy category is glargine (long acting )
a. category A
b. category B
c. Category X
b. category B
what is pregnancy category is paracetramol oral and rectal
a. category A
b. category B
c. Category C
b. category B
what is pregnancy category for paracetamol when given via IV
a. category A
b. category B
c. Category C
c. category C
what is the dose of thyroid hormones in pregnancy?
1.0-2.0 microgram /kg/day
unenforceable norms and values guide behavior
a. ethics
b. law
a. ethics
there are no specific laws
a. ethics
b. law
a. ethics
values written into enforceable standards of behavior
a. ethics
b. law
b. law
are enforced by the justice system
a. ethics
b. law
B.law
what are the basic principles of ethics
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
the right of individuals to self-rule and make decision about:
what will happen to their bodies
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
the right of individuals to self rule and make decision about:
what choices will be made among competing options
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
the right o individuals to self- rule and make decisions about: what they choose to take or not take into their bodies
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
the right of individuals to self-rule and make decisions about choice among health care providers
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
the right of individuals to self-rule and make decisions about:
choice of refusing medical treatment
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
- Exceptions to the theory of autonomy:
– weak paternalism: if one lacks the ability to make an autonomous decision, then it is
up to health care provider
– the harm principle: making the wrong decision or a decision that will cause harm to
themselves.
Privacy: another rule within the principle of autonomy which means the right of the
individual to control his or her affairs without interference.
to do good ( benefit the patient )
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
b. beneficence
prevention to harm and removal of harmful conditions
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
c. non-maleficence
treat all patients fairly (fairness and equity to all)
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
d. justice
what are the principles of professionalism
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
activities , resposibilities and results
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
a. accountability
do the best for the best interest of the patient ( no self- interest)
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
b. altruism
commitment to the service
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
c. duty
highest standard of behavior and good conduct
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
d. honor
adherence to ethical principles and refusal to violate personal codes
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
e. integrity
what are the common characteristics of professionalism
- knowledge
- ethics
- social sanction = public trust
Pharmacists should be aware of the basic moral responsibilities that all health care practitioners have toward
their patients. There are three characteristics that a pharmacist should possess:
1- Pharmacists must be competent.
* They must possess the knowledge base that at least minimally allows them to carry out their Functions as
reliable therapeutic experts.
2- Pharmacists must be trustworthy.
* Patients must know that they can seek the confidential advice and assistance of their pharmacist and that their
wishes will be carried out.
3- Pharmacists must care for and about their patients.
* As the 1995 American Pharmaceutical (now Pharmacists) Association (APhA) Code of Ethics directs, -A
pharmacist places concern for the well- being of the patient at the center of professional practice.”
* pharmacists who do spend time with their patients and attempt to understand their concerns are much more
likely to be viewed as caring.
pharmacist should be honest in their dealings with patients. ( telling the truth)
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
a. veracity
violation of this may be ethically justifiable (as with the use of placebos)
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
a. veracity
patients have a right to expect that pharmacist will be frank in dealing with them
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
a. veracity
it means that the pharmacists demonstrate loyalty to their patients, regardless of the length of the professional relationship
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
b. fidelity
trust and keep promises
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
b. fidelity
what are the two kinds of fidelity?
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
what kind of fidelity is often described as an intimate and spiritaul commitment between individuals
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
a. covenantal fidelity
it includes fidelity in marriage and fidelity between a member of the clergy and his or her congregation
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
a. covenantal fidelity
is does not involve a level of commitment beyond that owned another as the result of a binding agreement
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
an example of this form of fidelity would be the relationship one might have with a contractor such as a plumber or electrician
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
what and how much information about a medication should be given to a patient
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
c. informed consent
patients must be fully informed about the benefits and risks of their participation in a clinical trial, taking a medication, or electing to have surgery, and this disclosure must be followed by their autonomous consent
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
c. informed consent
what are the two types of informed consent
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
what is and informed consent that is for legal and ethical reasons
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
a. formally informed consent
clinical trials
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
a. formed informed consent
research
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
a. formally informed consent
surgery
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
a. formally informed consent
where a pharmacist counseld a patient and dispenses a medication to a patient, a type of informal occurs. the patient is informed about the benefits and any risks of the drug, and then decides whether to take it or not.
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
refuse or give privileged information
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
revealing information about a patient’s medications to members of the family
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
medical confidentiality need not be requested by patients ; all medical information, is considered confidential , unless the patient grants approval for its release
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
members of the health care team have acces to confidential medical recors without the consent of the patient.
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
a patient who expresses a desire not ot have information reveal to a member of the health care team
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
exceptions: weak paternalism , herm principle
inform the patients about Benefit and risk then decide what to do
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
a. full disclosure
pre-vision information about the patient
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
B. PATIENT centered care
culture competition- confidentiality - full disclosure
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
b. patient centered care
help patient to stick to the drug dose and time ( Help not to force)
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
c. patient adherence
duty to the welfare of the individual , particularly described in religion
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
d. respect for persons
efforts and commitment of life long learning and ongoing professional development
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
b. excellence
respect and compassion for others
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
C. HUMANISM
Equal distribution of the benefits and burdens of among all members of society
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distributive justice
pharmacist do not always provide care with rqual dedication to all patients
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distributive justice
patients socioeconomic status often impact the lecel and intensity of care provided by health care professionals
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distributive justice
medicaid patients are sometimes provided a much lower quality of care that a patient who is a cash- paying customer or who has a full coverage drug benefits plan
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distribution justice
justice demands that the docus be on patients and their medical needs, not on the financial impact on the health care professional
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distributive justice
issues that are not specific to a given pharmacist, but rahter are those that must be addressed by all pharmacists andd by society in general
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
issues that may confront individual pharmacists in the course of their daily practice
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
b. micro situations
abortion
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
assisted suicide
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
genetic engineering
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
rationing of and access to health care
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
organ transplantation
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
in vitro fertilization
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
the use of placebo
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
b. micro situation
patient confidentiality
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
b. micro situation s
informed consent
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
b. micro situation
medical euthanasia ( mercy killing )
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b. assisted suicide
legally it is not set yet whether to support or to prohibit
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b, assisted suicide
Hippocratic responsibilities of health care practitioners to do no harm
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b. assisted suicide
thos who advocate its availability to patients suggest that allowing apatient to continue to expoerience unrelenting pain is doing harm
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b. assisted suicide
they suggest that patients have the right to make an autonomous decision to end their life; their opponents worry that legal assisted suicide would be abused
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b. assisted suicide
what are the two importnat ethical aspects of human drug experimentation are
- the role of the institutional review board ORB
- the use of placebos
review protocol for ethical purposes, clinical experiments or before animal studies
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
c. human drug experimentation
making sure that the rights and welfare of the patient subject are protected
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
d. human drug experimentation
evaluatre and approve iformed consent forms used in conjunction with the tesertch
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
c. huma drug experimentation
the placebos are agents deboid of pharmacologic activity and habe serbed as a pount of comparison for determining therapeituc efficacy
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
c. humna drug experimentation
paritnts do not receive any benefits ( beneficence )
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
c. human drug experimentation
1) The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) regulations require pharmacies to keep controlled
substances records, including prescriptions for at least ……….
a) two years
b) three years
c) four years
d) five years.
a) two years
2)………… are issues that are not specific to a given pharmacist, but rather are those that must be
addressed by all pharmacists and by society in general.
a) Macro ethical issues
b) Micro ethical issues
c) Micro situations
d) Macro situation
a) Macro ethical issues
3) revealing information about a patient’s medications to members of the family is example of:
a) patient confidentiality
b) informed consent
c) informed refusal
d) express consent
a) patient confidentiality
4) Pharmacist must possess the knowledge base that’s at least minimally allows them to carry out their
Functions as reliable therapeutic experts. This is called:
A) Competency.
b) Caring
c) Trustworthiness.
d) Knowledge.
A) Competency.
5) …………………………… is the right of individuals to make decisions about what will happen to their
bodies, what choices will be made among competing options, and what they choose to take, or not take,
into their bodies, choice among health care providers, and the choice of refusing medical treatment.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
a) Autonomy
6) …………………….. indicates that you act in a manner to do good.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) justice
b) Beneficence
7) ……………………. is sometimes used more broadly to include the prevention of harm and the removal of
harmful conditions.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) justice
c) Nonmaleficence
8) ……………………….. means that the pharmacists demonstrate loyalty to their patients. Pharmacists have
an obligation of fidelity to all their patients, regardless of the length of the professional relationship.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) Fidelity
d) Fidelity
9) ……………………. is the ethical principle that instructs pharmacists to be honest in their dealings with
patients?
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) veracity
d) veracity
10) ……………………refers to the equal distribution of the benefits and burdens of society among all
members of this society.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) distributive justice
d) distributive justice
11) euthanasia means:
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) mercy killing
d) mercy killing
12) if one lacks the ability to make an autonomous decision, then it is up to health care provider, this is
called:
a) weak paternalism
b) strong paternalism
c) the harm principle
d) autonomy.
a) weak paternalism
13) making the wrong decision or a decision that will cause harm to themselves is called:
a) weak paternalism
b) strong paternalism
c) the harm principle
d) autonomy.
c) the harm principle
14)………………. are unenforceable norms and values guide behavior
a) ethics.
b) morals.
c) laws.
d) rules.
a) ethics.
15) ………………………. values are written into enforceable standards of behavior
a) ethics.
b) morals.
c) laws.
d) rules.
c) laws.
branch of biomedical science that covers the study of all aspects of immune system
a. immunology
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. antibody
a. immunology
smal molecules which could never induce an immune response when administered alone but can induce immune response when coupled a carrier protein
a. immunology
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. antibody
b. hapten
foreign material causing an immune response
a. immunology
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. antibody
c. antigens
specific substance formed in the body in response to antigenic situation stimulation and react specifically with antigen
a. immunology
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. antibody
d. antibody
what are the first line of diffense
1- Anatomical barriers
* Skin
* Cilia in respiratory tract
2- Mucous membrane and their secretions
3- Bacterial flora
what are the 2nd line of defense
1- Inflammation
2- Fever
3- Natural killer cells
4- Phagocytic white blood cells
5- Antimicrobial substances
* Coagulation system
* Lactoferrin and transferrin
* Lysozymes
* Interferons
skin
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
a. 1st line defense
cilia in respiratory tract
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
a. 1st line defense
mucous membrane and their secretion
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
a. 1st line defense
bacterial flora
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
a. 1st line defense
inflammation
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
fever
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
natural killer cell
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
phagocytic white blood cells
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
coagulatio nsysten
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
lactoferrin and transferrin
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
lysozymes
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
interferons
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
page 18
rapid response
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
slow response
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
b. adaptive immunity
macrophage
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
natural killer cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
neutrophil
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
dendritic cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
esosinophil
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
a. innate immunity
Basophil
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
a. innate immunity
T-cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
c. both
natural killer t cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
c. both
B cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
d. adaptive immunity
CD4 + T cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
d. adaptive immunity
CD8+ T cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
b. adaptive immunity
T cell maturation occurs in the ___
a. bone marrow
b. thymus galnd
a. bone marrow
T cell is store in __ then circulated to various destinations
a. bone marrow
b. thymus galnd
b. thymus gland
immediate hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
b. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
allergic hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
b. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
b. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 2
immune complex hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
complement activation hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in antigen form is soluble
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1 and c. type 3
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the antigen form is cell bound
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the antigen form is cell bound and soluble
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the humoral component is IgE
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the humoral component is IgG -IgM
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2 and c. Type 3
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in there is no humoral component
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the cellular component is mast cells
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the cellular component is Macrophages
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the cellular component is neutrophil
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the cellular component is T cell- Macrophages
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
anaphylaxis
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
allergies
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
blood transfusion reactions
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
ErythroBlastosis fetalis
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
Hemolytic anemia
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
Serum sickness
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
lupus
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
tubular lesion
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
contact dermatitis
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
Draft rejection
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
what are the types of immunoglobulin
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
what type of imm;unoglobulin that has a structure of monometric
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG, d. IgD, e. IgE
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
structure: monomer in serum
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Structure: Dimer in secretions
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Structure:Pentameric
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
C. IgM
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
1st-> 80% highest
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
2nd-> 10:15%
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
3rd-> 5:10 %
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
c. IgM
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
4th-> 0.2%
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
d. IgD
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
5th-> 0.002% lowest
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
e. IgE
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 23 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 7 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 5 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
c. IgM
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 2: 8 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
d. IgD
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 2:3 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
e. IgE
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
smallest in size
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
largest in size
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
c. IgM
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
can pass the placenta
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
it can fix complement
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG and c. IgM
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
neutralize toxins
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Present in milk ( Colostrum)
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
is the primary immune response after allergic stimulus
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
c. IgM
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
differentiation of lymphocytes
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
d. IgD
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
type 1 hypersensiticity ( allergic reactions)
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
e. IgE
what is maslow’s hierarchy of needs
at page 20
he was psychologist who studied positive human qualities and lives of exemplary people.
a. Abraham Harold Maslow
b. Abraham de Moivre
a. Abraham Harold Maslow
In 1954, he created the hierarchy of Human Needs and expressed his theories in his book, Motivation and personality
a. Abraham Harold Maslow
b. Abraham de Moivre
a. Abraham Harold Maslow
a person’s motivation to reach his or her full potential.
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self actualization
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
morality
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self-actualization
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
creativity
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self actualization
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
spontaneity
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self acrualization
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
problem solving
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self actualization
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
lack of prejudice
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self- actualization
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
acceptance of facts
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self actualization
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
self-esteem
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
b. esteem
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
confidence
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
b. esteem
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
achievement
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
b. esteem
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
respect of others
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
b. esteem
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
friendship
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
c. love/ belonging
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
family
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
c. love/ belonging
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
sexual intimacy
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
c. love/belonging
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
security of body
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
security of employment
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
security of resources
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
security of morality
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
security of family
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
security of health
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
security of property
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
breathing
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
food
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
water
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
sex
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
sleep
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
homeostasis
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
what Maslow’s hierarchy of need is this :
excretion
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
what type or medication is this:
inappropriate drug selection, dose, dosage form or route of administration
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
a. prescribing
what type or medication is this:
patient doesn’t receive a scheduled dose of medication
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
b. omission
what type or medication is this:
2nd most common error in the medication use process.
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
b. omission
what type or medication is this:
drug was not authorized by an appropriate prescriber
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
c. unauthorized drugs
what type or medication is this:
medication given to wrong patient
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
c. unauthorized drugs
what type or medication error is this one :
drug not administered in accordance to the interval
a. wrong time
b. wrong dose
c. wrong dosage form
a. wrong time
what type or medication error is this one :
1st common error in the medication use process
a. wrong time
b. wrong dose
c. wrong dosage form
a. wrong time
what type or medication error is this one :
the dose administered is different form that prescribed
a. wrong time
b. wrong dose
c. wrong dosage form
b. wrong dose
what type or medication error is this one :
dosage form different from that prescribed
a. wrong time
b. wrong dose
c. wrong dosage form
c. wrong administration
what type or medication error is this one :
reconstitution error
a. wrong preparation
b. wrong administration
a. wrong preparation
what type or medication error is this one :
IV admixture compounding error
a. wrong preparation
b. wrong administration
a. wrong preparation
what type or medication error is this one :
drug is given to a patient inappropriately
a. wrong preparation
b. wrong administration
b. wrong administration
what type or medication error is this one :
IM drug given IV
a. wrong preparation
b. wrong administration
b. wrong administration
what type or medication error is this one :
patient given expired or deteriorated drug
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
a. deteriorated drug
what type or medication error is this one :
patients are not monitored approproately
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
b. monitoring
what type or medication error is this one :
patient use medications in an inappropriately
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
c. compliance
what type or medication error is this one :
patient use metered dose inhaler in wrong way
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
c. compliance
what type or medication error is this one :
2 drugs from the same class are prescribed
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
d. duplication error
what type or medication error that has no error and no harm. possibility of error but no error occurred.
a. medication error A
b. medication error B
c. medication error C
d. medication error D
a. medication error A
what classification of medication error that has error and no harm. error did not reach patient
a. medication error A
b. medication error B
c. medication error C
d. medication error D
b. medication error B
what classification of medication error that has error and no harm. error reach patient and causes no harm
a. medication error A
b. medication error B
c. medication error C
d. medication error D
c. medication error C
what classification of medication error that has error and no harm. error reach patient and causes no harm but need high monitoring
a. medication error A
b. medication error B
c. medication error C
d. medication error D
d. medication error D
what classification of medication error that has error and temporary harm. needs treatment and intervention
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
a. medication error E
what classification of medication error that has error and temporary harm. and has prolonged hospitalization
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
b. medication error F
what classification of medication error that has error and permanent harm
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
c. medication error G
what classification of medication error that has error and near death harm. at this error there is an anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
d. medication error H
what classification of medication error that has error and can cause death
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
e. medication error I
page 22
the process of comparing a patient’s medication orders to all the medications that the patient has been taking.
a. medication compliance
b. medication reconciliation
b. medication reconciliation
is done to avoid medication errors such as omissions, duplications, dosing errors , or drug interactions
a. medication compliance
b. medication reconciliation
b. medication reconciliation
it should be done at every transition of care in which new medication s are ordered or existing orders are rewritten
a. medication compliance
b. medication reconciliation
b. medication reconciliation
this has lipopolysaccharide
a. gram +
b. gram -
b. gram -
this has outer membrane
a. gram +
b. gram -
b. gram
this has thick peptidoglycan layer
a. gram +
b. gram -
a. gram +
which is thicker
a. gram +
b. gram -
`
a. gram +`
peroplasm: gelatinous material // cytopalsmic membrane and peptidoglycan
a. gram +
b. gram -
a. gram +
peroplasm: gelatinous material// cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane
a. gram +
b. gram -
b. gram -
numerous layers of peptidoglycan -> retain crystal violet dye after alcohol use ( no decolorization )-> stain dark violet
a. gram +
b. gram -
a. gram +
2 layers of peptidoglycan -> removal crystal violet dye after alcohol use (decolorization ) -> accept counter stain” safranin” -> pink
a. gram +
b. gram -
a. gram +
b. gram -
page 24
what is the shape of a cocci
a. spherical
b. rod
c. spherical and rod shape
d. comma like shaped
a. spherical
what is the shape of bacilli
a. spherical
b. rod
c. spherical and rod shape
d. comma like shaped
b. rod
what is the shape of coccobacilli
a. spherical
b. rod
c. spherical and rod shape
d. comma like shaped
c. spherical and rod shape
what is the shape of vibrio
a. spherical
b. rod
c. spherical and rod shape
d. comma like shaped
d. comma like shape ( curved rods)
page 25
what is the shape of a spiral ( Corkscrew)
a. wavy undulating
b. tightly coiled
c. filamentous
a. wavy undulating
what is the shape of a spirochaetes
a. wavy undulating
b. tightly coiled
c. filamentous
b. tightly coiled
what is the shape of a branched filamentous
a. surrounded by sheat similar in appearance to fungal mycelia
b. has many shapes can stretch and contract similar to amoeba
a. surrounded by sheat similar in appearance to fungal mycelia
what is the shape of Pleomorphic
a. surrounded by sheat similar in appearance to fungal mycelia
b. has many shapes can stretch and contract similar to amoeba
b. has many shapes can stretch and contract similar to amoeba
Staphylococcus aureus
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli
d. vibrio
a. cocci
Bacillus anthrax
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli
d. vibrio
b. bacilli
Haemophilus influenza
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli
d. vibrio
c. coccobacilli
Vibrio cholera
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli
d. vibrio
d. vibrio
Helicobacter pylori
a. Helical
b. Club
c. Fusobacterium
a. Helical
Corynebacteriaceae
a. Helical
b. Club
c. Fusobacterium
b. club
Fusobacterium novum
a. Helical
b. Club
c. Fusobacterium
c. Fusobacterium
page 25
Actinobacteria
a. simple filamentous
b. branched filamentous
c. pleomorphic
a. simple filamentous
Nocardia
a. simple filamentous
b. branched filamentous
c. pleomorphic
b. branched filamentous
Mycoplasma
a. simple filamentous
b. branched filamentous
c. pleomorphic
c. pleomorphic
it is arranged in grape like cluster
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Bacillus anthrax
c. Haemophilus influenzae
a. staphylococcus aureus
page 25
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of o Celsius to 15 Celsius
a. pyschrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
a. pyschrophiles
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of 25 celsius to 40 celsius
a. pyschrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
b. mesophiles
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of 55 celsius to 65 celsius
a. pyschrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of 80 celsius to 113 celsius
a. pyschrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of acidic pH
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
a. acidophiles
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of neutral pH
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
b. neutrophiles
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of basic pH
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
c. alkaliphiles
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs only in presence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
a. obligate aerobes
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs in presence and absence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that has a greater growth in presence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs only in absence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs in absence of osygen but can grow in presence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs only in presence of low oxygen concentration
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
a. obligate aerobes
Most bacteria
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
E. coli
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
Staph
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. Facultative anaerobes
Clostridium species
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
Streptococcus pyogenes
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
H. pylori
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
e. Microaerophile aerobes
Flavobacterium species
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
a. psychrophiles
Pseudomonads aeruginosa
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
b. mesophiles
E. coli
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
b. mesophiles
Staph
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
b. mesophiles
Bacillus stearothermophilus
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
Thermococcus celer
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
Lactobacillus acidophilus
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
a. acidophiles
most bacteria
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
c. neutrophiles
Vibrio cholera
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
c. alkaliphiles
Streptococcus pneumonia
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
c. alkaliphiles
cocci
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
staphylococcus
a. catalse +ve
b. catalase -ve
a. catalase + ve
Streptococcus
a. catalse +ve
b. catalase -ve
b. catalase -ve
Coagulase + ve
a. S. auresu
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
a. S. auresu
coagulase -ve
a. S. auresu
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
novobionic sensitivity
a. S. auresu
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
partial hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
complete hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
no hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
optochin sensitivity
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
bacitracin sensitivity
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
growth in 6.5% NaCl
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
listeria
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
bacillus
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Corynebacterium
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Clostridium
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
b. anaerobic
nocardia
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Actinomyces
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
b. anaerobic
Nocardia
a. weak acid fast
b. not acid fast
a. weak acid fast
Actinomyces
a. weak acid fast
b. not acid fast
b. not acid fast
S. aureus
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
S. epidermidis
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
S. saprophyticus
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
S. pneumonia
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
S. viridians
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
S. pyogenes
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
S. agalactia
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
Enterococci
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
Non- enterococci
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
listeria
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
b. bacilli
Bacillus
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
b. bacilli
Corynebacterium
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
b. Bacilli
Clostridium
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
b. bacilli
Nocardia
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
c. branched filaments
Actinomyces
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
c. branches filaments
Diplococci
a. earobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
maltose utilization
a. diplocoddi
b. bacilli
c. comma shaped
a. diplocoddi
lactose fermentation
a. diplocoddi
b. bacilli
c. comma shaped
b. bacilli
oxidase positive
a. diplocoddi
b. bacilli
c. comma shaped
c. comma shaped
what Diplococci is maltose utilization positive ?
a. Neisseria meningitides
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Moraxella
a. Neisseria meningitides
what Diplococci is maltose utilization negative ?
a. Neisseria meningitides
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Moraxella
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Moraxella
Citrobacter
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
Serratia
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
E. coli
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
Klebsiella
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
Enterobacter
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
Pseudomonads
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
Salmonella
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
Proteus
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
Shigella
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
Yersinia
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
Citrobactger
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
a. slow lactose fermentation
Serratia
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
a. slow lactose fermentation
E.coli
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
Klebsiella
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
Enterobacter
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
Pseudomonads
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
a. oxidase positive
Salmonella
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
b. oxidase negative
Proteus
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
b. oxidase negative
Shigella
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
b. oxidase negative
Yersinia
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
b. oxidase negative
Salmonella
a. H2S producing positive
b. H2S producing negative
a. H2S producing positive
Proteus
a. H2S producing positive
b. H2S producing negative
a. H2S producing positive
Shigella
a. H2S producing positive
b. H2S producing negative
b. H2S producing negative
Yersinia
a. H2S producing positive
b. H2S producing negative
b. H2S producing negative
Grows in 42 celsius
a. C. jejuni
b. V. cholera
c. H. pylori
a. C. jejuni
grows in alkaline media
a. C. jejuni
b. V. cholera
c. H. pylori
b. V. cholera
urease producing
a. C. jejuni
b. V. cholera
c. H. pylori
c. H. pylori
Neisseria meningitides
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
a. diplococci
Neisseria gonorrhea
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
a. diplococci
Moraxella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
a. diplococci
H. influenza
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
B. pertussis
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
Pasteurella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
Brucella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
F. tularensis
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
Citrobacter
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
Serratia
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
page 28
E. coli
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
Klebsiella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
Enterobacter
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
Pseudomonads
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
Salmonella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
Proteus
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
Shigella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
Yersinia
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
C. jejuni
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
d. comma shape
V. cholera
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
d. comma shape
H. pylori
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
d. comma shape
what are the encapsulated bacteria ?
mnemonic: SHiNE K
S
* Streptococcus Pneumonia
* Streptococcus group B
* Salmonella typhi
Hi
* Haemophilus influenza
N
* Neisseria meningitides
E
* E. Coli
K
* Klebsiella
S. aureus
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
S. epidermidis
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
S. saprophyticus
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
S. pneumonia
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
S. viridians
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
S. pyogenes
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
S. agalactia
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Enterococci
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
S. bovis
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Listeria
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Bacillus
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Corynebacterium
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Nocardia
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Neisseria gonorrhea
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Moraxella
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
Clostridium
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
b. anaerobic
Actinomyces
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
anaerobic
page 29
watch the
disk diffusion method- Kirby- Bauer method
page 30
which of these causes plague
a. Yersinia pestis
b. streptococcus mutans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. H. pylori
a. Yersinia pestis
which of these causes dental plaque / carries ?
a. Yersinia pestis
b. streptococcus mutans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. H. pylori
b. Streptococcus mutans
which of these causes whooping cough
a. Yersinia pestis
b. streptococcus mutans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. H. pylori
c. Bordetella pertusis
which of these causes peptic ulcer?
a. Yersinia pestis
b. streptococcus mutans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. H. pylori
d. H. pylori
is a carbohydrate enrihed coating that covers the outside of many eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells, particularly bacteria
a. Glycocalyx
b. Capsid
a. Glycocalyx
the ___ of most bacateria is contaminated in a single circular molecule
a. RNA
b. DNA
b. DNA
viral structure contains:
1- Nucleic acid genome
2- Protein capsid that covers the genome
3- Lipid envelope
nucleic genome + capsid =
Nucleocapsid
the entire contact virus is called the
virion
fungi
a. eukaryotic
b. prokaryotic
a. eukaruyotic
fungi
a. unicellular
b. multicellular
b. multicellular
what are the types of healthcare cost categories
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
additional cost that a service or treatment alternative impose over another compared with the additional effect , benefit, or outcome it provides
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
e. incremental
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
economic benefit forgone when using one therapy instead of the next best alternative therapy
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
d. opportunity
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
lost opportunity - revenue forgone
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
d. opportunity
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
grief
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
inconvenience
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
fatigue
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
pain and suffering
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
anxiety
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
income forgone because of premature death (mortality)
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
b. indirect
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
lost wages (morbidity )
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
b. indirect
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
cost of decrease productivity (e.g. morbidity and mortality costs)
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
b. indirect
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
hospitalization
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
Ambulance services -nursing services
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
home medical cisit/ clinic visits
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
Emergency department visits
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
diagnostic test
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
patient and family expenses
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
travel cost
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
hospital stays for patient or family
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
Child care service for children of patients
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
food (meals on )
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
what are the types of direct healthcare cost categories
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
hospitalization
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
ambulance services-nursing services
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
home medical visit/ clinic visits
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
emergency department visits
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
diagnostic test
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
patient and family expenses
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
b. direct non medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
travel cost
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
b. direct non medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
hotel stays for patient or family
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
b. direct non medical
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
child care service for children of patients
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
b. direct non medical
what type of direct medical is this :
for setting up the service
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
a. fixed - capital
what type of direct medical is this :
couinselling rooms equipment
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
a. fixed -capital
what type of direct medical is this :
salary of pharmacist
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
b. fixed -labor
what type of direct medical is this :
for running the service
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
c. fixed - overhead
what type of direct medical is this :
lighting , heating , cleaning , rent
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
c. fixed - overhead
what type of direct medical is this :
staff
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
d. semi fixed
what type of direct medical is this :
drugs, blood products, disposable equipment
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
e. variable
what are the models of Pharmacoeconomic analysis
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
comparing drug A to drug B
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
Drug A saves you 5 dollars
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimixation analysis (CMA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
Hibiotic and augmentin
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimization analysis (MA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
the benefit to cost ratio of hiring a pharmacist =1.25
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
the benefit to cost ratio of automated system =1.15
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
the benefit of cost ratio of pharmacist is better than the automated system
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
drug A (5 dollars) and
drug B (10 dollars)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
both have the same action
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
Drug B cause no gastric irritation as drug A
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. sot effectiveness analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
Aspirin and aspirin enteric coated
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
measure the effect of an intervention on health units that measure both quantity and quality of life
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
cancer patient without treatment lives for short time in great pain but with treatment lives for longer time in less pain
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
type of outsome: Equivalent
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a.cost minimization analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
type of outcome: economic
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
type of outcome: clinical
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
type of outcome: humanistic
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: assumed to equivalent in comparable groups analysis
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: monetary outcome dollars
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: natural unit
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
mmHg blood pressure
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: mmHg blood pressure
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: mmol/L blood glucose
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: case cure yes or no
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: Quality Adjusted Life year = utility x expected length of time
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
the two drugs must be equivalent therapeutically then we determine the least costly alternative
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimization analysis(CMA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
measured by: human capital (HC)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
measured by : willingness to pay ( WTP)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
both must have the dame unit to be compared
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by : Average cost effectiveness ratio (ACER)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by: Incremental Cost Effectiveness Ratio (ICER)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by : Symptoms Free Days (SFD)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by : % healed
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcomes assess patient’s functional status or quality of life
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by: Rating Scales (RS)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by Standard Gambles (SG)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by Time Trade Off (TTO)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
Description and analysis of the cost of drug therapy to healthcare system and society
a. pharmacoeconomic
b. pharmacokinetic
a. pharmacoeconomic
what is the formula of Average COst Effectiveness Ratio (ACER)
healthcare cost in dollar / clinical cost not in dollar
look at page 34
what is the formula of Incremental cost effectiveness Ration ICER)
Cost A in dollars - Cost B in dollars / effective A % - effective B %
look at page 34
what are the economic outcome assessment
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
what economic outcome assessment is this :
the value of the resourced consume by program or drug therapy of interest
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
c. cost
what economic outcome assessment is this :
types of healthcare cost categories: direct , indirect , intangible , incremental , opportunity
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
a. cost
what economic outcome assessment is this :
the effects, outputs, and outcomes of the program or treatment alternative
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
b. consequence
what economic outcome assessment is this :
the point of view from which a pharmacoeconomically study is constructed.
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
c. perspective
what economic outcome assessment is this :
it is important to understand the study perspective because it determines with outcomes and costs will be measured.
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
c. perspective
what economic outcome assessment is this :
if comparing the value of Alteplase ( tissue plasminogen activator, or t-PA) with that of Streptokinase.
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
c. perspective
what are the types of cost in economic outcome assessment
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
what economic outcome assessment is this :
all expenses directly and indirectly
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
a. total
what economic outcome assessment is this :
the average cost per unit of output
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
b. average
what economic outcome assessment is this :
extra cost of producing one extra unit of output
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
c. marginal
what economic outcome assessment is this :
additional cost
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
d. incremental
what economic outcome assessment is this :
support the operation to provide the output
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
e. operating
what are the types of consequence outcomes (ECHO model )
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
what type of consequence outcome is this:
the direct, indirect and intangible costs compared with the consequences of medical treatment alternatives
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
a. economic
what type of consequence outcome is this:
the medical events that occur as a result of disease or treatment (e.g. , safety and efficacy end point )
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
b. clinical
what type of consequence outcome is this:
the consequences of disease ot treatment on patient functional status or quality of life along several dimension(e.g., physical function, social function, general health and well being, and life satisfaction)
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
f. humanistic
f. humanistic
what type of consequence outcome is this:
is the desired effect of a drug (efficacy or effectiveness measure ), possibly manifested as cases curved cured, life-years gained, or improved health-related quality of life (HRQOL)
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
f. humanistic
c. positive
what type of consequence outcome is this:
is an undesired or adverse effect of drug, possibly manifested as sa treatment failure, an adverse drug reaction (ADR), a drug toxicity, or even death
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
d. negative
what type of consequence outcome is this:
can serve as a proxy for more relevant final outcomes
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
e. intermediate
what type of consequence outcome is this:
achieving a decrease in low density lipoprotein cholesterol levels with a lipid- lowering afents is an intermediate consequence that can serve as a proxy for a more final outcome such as a decrease in MI rate
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
e. intermediate
waht are the common perspectives in cluded
- patient
- provider
- prayer
- society
what perspective of economic outcome assesment is this:
t-PA may be the best value alternatice because a 1% reduction in mortality rate is observed in this large population
a. from a patient of social perspective
b. from a small community hospital’s perspective
a. from a patient or societal perspective
what perspective of economic outcome assesment is this:
streptokinase may represent a better value because it provides similar outcomes for less money
a. from a patient of social perspective
b. from a small community hospital’s perspective
b. from small community hopital perspective
2 alleles are identical
a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
a. homozygous
2 alleles are different
a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
b. heterozygous
page 37
an approach to disease treatment and prevention that takes in consideration genes, environment , life style
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
a. precision medicine
component of precision medicine
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
b. pharmacogenomics
PGX
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
b. pharmacogenomics
study relation // variation in multiple genes and variability of drug response
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
b. pharmacogenomics
study relation // variation in single gene…. and variability of drug response
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
c. pharmacogenetics
basic structural unit of DNA and RNA
a. nucleotide
b. Gene
c. DNA
a. nucleotide
stretch of nucleotides that codes for single protein
a. nucleotide
b. Gene
c. DNA
b. gene
genetic material that is the main component of chromosome
a. nucleotide
b. Gene
c. DNA
c. DNA
Double helix
a. nucleotide
b. Gene
c. DNA
c. DNA
set of unique genes that determine specific trait in a person ( creativity )
a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
a. genotype
observable traie of genotype ( gene responsible for blue eye color )
a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
b. phenotype
genetic variation is common 1% or more
a. polymorphism
b. mutation
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
a. polymorphism
genetic variation is inherited
a. polymorphism
b. mutation
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
a. polymorphism
genetic variation is rare less than 1 %
a. polymorphism
b. mutation
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
b. mutation
change in a single nucleotide in a genetic sequence
a. polymorphism
b. mutation
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
What HLA complex determines the hypersensitivity reaction of Abacavir
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
a. HLA-B (5701)
what HLA-B complex determines the hypersensitivity reaction of Allopurinol
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
b. HLA-B (5801)
what HLA-B complex when combined with Carbamazepine or Oxcarbazepine will cause severe dermatologic reactions in steven johnson syndrome
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
what HLA-B complex is determination for the hypersensitivity reaction of phenytoin or fosphenytoin
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
c. HLA-B(1502)
what CYP is needed for the activation of the prodrug of Clopidogrel
a. CYP2C191
b. CYP2C192
c. CYP2C19*3
a. CYP2C19*1
what this/ these CYP is present, clopidogrel will not be converted into active form. It will increase the CVS (chorionic villus sampling) event
a. CYP2C191
b. CYP2C192
c. CYP2C19*3
b. CYP2C192
c. CYP2C193
GO BACK TO PAGE 38
GO BACK TO PAGE 39 ABOVE
1- Which of the following is correct?
a. Phenotype is the observable trait that results from gene expression
b. Humans have one copy of each chromosome
c. If the alleles are identical, it is called heterozygous genotype
d. If the alleles are different, it is called homozygous genotype
a. Phenotype is the observable trait that results from gene expression
2- Pharmacogenomic testing shows a female patient with breast cancer is HER2 positive. She is
likely to benefit from which of the following?
a. Ivacaftor
b. Leuprorelin
c. Trastuzumab
d. Rituximab
c. Trastuzumab
3- A child is rapid metabolizer of CYP2D6. How would his body respond?
a. Codeine would be rapidly metabolized to morphine
b. The child will have reduced opioid response
c. Codeine will not be converted into morphine
d. The child will have severe diarrhea
a. Codeine would be rapidly metabolized to morphine
4- A Chinese patient is going to be started on carbamazepine. He should be tested for:
a. HLA-B1501 allele
b. HLA-B1502 allele
c. He does not need pharmacogenomic testing as he is from Asian descent
d. A gene because if he is found to have at-risk allele, he is more likely to experience agranulocytosis with the
use of carbamazepine.
b. HLA-B*1502 allele
5- A patient is found to have been lacking in functional CYP2C19 enzyme activity. What would be
your recommendation?
a. He should not receive Clopidogrel
b. He should not receive any CYPC19 enzyme inhibitors such as omeprazole or fluoxetine
c. If clopidogrel is administered, he will have increases INR
d. He is an ideal candidate to receive Clopidogrel
a. He should not receive Clopidogrel
6- Which of the following best describes chromosome?
a. Building blocks of DNA, composed of four bases: adenine (A), Guanine (G), Thiamine (T) and Cytosine (C)
b. Organized into 23 pairs (46 chromosomes) as a supercoil structure
c. A stretch of DNA that codes for a single protein
d. Double helix molecule containing noncovalently bonded nucleotides
b. Organized into 23 pairs (46 chromosomes) as a supercoil structure
go back to page 40
Go BACK TO PAGE 42
what is the color label for narcotic drugs
a. red label
b. yellow label
a. red label
what is the color label for the controlled drug
a. red label
b. yellow label
b. yellow label
who are the only allowed to prescribed HAM (High alert Medication)
consultant and specialist
true or false ?
telephone orders are allowed in HAM ( high alert medication )
false
true or false ?
Verbal orders are allowed in case of emergency only
true
parental nutrition bags must be removes from the refrigerator ____ hours before usage
0.5 hours
what dextrose id used for dialysis patient for treating sudden hypoglycemia
a. D50W
b. NaCl
. D50W( dextrose 50%
what are the high aler medicdations (HAM ) for aderenergic agonist
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, phenylephrine
what adrenergic antagonist are high alerr medications (HAM)
propranolol, metoprolol, labetalol
what anesthetic agents that are high alert medications
propofol, ketaimine
what aniarrhytimic drugs that are high alert medications
lidocaine, amiodarone
what anticoagulation drugs that are high alert medications
Heparin, LMW heparin (Enoxaparin, Dalteparin
Warfarin
Factor 10 inhibitors (Fondaparinux, Apixaban
Factor 2 inhibitors (Argatroban, Dabigatran
waht antiplatetlet drugs that are high alert medications
ADP receptor blocker → Ticlopidine, clopidogrel
2b/3a receptor blocker → Abciximab, eptifibatide
what firbinolytic drugs that are high alert medications
Streptokinase, urokinase, alteplase, reteplase
waht electrolytes are high alert medications
Sterile water for injection
Dextrose ≥ 20%
NaCl > 0.9%
KCl injectable
what inotropic drugs that are high alert medications
digoxin
waht sulfonyl urea is high alert medications
Chlorpropamide, Glimepiride
waht liposomal forms of drugs that are high alert medications
amphoteracin B
what narcotics and controlled drugs that are alert medications
Morphine, Fentanyl, pethidine
Lorazepam, Diazepam
what neuromuscular blocking agent that are high alert medications
Succinylcholine, vecuronium
noted in high alert medication :
Specific label or color
✓ Narcotic drugs → Red Label
✓ Controlled drug → Yellow Label
* Consultant and specialist are only allowed to prescribe HAM
* Telephone orders not allowed in HAM → Verbal orders are allowed in case of emergency only.
* Must be double checked before administration.
* Limit access to HAM
* All IV HAM are administrated via IV pump.
* All IV infusions are standardized in mMole or mequ.
* Using “U” instead of units is not accepted for insulin and Heparin
* Concentrated electrolytes should not be stocked in patient care area.
* Parenteral nutrition bags → Remove from refrigerator 0.5 hour before usage.
* IV anesthesia & Skeletal muscle relaxant → Stocked in ER, OR, ICU
* Dextrose 50% (D50W) → Stocked for dialysis patients for treating sudden hypoglycemia.
addicted drugs reduce pain and induce euphoria, lead to increase tolerance and psychological dependence
a. narcotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
c. psychotic drugs
a. narcotic drugs
drug wiht potential to be abused or addicted which is held under strict control
a. narcotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
c. psychotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
affecting mind, wmotions , and behavior
a. narcotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
c. psychotic drugs
c. psychotic drugs
Patient own narcotic and controlled medication shall be kept in the inpatient pharmacy in ___________drugs cabinet separately from the regular stock medication → not kept in patient cassette or trolly.
a. narcotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
c. psychotic drugs
Patient own narcotic and controlled medication shall be kept in the inpatient pharmacy in narcotics and
controlled drugs cabinet separately from the regular stock medication → not kept in patient cassette or trolly.
Narcotics and controlled drugs are stored behind
steel door with double lock.
no one allowed to enter inside narcotic and controlled drugs except:
1- Pharmacy staff
2- Anesthesia department
3- Assigned nursing staff.
true or false
Physician cannot prescribe narcotic or controlled drug to himself or family.
true
Narcotic, controlled and psychotropic drugs
Replace used ampoules from pharmacy within _ days from date of Rx
3 days
Narcotic, controlled and psychotropic drugs
Strength and quantity of narcotics and controlled drug must be written clearly in words and figures.
* No strike-over, erasers or misspelling of drug name, strength or quantity.
* ID number should be written with physician name.
* Physician cannot prescribe narcotic or controlled drug to himself or family.
* Empty ampoule returns to the pharmacy with documents.
* Use the closest size ampoule for required dose.
* Unused drugs (tablets) must be returned to the pharmacy in charge.
* Replace used ampoules from pharmacy within 3 days from date of Rx
injection not dispensed for outpatient or ambulatory patients to be used outside
a. narcotics and controlled
b. psychotropics
a. narcotics and controlled
tablets or patches are allowed to be given to outpatient
a. narcotics and controlled
b. psychotropics
a. narcotics and controlled
IV or tablets are allowed to be given in OPD
a. narcotics and controlled
b. psychotropics
b. psychotropics
dispense as long as indicated
a. psychiatric
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
c. non psychiatric
d. ER department
a. psychiatric
Dispense maximum of 3 months
a. psychiatric
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
c. non psychiatric
d. ER department
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
dispense maximum of 1 month . (consultant and specialist )
a. psychiatric
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
c. non psychiatric
d. ER department
c. non psychiatrist
Dispense maximum of 1 day
a. psychiatric
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
c. non psychiatric
d. ER department
d. ER department
If drug is not available → original stamped Rx by the pharmacy department & copy given to the patient to be
dispensed from other hospital or street pharmacy & Copy kept in patient File.
narcotic
a. Rx form emergency room ER
b. Rx from outpatient department (OPD) / clinic
a. Rx form emergency room ER
psychotropic drugs
a. Rx form emergency room ER
b. Rx from outpatient department (OPD) / clinic
a. Rx form emergency room ER
controlled drugs
a. Rx form emergency room ER
b. Rx from outpatient department (OPD) / clinic
a. Rx form emergency room ER
Narcotic drugs is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
a. 1 day
psychotropic drugs is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
b. 3 days
controlled drug is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
b. 3 days
Rx from outpatient department (OPD)/ clinic is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
c. 7 days
Lorazepam is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
Phenobarbital is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
Clonazepam is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
Tramadol is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
Diazepam is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
Oxycodone is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
page 43
Psychotropic and controlled drugs must be documented for how many years
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 10 years
a. 2 years
Narcotics must be documented for how many years
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 10 years
b. 3 years
narcotic log book must be documented for how many years
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 10 years
c. 10 years
what Rx must be in 3 copies
- patient life
- patient himself
- original in the pharmacy with empty ampoules
every case must be documented in a separate request form
unused anrcotics and controlled drugs must be destroyed / discarded within
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
b. 6 months
empty morphine vials discarded after
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
b. 6 months
15 celsius -25 celsius
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
a. room temperature
8 celsius -15 celsius
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
b. cool temperature
2 celsius - 8 celsius
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
35:46 Fahrenheit
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
-10 celsius to -25 celsius
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
d. freeze
vaccine should be store in
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
insulin should be stored in
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
Human plasma should be store in
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
OPV stored at
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
d. freeze
at -20 celsius
insulin is stable for __ month/s after first use . and to be kept at the refrigerator
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
a. 1 month
what should you do in unused human plasma
a. store for 1 month
b. store for 6 months
c. discard immediately
c. discard immediately
outdated (expired ) medication returned to drug store
multi dose vials with preservative should be discarded
a. 28 days
b. immediately
c. 3 hours
d. 1 hour
a. 28 days
multi dose vials with no preservative should be discarded
a. 28 days
b. immediately
c. 3 hours
d. 1 hour
b. immediately after single dose
multi dose vaccine with preservative should be discarded
a. 28 days
b. immediately
c. 3 hours from the opening
d. 1 hour from the opening
c. 3 hours from the opening
multi dose vaccine that has no preservative should be discarded
a. 28 days
b. immediately
c. 3 hours from the opening
d. 1 hour from the opening
d. 1 hour from the opening
Nitroglycerin sublingual tab
Deteriorate once exposed to light, air, temperature → once the bottle opened must be discarded within _ days.
a. 3 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
c. 30 days
how long is the stability hour of tetanus
a. 1 hour
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
a. 1 hour
how long is the stability hour of
MCV (Meningococcal vaccine)
a. 1 hour
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
b. 3 hours
how long is the stability hour of OPV (polio vaccine)
a. 1 hour
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
b. 3 hours
how long is the stability hour of BCG (Bacillus Calmetter-Guerin )
a. 1 hour
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
c. 4 hours
what temperature should this drug be stored
Tetanus
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
b. -20 celcius
c.15 celsius to 25 celsius
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
what temperature should this drug be stored
MCV vaccine
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
b. -20 celcius
c.15 celsius to 25 celsius
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
what temperature should this drug be stored
OPV vaccine
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
b. -20 celcius
c.15 celsius to 25 celsius
b. -20 celcius
what temperature should this drug be stored
BCG vaccine
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
b. -20 celcius
c.15 celsius to 25 celsius
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
which of these drug need protection form light
a. tetanus
b. MCV
c. OPV
d. BCG
b. MCV and d. BCG
note: vaccines that should be protected from light are :MCV,BCG, measles
after opening be kept ( 2-8 celsius ) for 6 months
a. tetanus
b. MCV
c. OPV
c. OPV
In Patient: dispense medications in unit dose system for ___hours only.
In Patient: dispense medications in unit dose system for 24 hours only.
❖ Safe dispense:
* In Patient: dispense medications in unit dose system for 24 hours only.
* Medication prescription by generic name except when brand name is acceptable or required.
* Pharmacist can dispense generic equivalent drug.
* If there is no generic equivalent drug but therapeutic equivalent → should call the physician:
- If accepted → must write order for medication
- If not → the chief pharmacist asks for direct purchase.
❖ Medication purchase
* If drug is not available:
1- Pharmacy department make request to MOH medical supply.
2- If a drug is finished (out of stock) chief pharmacist make direct purchase → Purchase form → Finance department.
❖ Disposal of ampoules:
Disposal of ampoules:
1- Flushing → 30 seconds of running water
2- Placing in sharp containers (Injection only)
❖ Occurrence/variance report (OVR)
❖ Occurrence/variance report (OVR)
* If there are any discrepancies → OVR must be completed before end of the shift & discrepancies must be resolved.
* Un resolved discrepancies → reported immediately to director of the pharmaceutical service.
* Broken or lost ampoule policy: OVR must be completed by nurse submitted to the TQM department, give the
written report to the pharmacy with 2 witnesses.
must approve every single case
a. physicians’s departememt head
b. consultant physician
c. pharmacist
d. nurse
a. physicians’s departememt head
are allowed to RX formulary drugs for umapproved indication (off label) -> dispense as unit-dose
a. physicians’s departememt head
b. consultant physician
c. pharmacist
d. nurse
b. consultant physicians
monthly inspection of pharmacy care areas to ensure proper patient safety and stock storage
a. physicians’s departememt head
b. consultant physician
c. pharmacist
d. nurse
c. pharmacist
weekly inspection of pharmacy care areas to ensure proper patient safety and stock storage
a. physicians’s departememt head
b. consultant physician
c. pharmacist
d. nurse
d. nurse
what are the drugs prescribed only by consultants
1- Amphotericin B
2- Ciprofloxacin
3- Caspofungin
4- Colomycin
5- Imipenem/meropenem
6- Voriconazole
7- Linezolid
8- Tigecycline
page 45
Drugs prescribed only by consultants and specialist
1- High cost medications
✓ Botox, Mabthera, Humira, Keppra, Femara, Entecavir
2- High alert medication
3- Narcotics
✓ Morphine, Pethidine, Fentanyl
4- Central stores medication
✓ Hepatitis B, C drugs
✓ Multiple sclerosis drugs
✓ Peg-interferon, Pegasys, Ribavirin, Zeffix
page 45
what are the types of medical orders
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
what type of medical order is this :
administered immediately to the patient
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
a. STAT order
what type of medical order is this :
stated at the top of Rx -> dispense within 30 minutes
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
a. STAT order
what type of medical order is this :
Nurse shouldn’t leave the pharmacy without STAT order
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
a. STAT order
what type of medical order is this :
labeled
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
a. STAT order
what type of medical order is this :
stated at the top of the Rx -> dispensed immediately
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
b. emergency order
what type of medical order is this :
immediately dispensing
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
c. now order
what type of medical order is this :
must include indication for use and duration
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
d. PRN order
what type of medical order is this :
valid for 7 days unless short time period is specified
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
e. Routine orders
must be signed within 24 hours from giving the order
what type of medical order is this :
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
f. Telephone orders
what type of medical order is this :
Accepted only in situation requires action facility care of the patinet and patient condition doesnt requires physician presence -> verified by red- black by 2 licensed HCP workers receiving the order
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
f. telephone order
what type of medical order is this :
In emergency -> verified by repeat back -> signed by HCP when emergency case ends
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
g. verbal orders
Medications that are visually similar in physical appearance or packaging and name of medications that have
spelling similarities and/or similar phonetics.
a. LASA medication
b. HAM medication
LASA ( lookalike soundalike ) medication
how to avoid LASA ( lookalike soundalike medication)
- Physical separation
- Use tall MAN lettering → Capitalization of some letters to differentiate between 2 similar medications.
- Use alert stickers
what is the meaning of SCFHS ?
Saudi Commission For Health Specialist
what is the meaning of MOH
Ministry Of Health
what is the meaning of MOI
Ministry Of Interior
waht is the meaning of MOE
Ministry Of Education
what is the meaning of SFDA
Saudi Food and Drug Administration
what is the meaning of CBAHI
Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Health care Institutions
Supervise and evaluate training programs for HCP
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
Set controls and standards for practice of HCP
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
Develops medical education programs
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
Supervise and approve the results of specialized exams
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
Issue certificates (diploma , fellowship.. etc. )
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
Evaluates and approve health certificates
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
Coordinates with associations, school inside and outside the kingdom
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
develops standards governing the practice of health professions and code of ethics
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
Supervise Health affairs
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
Set strategic plans for hospitals
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
Set laws concerning healthcare , clinical pracitce
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
Set laws concerning healthcare , clinical practice
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
Regulate drug distribution and usage
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
determine the official tole of each HCP
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
Check quality of clinical institution (Inspection , fellow up
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
Responsible for psychological health
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
Responsible for drug information resources
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
only source to issue data and analysis of diseases in KSA
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
inspection of restaurants and food resources
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
medication errors reported to ____
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
B. MOH
is responsible for vaccination
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
responsinble for licensing narcotics drugs
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
c. MOI
responsible for equivalence of the pharmacy certificates coming from external countries
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
d. MOE
drug registreation and pricing
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
Recieves complains about drug products
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
inspection of pharmaceutical firms
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
setting laws for importing pharmaceutical and cosmetic
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
Setting laws concerning medical equipment
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
determine list of companies for dealing with outside KSA
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
approving drug formulary
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
Responsible for medication regulation
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
adverse drug reaction s resoirts uploaded to this
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
drug shortage is reported to this
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
Misleading advertisement is reported to
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
Loss of Narcotic log book is reported to
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
Chief pharmacist signs the form that is sent to this
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
Grant healthcare accreditation to all governmental and private healthcare facilities
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
F. CBAHI
responsible for setting the quality and safety standards to ensure a better and safer healthcare
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
F. CBAHI
stored in locked cabinet alphabetically and store in OPD
a. free sample
b. drug recall
c. E-health in 2030
a. free sample
action taken by a company at any time to remove a defective drug product from the market
a. free sample
b. drug recall
c. E-health in 2030
b. drug recall
Maximum utilization of health resources
a. free sample
b. drug recall
c. E-health in 2030
c. E health in 2030
they decides which drugs will appear on that entity’s drug formulary
a. pharmacy and therapeutics (P and T) committee
a. pharmacist and physicians only
a. pharmacy and therapeutics (P and T) committee
pharmacy and therapeutics (P and T) committee includes
physicians, pharmacist, nurses
medication errors are reported to:
1- P and T committee
2- Medication safety committee
If patient own medication (not ordered by physician, expired, not clean) → disposal of the drug and the patient
should be informed about that action.
repeat dispensing enables community pharmacists to dispense regular medicines to patients on each
occasion a repeat is needed, without requiring another prescription from their GP.
a. HAM medications
b. refill
b. refill
Refill repeat dispensing enables community pharmacists to dispense regular medicines to patients on each
occasion a repeat is needed, without requiring another prescription from their GP. The GP can sign for up to
___ months of repeat prescription forms, lasting ___ days each time.
repeat dispensing enables community pharmacists to dispense regular medicines to patients on each
occasion a repeat is needed, without requiring another prescription from their GP. The GP can sign for up to
12 months of repeat prescription forms, lasting 28 days each time.
no refills are permitted
a. outpatient pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
a. outpatient pharmacy
refills are permitted
a. outpatient pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
b, street pharmacy
1 month refill in each time
a. outpatient pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
Maximum 3 month refill
a. outpatient pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
what is the meaning of DIU
Drug information unit
Receive phone calls from HCPs and give the answers verbally and written
a. DI pharmacist
b. physician
a. DI pharmacist
what are the 5 tights of medication administration
1- Right Patient
2- Right Drug
3- Right Dose
4- Right Route
5- Right Time
what are the 4 P of marketing
1- Product
2- Price
3- Place
4- Promotion
prescription dispensing :
dispense the medication for chromic disease every __ days
a. 30 days
b. 90days
b. 90 days
prescription dispensing:
The maximum allowed amount of Diazepam to dispense in
a. 30 days
b. 90days
a. 30 days
❖ Humira patient asking you about his concerns that Humira causes cancer, what will you tell him
a. Humira doesn’t cause cancer
b. Talk to him about the benefits vs risks
c. Yes, it may cause cancer
b. Talk to him about the benefits vs risks
❖ Medical representative give you sample, what will you do?
a. Refuse
b. Accept
c. Tell pharmacy director
c. Tell pharmacy director
❖ Physician prescribes 10 mg of drug; the technician gave the pharmacist 100 mg by mistake and the wrong
dose was given to the patient. After 3 days the patient came to the ER because of overdose. What should be
done?
a. Tell the physician
b. Tell the pharmacy manager
c. Report to SFDA
d. Tell the patient
what is the side effect of
Hydralazine
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
a. tachycardia
what is the side effect of
Salbutamol
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
a. tachycardia
what is the side effect of
Nitroglycerine
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
a. tachycardia
what is the side effect of
Propranolol
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
b. bradycardia
what is the side effect of
Atropine
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
c. constipation
what is the side effect of
Morphine
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
c. constipation
what is the side effect of
Alpha blocker
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
c. constipation
what is the side effect of
Augmentin
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
d. diarrhea
what is the side effect of
insulin
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
a. hypokalemia
what is the side effect of
Thiazide
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
a. hypokalemia
what is the side effect of
ACE inhibitor
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
what is the side effect of
metformin
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
c. metallic taste
what is the side effect of
Captopril
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
d. loss of taste
what is the side effect of
rifampicin
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
a. red color urine
what is the side effect of
Doxorubicin
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
a. red color urine
what is the side effect of
Senna laxatives
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
a. red color urine
what is the side effect of
nitrofurantoin
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
b. brownn color urine
what is the side effect of
Metronidazole
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
c. dark color urine
what is the side effect of
Atropine
a. constipation and urine retention
b. hypoglycemia
c. water retention
d. cathartic effect
a. constipation and urine retention
what is the side effect of
Pioglitazone
a. constipation and urine retention
b. hypoglycemia
c. water retention
d. cathartic effect
b. hypoglycemia
what is the side effect of
Indomethacin
a. constipation and urine retention
b. hypoglycemia
c. water retention
d. cathartic effect
c. water retention
what is the side effect of
MgOH2/ MgSO4
a. constipation and urine retention
b. hypoglycemia
c. water retention
d. cathartic effect
d. cathartic effects
what is the side effect of
K supplements
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
a. heart burn
what is the side effect of
class 2 antiarrhythmics
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
b. bronchospasm
what is the side effect of
Chlorampenicol
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
what is the side effect of
Amiodarone
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
what is the side effect of
Vancomycin
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
e. red man syndrome
what is the side effect of
Chlorpheniramine
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
a. increase incidence of BPH
what is the side effect of
Celecoxib
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
b. cardiotoxicity
what is the side effect of
Doxorubicin
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
b. cardiotoxicity
what is the side effect of
Bupivacaine
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
b. cardiotoxicity
what is the side effect of
paracetamol
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
what is the side effect of
ketoconazole
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
what is the side effect of
Quinidine
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
what is the side effect of
Aminoglycoside
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
d. ototoxicity
what is the side effect of
Furosemide
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
what is the side effect of
Ciprofloxacin
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
a. phototoxicity
what is the side effect of
Nitrates
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
b. headache
what is the side effect of
Epinephrine
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
b. headache
what is the side effect of
Isoniazid
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
c. lupus ( inflammation of the skin )
what is the side effect of
Hydralazine
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
c. lupus ( inflammation of the skin )
what is the side effect of
Procainamide
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
c. lupus (inflammation of the skin )
what is the side effect of
Clozapine
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
a. agranulocytosis
what is the side effect of
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
a. agranulocytosis
what is the side effect of
Digoxin
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
b. life threatening arrhythmia
what is the side effect of
Adenosine phosphate
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
what is the side effect of
Reserpine
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
d. depression
what is the side effect of
Methotrexate
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
b. insomnia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
what is the side effect of
Theophylline
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
b. insomnia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
b. insomnia
what is the side effect of
Phenytoin
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
b. insomnia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
what is the side effect of
Frusemide
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
b. insomnia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
d. ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
what is the side effect of
Tetracycline
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
a. yellow teeth
what is the side effect of
prazosin
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
b. postural hypotension = 1st dose syncope
what is the side effect of
Guanethidine
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
b. postural hypotension = 1st dose syncope
what is the side effect of
Dopamine
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
c. hypotension
what is the side effect of
Cocaine
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
d. Mydriasis
what is the side effect of
Heroin
a. Miosis
b. Ischemia
c. Cinchonism
a. Miosis
what is the side effect of
Morphine
a. Miosis
b. Ischemia
c. Cinchonism
a. Miosis
what is the side effect of
Norepinephrine (NE)
a. Miosis
b. Ischemia
c. Cinchonism
b. Ischemia = Tissue hypoxia
what is the side effect of
Quinidine
a. Miosis
b. Ischemia
c. Cinchonism
c. cinchonism
is often thought to be a ‘treatment’ option for the infertile or an alternative to adoption
a. refill
b. surrogacy
b. surrogacy
surrogacy is not allowed in Saudi Arabia
what is the meaning of DTap
Diphtheria Tetanus Pertusis
what is the meaning of Tdap
Tetanus Diphtheria Pertusis
DT
Diphtheria tetanus
HBV
Hepatitis B Vaccine
HAV
Hepatitis A Vaccine
HibV
Hemophilus Influenza B Vaccine
HPV
Human Papilloma virus Vaccine
PCV
Pneumococcal Conjugated Vaccine
PPSV
Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine
IPV
Inactivated Polio Vaccine
MCV
Meningococcal Conjugate Vaccine
MPSV
Meningococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine
MenBV
Meningococcal B Vaccine
MMR
Measles, Mumps, Rubella
ZVL
Zoster Vaccine Live
RV
Inactivated Influenza Vaccine
LAIV
Live Attenuated Influenza Vaccine
BCG
Bacille Calmette Guerin → Vaccine for TB (Tuberculosis)
TIG
Tetanus ImmunoGlobulin
HBIG
Hepatitis B ImmunoGlobulin
VZIG
Varicella zoster ImmunoGlobulin
IVIG
IntraVenous ImmunoGlobulin
IGIM
ImmunoGlobulin IntraMuscular
what are the two types of immunity
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
individual own immune system
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
a. active immunity
an animal or human antibody and transferred
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
b. passive immunity
acquired by active disease = antigen (Ag)
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
a. active immunity
acquired by : vaccination ( live, attenuated - inactivated )
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
a. active immunity
acquired by : antibody (Ab) = immunoglobuliun (Ig)
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
b. passive immunity
what are the roles of passive immunity
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG)
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG)
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
varicella zoster immunoglubulin
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
b. prophylaxis therapy
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
Intravenous immunoglobulin
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
intramuscular immunoglobulin
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
what passive immunity should be given to parinets with leukemia or low immunity exposed to varicella zoster
varicella zoster immunoglobulin
1st immunodeficiency or as chronic lymphocytic leukemia must be given
IVIG (intravenous immunoglobulin) or IGIM (Intramuscular immunoglobulin) every 2 to 4 weeks to maintain immunity.
waht are the immunoglobulin that causes prophylaxis od infectious disease
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
what prophylaxis of infectious disease is this :
minor wound
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
what prophylaxis of infectious disease is this :
major wound
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
what prophylaxis of infectious disease is this :
pregnant woman with hepatitis B when delivers the baby must be given with
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin(HBIG) + hepatitis B vaccine (HBV)
what prophylaxis of infectious disease is this :
nurse infected with hepatitis B patient blood must be given
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin + hepatitis B vaccine
these two drugs must be administer in different body sites
what are the types of vaccines?
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
what type of vaccine is this:
produced by : modifying the virus or bacteria to give immunity
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live, attenuated vaccine
what type of vaccine is this:
produced by : fraction of the virus of the bacteria such as cell wall polysaccharides
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
b. inactivated vaccines
what type of vaccine is this:
disease: do not produce disease (but may )
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live, attenuated vaccines
what type of vaccine is this:
disease: unable to produce disease
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
b. inactivated vaccines
what type of vaccine is this:
not given in immunocompromised
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live attenuated vaccines
what type of vaccine is this:
decrease virulence of pathogen by attenuation. Attenuated means weakened but still life/ viable
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live, attenuated vaccines
what type of vaccine is this:
provide life long immunity
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live, attenuated vaccines
what type of vaccine is this:
can be given in immunocompromised patient
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
b. inactivated vaccines
what are the live attenuated vaccines
mnemonic: Yellow ROME In Best Place
Yellow
* Yellow fever
ROME
* Rubella - Rota
* Oral Polio & Oral Typhoid
* Measles & Mumps
* Epidemic typhus
In
* Influenza (LAIV)
Best
* BCG
Place
* Plague
page 56
can be given at the same time ( on the same day )
can be given separated without regard to the spacing
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
d. live vaccine + antibodies
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
can be given at the same time (on the same day)
can be given separated without regard
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
d. live vaccine + antibodies
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
must be given at the same time ( on the same day)
if separated the spacing must be 28 days
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
d. live vaccine + antibodies
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
must be separated
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
d. live vaccine + antibodies
a. live vaccine + antibodies
most vaccine require storage of ?
a. 2-8 celsius
b. <-15 celsius
a. 2-8 celsius
Zostravax required to be stored at what temperature
a. 2-8 celsius
b. <-15 celsius
b. <-15 celsius
MMR (measles , mumps, rubella) can be stored in ?
in refrigerator or freezer -> bottom self of refrigerator
how long is the stability of tetanus
a. 1 hour
b. 3hour
c. 4hour
a. 1 hou
how long is the stability of MCV vaccine ?
a. 1 hour
b. 3hour
c. 4hour
b. 3 hour
how long is the stability of OPV
a. 1 hour
b. 3hour
c. 4hour
b. 3 houir
how long is the stability of BCG
a. 1 hour
b. 3hour
c. 4hour
c. 4 hours
what is the storage temperature of tetanus
a. 2-8 celsius
b. -20 celsius
c. <-15 celsius
a. 2-8 celsius
what is the storage temperature of MCV
a. 2-8 celsius
b. -20 celsius
c. <-15 celsius
a. 2-8 celsius
what is the storage temperature of OPV
a. 2-8 celsius
b. -20 celsius
c. <-15 celsius
b. -20 celsius
what is the storage temperature of BCG
a. 2-8 celsius
b. -20 celsius
c. <-15 celsius
a. 2-8 celsius
from these vaccines, which of these needed protection from the light ?
a. tetanus
b. MCV
c.. OPV
d. BCG
b. MCV and
d. BCG
note : protect from the light :MCV,BCG, meales
after opening this vaccine, it can be kept (2-8 celsius ) for 6 months
a. tetanus
b. MCV
c. OPV
d. BCG
c. OPV
majority of the vaccines are injected at what route?
a. oral
b. IV
c. IM
c. IM
watch at page 56
what is the administration for this vaccine :
IPV
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
a. IM or SC
IPV- inactivated polio vaccine
what is the administration for this vaccine :
PPSV
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
a. IM or SC
PPSV- pneumococcal polysaccharide Vaccine
what is the administration for this vaccine :
MMR
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
b. SC only
MMR- measles, mumps , rubella
what is the administration for this vaccine :
varicella
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
b. SC only
what is the administration for this vaccine :
Zostravax
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
b. SC only
what is the administration for this vaccine :
OPV
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
c. oral only
OPV- oral polio vaccine
what are the vaccines for pregnant woman ?
a. Tdap
b. IIV( inactivated influenza vaccine )
which of these vaccine for pregnant woman is this :
during each pregnancy ideally between 27,36 weeks gestation (last 3 months)
a. Tdap
b. IIV( inactivated influenza vaccine )
a. Tdap
what is the meaning of IVV vaccine for pregnant woman
Inactivated influenza vaccine
which of these vaccine for pregnant woman is this :
given immunity to child during pregnancy and 6 months after birth
a. Tdap
b. IIV( inactivated influenza vaccine )
b. IIV 9 inactivated influenza vaccine
note: Pregnant woman is more liable for influenza complication
what are the vaccines that are containdicated in pregnancy
1- HPV
2- MMR
3- Varicella
4- ZVL
5- BCG
6- LAIV
All live vaccines
what are the vaccines that may contain train of egg protein
a. MMR
b. influenza vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
which of the vaccines that contain egg protein is this :
Egg allergy with just hives → Take the vaccine
a. MMR
b. influenza vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
b. influenza vaccine
which of the vaccines that contain egg protein is this :
Egg allergy with angioedema, respiratory distress, light headache, recurrent emesis; or who
require epinephrine or emergency medical intervention → Vaccine is given under
supervision of a health care provider who is able to manage sever allergy.
a. MMR
b. influenza vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
b. influenza vaccine
which of the vaccines that contain egg protein is this :
Higher amounts of egg proteins → Allergy specialist is recommended before vaccination
a. MMR
b. influenza vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
what are the vaccination before Haj?
1- Annual influenza flu vaccination
2- MCV (Meningococcal)
+ polio + corona +zika
what are the saudi MOH vaccination shedule
look at page 57
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to babys 12 hours from birth
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
a. BB(BCG + Hep B)
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 2 months old baby
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
b. DRBHIP
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 4 months old baby
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
b. DR DHIP
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given 6 months old baby
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
c. DO BHIP
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 9 months old baby
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
d. MeaM
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 12 months old child
a. MMR MOP
B. MMR DOV AH
C. A
D. MMR DOV
A. MMR MOP
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 18 months old baby
a. MMR MOP
B. MMR DOV AH
C. A
D. MMR DOV
B. MMR DOV AH
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 24 months old baby
a. MMR MOP
B. MMR DOV AH
C. A
D. MMR DOV
C. A
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given a child 4-6 years ( school entry )
a. MMR MOP
B. MMR DOV AH
C. A
D. MMR DOV
D. MMR DOV
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
what are the adverse effects of vaccines
1- Injection site reactions (Pain, swelling, Erythema “redness”) → Major side effects
2- Fever
* It is important to monitor patients for at least 15 minutes following administration.
* Sever allergy handled with Epinephrine, diphenhydramine and CPR
When avoid vaccines ( contraindications)
1- Live vaccines in pregnancy.
2- Live vaccines in immunocompromised patients
a- Patient receiving cancer chemotherapy
✓ Live vaccines can be given after chemotherapy has been discontinued for at least 3 months.
b- Recent hematopoietic cell transplant (HCT)
c- Biologic agents (TNF inhibitors, Rituximab, Etanercept
d- All vaccines with CD4 < 200 cells/mm3
e- Receiving daily corticosteroids
f- All vaccines causing sever allergy (Anaphylactic shock)
g- All vaccines in moderate to severe illness with or without fever →→ Given with caution (Not contraindicated)
page 57
what is the key consideration in preterm birth
- Immunize based on chronological base
- Do not reduce the recommended dose
- Delay Hep. B vaccine until the baby is:
1- More than 2 kg body weight or
2- More than 30 days old
whta is the key consideration in patient receiving corticosteroid
Live vaccines may be administered to patients receiving the following:
Topicall steroid:
- any dose
look at page 57
what are the two types of influenza vaccines
a. inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)
b. live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
What is the meaning of IIV vaccine
inactivated influenza vaccine
what is the meaning of LAIV vaccine
live attenuated influenza vaccine
which of this influenza vaccine is this:
can be given with influenza antiviral drug (IAD) like Tamiflu (Oseltamivir)
a. inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)
b. live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
a. inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)
which of this influenza vaccine is this:
not ggiven with INfluenza antiviral drug (IAD) like Tamiflu ( Oseltamivir)
a. inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)
b. live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
b. live attenuated influenza vaccine
- IAD cessation → wait 48 hours → Take LAIV
- LAIV → wait 2 weeks → Take IAD
If IAD administered within 2 weeks of LAIV, the
vaccine dose should be repeated 48 hours after the
last dose of antiviral medication
- IAD cessation → wait _____ → Take LAIV
a. 2 week
b. 48 hours
b. 48 hours
LAIV -> WAIT _____-> take IAD
a. 2 week
b. 48 hours
a. 2 week
page 58
LAIV should not be given to:
1- Patient with severe allergic reaction to LAIV
2- Patient allergic to eggs
3- Pregnant woman
4- Child (2:17) receiving aspirin or aspirin containing
5- Child (2:4) with asthma or wheezing in past year
6- Immunosuppressed patient
7- Patient taken antiviral in the previous 48 hours
what viruses undergo shift and drifts; therefore, every year new of these vaccine is formulated and must
be administered every year.. what disease is this ?
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
New influenza season start approximately in what month every year?
a. May
b. November
c. December
b. November
New influenza season start approximately in November (11) every year
The new vaccine of this disease must be started in October (10) as it takes about 2 weeks after vaccination for antibodies to
develop and provide protection.
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
Child less than 9 years given 2 doses in one season of this disease , one is a booster dose. → (In 1st time only)
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
vaccine of this disease normally taken once per year but it can be taken twice (every 6 months) in high risk patients.
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
High risk patients of this disease include (COPD, HTN, Dyslipidemia, Female, Old)
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
Not used for children (0:6) months
vaccine of this disease is given every year even if you do not need it.
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
inhaled influenza vaccine
FluMist
what Td vaccine is given with patient who are infected with tetanus?
Tetanus, Diphtheria
what is the meaning of the TIG vaccine that is given to patients that have tetanus
Tetanus Immune Globulin
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with unknown history and has a minor wound
a. Td
b. Td + TIG
a. Td
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with unknown history and has a major wound
a. Td
b. Td + TIG
b. Td + TIG
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and has a minor wound. Patient history: The patient received a TD dose within 10 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
a. no treatment
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and has a minor wound. Patient history : The patient received a Td dose more than 10 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
b. Td only
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and has a major wound. Patient History: The patient receives a Td dose within 5 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
a. no treatment
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and has major wound. Patient History: the patient received Td dose more than 5 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
c. Td + TIG
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and a minor wound. Patient history: The patient received a Td dose within 5 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
a. no treatment
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and a major wound. Patient history : The patient receive Td dose more than 10 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
c. Td + TIG
a 5 years old patient is infected with tetanus. what vaccine should be given?
a. DTap
b. TD-Tdap
c. should receive one Td booster every 10 years
d. should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
a. DTap
if less than 7 years: DTap
if above 7 years : TD-Tdap
If adults:Adult should receive one Td booster every 10 years.
✓ Adult should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
a 10 year old patient is infected with tetanus. what vaccine should be given?
a. DTap
b. TD-Tdap
c. should receive one Td booster every 10 years
d. should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
b. TD-Tdap
an adult patient is infected with tetanus. what vaccine should be given?
a. DTap
b. TD-Tdap
c. should receive one Td booster every 10 years
d. should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
c and d.
c. should receive one Td booster every 10 years
d. should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
Td vaccine wears off after how many years ?
10 years
a vaccine of this disease is recommended for travel to most parts of the world.
a. Influenza
b. tetanus
c. Hepatitis
c. Hepatitis
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
is recommended for travel to most parts of the world
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
a. hepatitis A
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
total dose 2
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
a. hepatitis A
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
is given in a 3 doses series at 0,1,6 months
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
b. hepatitis B
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
minimum duration 4 weeks between two vaccines
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
b. hepatitis B
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
If a 2nd dose vaccine was given too soon ( before minimal interval) -> dont count this incorrect dose and repeat it after the minimal time has passed since the incorrect dose
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
c. hepatitis B
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
total dose 3
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
b. hepatitis B
note: there is no vaccine available to provide protection against hepatitis C
Pregnant woman with Hepatitis B when she delivers the baby must be given
(HBV) + HBIG
Nurse infected with Hepatis B patient blood must be given →
(HBV) + HBIG
HBV + HBIG → administered at different body sites.
Preterm birth → Delay Hep. B vaccine until the baby is:
1- More than __ kg body weight or
2- More than ___days old
Preterm birth → Delay Hep. B vaccine until the baby is:
1- More than 2 kg body weight or
2- More than 30 days old
page 59
vaccine of this disease must not be given to the patient currently treated for shingles or post-herpetic neuralgia. It can
be administrated once the symptoms are resolved. (Disease symptoms are cleared)
a. Hepatitis
b. Varicella zoster
c. Tetanus
b. Varicella zoster
Given to patients (Leukemia or low immunity exposed to varicella zoster
varicella zoster immunoglobulin
what is the meaning of VZIG
Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
what is the meaning of this vaccine:
HPV
Human Papilloma virus vaccine
what vaccine will decrease incidence of infertility
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
a. HPV
what vaccine will decrease incidence of cervical cancer
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
a. HPV
this vaccine can cause syncope-> patients remain seated for at least 15 minutes after receiving this vaccine
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
A. HPV
brand name : Cervarix
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
A. HPV
brand name: Gardasil
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
A. HPV
which of these brand of HPV vaccine is bivalent and Quadrivalent ?
Cervarix
Gardasil
Carvarix ( bivalent )
Gardasil (quadrivalent)
this vaccine should be given over 5 year child
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
c. Hib
which of these vaccine is this :
_______ containing vaccine -> autism
a. Hg
b. BCG
c.PCV-PPSV
d. MCV
a. Hg
which of the vaccine is this:
has the maximum age -> life - long immunity
a. Hg
b. BCG
c.PCV-PPSV
d. MCV
b.BCG
which of the vaccine is this:
given to patietns older than 65 years
a. Hg
b. BCG
c.PCV-PPSV
d. MCV
c. PCV -PPSV
which of the vaccine is this:
emergency staff and hospital should receive this vaccine
a. Hg
b. BCG
c.PCV-PPSV
d. MCV
d. MCV
Taking antibiotics shouldn’t prevent vaccination.
Antibiotics will not affect how your child’s body responds to vaccine.
is an immunosuppressant given after organ transplant.
Cyclosporin
which of these vaccine weras off after 10 years
a. Td
b. BCG
a. Td
which of these vaccines has the maximum age (life- long immunity )
a. Td
b. BCG
b. BCG
what is the pathogen of this disease:
Whooping cough
a. pertusis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Varicella zoster
a. pertusis
what is the pathogen of this disease:
Tuberculosis
a. pertusis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Varicella zoster
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
what is the pathogen of this disease:
lung obstruction
a. pertusis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Varicella zoster
b. Mycobacter tuberculosis
what is the pathogen of this disease:
Chicken pox
a. pertusis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Varicella zoster
c. Varicella zoster
what is the treatment for this disease :
whooping cough
a. DTap- TDap
b. BCG
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcla vaccine
d. ZVL
a. DTap- TDap
what is the treatment for this disease :
tuberculosis
a. DTap- TDap
b. BCG
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcla vaccine
d. ZVL
b. BCG
what is the treatment for this disease :
lung obstruction
a. DTap- TDap
b. BCG
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcla vaccine
d. ZVL
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcal vaccine
what is the treatment for this disease :
Chicken pox
a. DTap- TDap
b. BCG
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcla vaccine
d. ZVL
d. ZVL
What is the recommended duration for stopping an IAD before administering a live vaccine?
a. 1 month
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 months
b. 2 days
page 60
What is the recommended duration for stopping an live vaccine before administering a IAD?
a. 1 month
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 months
c. 2 weeks
page 60
What is the recommended duration for stopping an systemic steroid before administering a live vaccine?
a. 1 month
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 months
a. 1 month
page 60
systemic steroid less than or equals 2mg/kg/day for more than 14 days
What is the recommended duration for stopping an chemotherapy before administering a live vaccine?
a. 1 month
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 months
d. 3 months
Which of the following vaccines can be
administered either intramuscularly or
subcutaneously?
a. Influenza vaccine
b. PPSV23
c. PCV13
d. MCV
b. PPSV23
Which of the following vaccines is
recommended at birth in KSA?
a. Hepatitis A vaccine
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine
d. Polio vaccine
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
Which of the following is the most
common adverse reaction to an
inactivated vaccine?
a. Fever
b. Injection-site reaction
c. Headache
d. Myalgias
b. Injection-site reaction
How long does it take before a flu vaccine
provides you with maximum protection
against the flu?
a. Immediately
b. 5 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 30 days
c. 2 weeks
Healthy children over what age should not
receive the Hib vaccine?
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 9 years
b. 5 years
A 60-year-old patient is currently
undergoing chemotherapy for treatment
of acute myeloid leukemi She has had 3
outbreaks of shingles over the past 7
years. Can she receive zoster vaccine
(ZOSTAVAX) now?
a. Yes, she should receive the vaccine at this time
b. Yes, she needs to receive a dose of the vaccine now, and an
additional dose after completion of chemotherapy to
ensure a full immunogenic response
c. No, she should not receive the vaccine due to her diagnosis of
cancer and because she is currently receiving chemotherapy
d. No, she does not need to receive the vaccine because it will
not help since she has experienced past outbreaks
c. No, she should not receive the vaccine due to her diagnosis of
cancer and because she is currently receiving chemotherapy
Which of the following patient is at the
highest risk of developing complications
from infection with the influenza virus?
a. A 70-year-old female with COPD, HTN and dyslipidemia
b. A 74-year-old male who lives in old care nursing facility
c. A 67-year-old otherwise healthy female
d. A 72-year-old-male recently diagnosed with hypertension
a. A 70-year-old female with COPD, HTN and dyslipidemia
A 24-year-old patient is receiving
oseltamivir 75mg PO once daily. Can he
receive influenza vaccine now?
a. No, because he is currently receiving antiviral therapy
b. Yes, because he is only receiving the prophylaxis dose of
oseltamivir
c. Yes, he can receive inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV) now
d. Yes, he can receive live-attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
24 hours after completion of antiviral drug therapy
Children under the age of 9 years require 2
doses of influenza vaccine in the same
season if:
a. It is their first time to receive the vaccine
b. They have not had an influenza vaccine for the past 3 years
c. They have a weakened immune system
d. They had 2 influenza vaccines the previous year
a. It is their first time to receive the vaccine
What is the minimum interval between the
administration of two inactive vaccines?
a. There is no minimum interval; they can be given at any time
b. They must be spaced 28 days apart if not given
simultaneously
c. They must be spaced 14 days apart if not given
simultaneously
d. They must be spaced 7 days apart if not given
simultaneously
Vaccination is available against which of
the following hepatitis types?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis A & B
d. Hepatitis A & B
For which case, would it be best to
withhold vaccination until a later date (i.e.
delay the vaccine)?
a. MMR for a 6-year-old boy with HIV and a CD4 count of 650
cells/mm3
b. MMR for a 6-year-old girl receiving etanercept for juvenile
arthritis
c. Inactivated flu vaccine for a 1-year-old with otitis media
d. Tdap for a pregnant 27-year-old female with gestational
diabetes
b. MMR for a 6-year-old girl receiving etanercept for juvenile
arthritis
Which of the following vaccines is usually
not given until after the child’s first
birthday?
a. Influenza vaccine
b. MMR vaccine
c. DTap vaccine
d. Hib vaccine
b. MMR vaccine
Which of the following is a
contraindication to inactivated influenza
vaccine?
a. Pregnancy
b. Breastfeeding
c. Anaphylaxis to a previous dose of influenza vaccine
d. Egg allergy
c. Anaphylaxis to a previous dose of influenza vaccine
Which of the following vaccines is strongly
recommended for people going for Hajj?
a. Haemophilus influenza vaccine
b. Pneumococcal vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine
d. Tuberculosis vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine
A 28-year-old female comes to the
pharmacy during influenza season asking
for advice on whether she needs to receive
the influenza vaccine. She recently
recovered from a documented case of
influenza virus. What is your
recommendation?
a. She should not receive the vaccine because she had the flu
and has now protective antibodies
b. She should not receive the vaccine because she is not in a
high-risk group
c. She should only receive the vaccine if she wants to boost
her titers
d. She should receive the vaccine
d. She should receive the vaccine
At which of the following age, it is
recommended to switch from DTaP to
Tdap?
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
c. 7 years
The immunity of which of the following
vaccines generally wears off after 10
years?
a. MMR vaccine
b. Varicella vaccine
c. Pneumococcal vaccine
d. Td vaccine
d. Td vaccine
If a 2nd dose of a vaccine was given too
soon (before the minimal interval time has
passed), the correct course of action would
be:
a. Restart the entire series
b. Do not count this incorrect dose and repeat it after the
minimal time has passed since the incorrect dose
c. Do not worry about it and continue with the next dose as
scheduled
d. Double the next dose
b. Do not count this incorrect dose and repeat it after the
minimal time has passed since the incorrect dose
An 18-year-old received MMR vaccine at
her first clinic visit and the varicella vaccine
2 weeks later. Her mother wants to know
if this method was acceptable. Which of
the following is the correct response?
a. They were given correctly, and her daughter is now
protected
b. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should have both vaccines repeated in 1 month
c. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should receive the varicella vaccine 1 month from the date
of the previous varicella vaccine
d. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should receive another MMR vaccine 1 month from the
date of her previous varicella vaccination
c. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should receive the varicella vaccine 1 month from the date
of the previous varicella vaccine
A patient received an MMR vaccine 2 days
ago. The patient returns because his school
informed him he needs more vaccines.
Which of the following vaccines can he not
receive today?
a. Hep B vaccine
b. Meningococcal vaccine
c. LAIV
d. He can receive any vaccine today
c. LAIV
Herpes zoster vaccine (for shingles) can be
given even if the patient had a case of
shingles. If the patient come into the
pharmacy and state they had a recent case
of shingles, how long should they wait
before vaccination?
a. He should receive it right away, without regard to previous
illness
b. He should wait 1 month after the disease symptoms have
cleared
c. He should wait 1 year after the disease symptoms have
cleared
d. He should wait at least until all disease symptoms have
cleared
d. He should wait at least until all disease symptoms have
cleared
A child should not get a vaccine if he/she: a. has a mild cold
b. is taking antibiotics
c. has had a severe allergic reaction to a previous dose of the
same vaccine
d. developed a fever following a previous dose
c. has had a severe allergic reaction to a previous dose of the
same vaccine
Which of the following is an example of
active immunity?
a. Antibody transfer from mother to fetus
b. Antibody transfer to the child through breastfeeding
c. Injection with tetanus toxoid
d. Injection with tetanus immunoglobulin
c. Injection with tetanus toxoid
Meningococcal vaccination was given to a
child at 12 months (second dose). A
booster dose can be given at what age?
a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years
A 2-year-old has egg allergy (reaction was
noted to include angioedema and hives,
however, the patient can tolerate eggs in
baked goods). He is about to receive MMR
and influenza vaccines first time. What
would be the best recommendation?
a. Advise against administering either the MMR or the flu
vaccine
b. Recommend that a physician with expertise in allergy
management administer both vaccines
c. Recommend administering both the MMR and the influenza
vaccine as usual
d. Recommend administering the MMR vaccine but not the
influenza vaccine
b. Recommend that a physician with expertise in allergy
management administer both vaccines
An acute moderate-to-severe illness is
considered a(n) …………. to vaccination.
a. Precaution
b. Indication
c. Contraindication
d. Recommendation
a. Precaution
Which of the following is an example of
local reaction to vaccine at the injection
site?
a. Fever
b. Malaise
c. Redness
d. Myalgias
c. Redness
A live vaccine is created by reducing the
virulence of a pathogen by the process of:
a. Radiation
b. Inactivation
c. Mutation
d. Attenuation
d. Attenuation
A person received LAIV. Five days later, he
was diagnosed with flu and oseltamivir
was prescribed for 5 days. Which of the
following is best regarding his LAIV
vaccine?
a. He does not need to repeat LAIV dose
b. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 24 hours after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
c. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 48 hours after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
d. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 2 weeks after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
c. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 48 hours after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
Beta - carotene
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
a. retinol
what are the lipid soluble vitamins
a. retinol (vitamin A)
b. cholecalciferol (vitamin D)
c. Tocopherol (vitamin E)
d. Phylloquinone (vitamin K)
Vitamin A
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
a. retinol
Vitamin D
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
b. cholecalciferol
Vitamin E
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
c. tocopherol
vitamin K
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
d. phylloquinone
which of these vitamins are antioxidant
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
a. retinol
c. tocopherol
- antioxidant -> protect cell membrane
use : vision-> prevent xerophthalmia
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
a. retinol
use : bone growth-> absorption of Ca2+
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
b. cholecalciferol
use: spermatogenesis
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
c. tocopherol
use : fertility -> used in fertility case
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
c. tocopherol
use : blood clotting
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
d. phylloquinone
use : necessary for factors 10-9-7-2
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
d. Phylloquinone
thiamine
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
a. vitamin B1
Riboflavin
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
b. vitamin B2
Niacin
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
c. vitamin B3
Pantothenic
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
d. Vitamin B5
Pyridoxine
a. Vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin C
a. Vitamin B 6
Biotin
a. Vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B7
Folic acid
a. Vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin C
c. vitamin B9
Ascorbic acid
a. Vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C
page 65
CHO metabolism through cofactors
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
a. thiamin
use : energy metabolism
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
b. riboflavin
use : growth hormone
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
c. niacin
use : decrease cholesterol
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
c. niacin
use: vasodilator (VD)
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
c. niacin
CHO, protein , fat metabolism
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
d. pantothenic
use : protein and fat metabolism
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
a. pyridoxine
treat pregnancy vomiting
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
a. pyridoxine
antidote for INH
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
a. pyridoxine
cobalamin
a. vitamin B 6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin B12
beneficial in skin, hair and nails
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
b. biotin
use : synthesis of nucleic acid
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
c. folic acid
use : formation of blood cells
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
c. folic acid
use: activates B12
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
c. folic acid
use : synthesis of nucleic acid
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
d. cobalamin
use: activates B9
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
d. cobalamin
antioxidant
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
increases immunity and decreases duration of cold
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
production of collagen
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
promote healing and skin repair
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
increase activity of drug used to treat H. pylori
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
deficiency of this disease will cause night blindness
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
a. vitamin A
deficiency of this disease will cause extreme dry skin, hair and nails
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
a. vitamin A
deficiency of this disease will cause rickets
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
b. vitamin D
deficiency of this disease will cause Osteomalacia
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
b. vitamin D
deficiency of this disease will cause increases risk of cardio vascular disease
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
b. vitamin D
deficiency of this disease will cause RBCs damage and will cause sickle disease and then Thalassemia
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
c. vitamin E
deficiency of this disease will cause bleeding
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
d. vitamin K
deficiency of this disease will cause beri-beri
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
a. vitamin B1
deficiency of this disease will cause fatigue and lack of concentration
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
a. vitamin B1
deficiency of this disease will cause Riboflavinosis
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
b. vitamin B2
deficiency of this disease will cause itching and burning eyes
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
b. vitamin B2
deficiency of this disease will cause cracks and sores in mouth and lips that will later cause stomatitis
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
b. vitamin B2
deficiency of this disease will cause pellagra
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
c. Vitamin B3
deficiency of this disease will cause dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
c. vitamin B3
deficiency of this disease will cause Niacin flush caused by high doses
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
c. vitamin B3
deficiency of this disease will cause neurological symptoms
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
a. vitamin B6
deficiency of this disease will cause Microcytic anemia
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
a. vitamin B6
deficiency of this disease will cause Alopecia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
b. vitamin B7
deficiency of this disease will cause Megaloblastic anemia
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
c. vitamin B9
deficiency of this disease will cause Neural tube defect
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
c. vitamin B9
deficiency of this disease will cause recommended in pregnancy
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
c. vitamin B9
deficiency of this disease will cause pernicious anemia
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
d. vitamin B12
deficiency of this disease will cause scurvy
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
e. vitamin c
deficiency of this disease will cause gingivitis
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
e. vitamin c
cholecalciferol
a. vitamin D2
b. vitamin D3
b. vitamin D3
ergocalciferol
a. vitamin D2
b. vitamin D3
a. vitamin D2
which is more effective
a. vitamin D2
b. vitamin D3
b. vitamin D3
is used in chronic kidney disease (CKD) to decrease PTH
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin D
is used with patient using corticosteroids for 6 months
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin D
is considered biologically inactive until it undergoes 2 enzymatic hydroxylation reactions.
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin D
in high doses ( more than 15000IU) is contraindicated in pregnancy
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
a. Vitamin A
absorbed by intrinsic factors
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B3
c. Vitamin B12
c. vitamin B12
Niacin
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B3
c. Vitamin B12
b. vitamin B3
in doses above 500 mg daily causes transient increase in liver enzymes
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B3
c. Vitamin B12
b. vitamin B3
function: makes up bone and teeth
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
function: muscle contraction and laxation
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
function: blood pressure- clotting
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
function: nerve functions
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
function: helps insulin to move glucose from blood to cells
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
b. chromium
function: makes bones and teeth stronger
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
c. fluoride
function: helps teeth to resist decay
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
c. fluoride
function: component of thyroid hormone
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
d. iodine
function: regulate growth , development and metabolism
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
d. iodine
function: part of hemoglobin
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
a. Iron
function: Mineralization of bones and teeth
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
b. magnesium
function: Helps enzymes functions
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
b. Magnesium
function: muscle contraction and nerve transmission
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
b. magnesium
function: present in bones, teeth, DNA and phospholipids
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
c. Phosphorus
function: Maintain normal electrolyte balance
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
d. Potassium
function: Muscle contraction and nerve transmission
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
d. Potassium
function: antioxidant works with vitamin E
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
a. selenium
function: Maintain normal electrolyte balance
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
b. Sodium
function: Muscle contraction and nerve transmission
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
b. Sodium
function: Part of insulin
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
function: Helps many enzymes function
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
function: DNA repair
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
function: Taste perception
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
function: Immune function
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
function: Wound healing
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
function: sperm
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
function: increase Iron absorption
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C
Deficiency of this mineral will cause stunded growth in children
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
Deficiency of this mineral will cause bone loss in adults
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
Deficiency of this mineral will cause abnormal glucose metabolism
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
b. chromium
Deficiency of this mineral will cause tooth decay
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
c. fluoride
Deficiency of this mineral will cause goiter
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
d. iodine
Deficiency of this mineral will cause cretinism
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
d. iodine
Deficiency of this mineral will cause anemia , weakness, headache , reduced immunity, and low cold tolerance
a. Iron
b. magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
a. iron
Deficiency of this mineral will cause weakness, muscle twitches, confusion, convulsion
a. Iron
b. magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
b. magnesium
Deficiency of this mineral will cause weakness and bone pain
a. Iron
b. magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
c. phosphorus
Deficiency of this mineral will cause muscular weakness, paralysis, and confusion
a. Iron
b. magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
d. potassium
Deficiency of this mineral will cause Keshan disease
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
a. selenium
Deficiency of this mineral will cause muscle pain, low sperm , fragile red blood cells, and heart damage
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
a. selenium
Deficiency of this mineral will cause muscle cramps, mental apathy and loss of appetite
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
b. sodium
Deficiency of this mineral will cause failure to growth (kids), dermatitis, loss of taste , poor healing , sex retardation
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
memorize the Glutathione oxidation reduction ( Redox) Cycle
page 67
what enzyme is used in the conversion of Homocysteine to methionine
a. Methionine synthase
b. methyltransderase
a. methionine synthase
what enzyme is use in the conversion of S-adenosyl methionine to S- Adenosyl- homocysteine
a. Methionine synthase
b. methyltransderase
b. methyltransferase
page 67
what vitamin is used to convert 5-Methyl TH4 - Folate to TH4-Folate
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin B12
c. vitamin B12
what vitamin is used to convert homocysteine to cystathionine
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin B12
b. vitamin B6
what vitamin is used to convert cysathionine to cysteine
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin B12
b. vitamin B6
How many daily doses of FeSO4 should the adult patient take?
a. 1000mg/day
b.600IU
c. 1200mg/day
d. 150mg/day
c. 1200mg/day
How many daily doses of elemental Fe should the adult patient take?
a. 1000mg/day
b.600IU
c. 1200mg/day
d. 150mg/day
d. 150mg/day
How many daily doses of calcium should the pregnant patient take?
a. 1200mg/day
b.600IU
c. 900mg/day
d. 600mg/day
a. 1200mg/day
How many daily doses of folic acid should the pregnant patient take?
a. 1200mg/day
b.600IU
c. 900mg/day
d. 600mg/day
d. 600mcg
How many daily doses of vitamin A should the pregnant patient take?
a. 1200mg/day
b.600IU
c. 900mg/day
d. 600mg/day
c.900mg/day
How many daily doses of vitamin D should the pregnant patient take?
a. 1200mg/day
b.600IU
c. 900mg/day
d. 600mg/day
b. 600 IU
How many daily doses of vitamin D should the breast feeding patient take?
a.600IU
b. 1200mcg/day
c. 500mcg/day
a. 600 IU
How many daily doses of vitamin A should the breast feeding patient take?
a.600IU
b. 1200mcg/day
c. 500mcg/day
b. 1200mcg
How many daily doses of calcium should the breast geriatric patient take?
a.600IU
b.1200mg/day
c. 500mcg/day
b. 1200mg/day
How many daily doses of folic acid should the breast feeding patient take?
a.600IU
b. 1200mcg/day
c. 500mcg/day
c. 500mcg
How many daily doses of vitamin D should the breast geriatric patient take?
a.600IU
b.1200mg/day
c. 500mcg/day
a. 600IU
How many daily doses of calcium should the adult patient take?
a. 1000mg/day
b.600IU
c. 1200mg/day
d. 150mg/day
a.1000mg/day
How many daily doses of Vitamin D should the adult patient take?
a. 1000mg/day
b.600IU
c. 1200mg/day
d. 150mg/day
b. 600IU
what enzyme is used in converting oxidized Glutathione
to reduced glutathione
a. glutathione reductase
b. glutathione peroxidase
a. glutathione reductase
what enzyme is used to convert reduced glutathione to oxidized glutathione
a. glutathione reductase
b. glutathione peroxidase
b. glutathione peroxidase
FAD
a. riboflavin
b. selenium
a. riboflavin
what is used in converting oxidized glutathione to reduced glutathione
a. riboflavin
b. selenium
a. riboflavin
what is used in converting reduced Glutathione to oxidized Glutathione
a. riboflavin
b. selenium
b. selenium
7- dehydrocholecalciferol —UV from sun—> ?
a. cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
a. cholecalciferol
vitamin D3
a. cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
a. cholecalciferol
Vitamin D3— 25 hydroxylase from liver —>
a. cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
25-Hydroxy-cholecalciferol ——- 1 hydroxylase from kidney —->
a. cholecalciferol
b. 7-dehydrochocalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
what enzyme is used to convert cholecalciferol to 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
a. oxidase
b. hydroxylase
b. hydroxylase
What organ is responsible for converting 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol to 1,25-Di-Hydroxy- Cholecalciferol ?
a. liver
b. kidney
b. kidney
what enzyme is used to convert cholecalciferol to 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
a. 25 oxidase
b. 1 oxidase
c. 25 hydroxylase
d. 1 hydroxylase
c. 25 hydroxylase
what enzyme is used to convert 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol to 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
a. 25 oxidase
b. 1 oxidase
c. 25 hydroxylase
d. 1 hydroxylase
d. 1 hydroxylase
What organ is responsible for converting cholecalciferol to 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol?
a. liver
b. kidney
a. liver
