7- there is structure Flashcards
Mortality of children was 8 in 2012 and 6.4 in 2017, This mean?
A- More hospital open
B- Improve health
C- Nothing, more information need
C- Nothing, more information need
What database do insurance companies use?
A- C.L.U.E.” database
Comprehensive Loss Underwriting Exchange
39- Sources of data in insurance companies?
A- CLAIMS
b- Health data
C- Information collection
A- CLAIMS
49- Which of the following error detection strategies result in limiting detection?
A- bar-coding
B- trigger tools
C- voluntary reporting
D- mandatory reporting
D- mandatory reporting
55- Mid goal to long term future goal?
A- Mission
B- Vision
C- Plan
B- Vision
77- Preventive and curative institution?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. specialty
A. primary
177- Mission and vision can be present in which strategy?
A. Planning
B. Organization
C. Strategic
C. Strategic
strategic planning is to align a company’s mission with its vision
Strategies are a series of ways of using the mission to achieve the vision
183- Long term plan use all aspects in organization
A- strategy
B- operation
C- organization
A- strategy
184- Pharmacist wrote email to another pharmacist to ask add medication to theformulary in the hospital
this is consider as ?
A. Interinstitutional
B. Intra institutional
C. Written communication
D. Non Verbal communication
C. Written communication
206-Head of pharmacy decide to make group to arrange formulary drugs in hospital?
A. organizing
B. planning
C. Leading
B. planning
252- who’s responsible for accreditation of health care system?
A- SFDA
B- WHO
C- MOH
D- CBAHI
D- CBAHI
360- You received a prescription on a plain paper what to do ?
A. Tell the manager
B. Talk to the prescriber and don’t dispense
A. Tell the manager
Don’t dispense the medicine and refer the patient to prescriber
409- pharmacist manager screamed on one of the pharmacist who dispensed wrongmedication in front of
all the staff what is the good response ?
A. he should punish him in separate area
B. ask for a meeting with the staff
C. cut from his salary
D. Try to find the cause of the error and set solutions
D. Try to find the cause of the error and set solutions
14) Which ofthe following isthe function ofthe pharmacy and therapeutic committee in ahospital?
A. Responsible for poison management
B. Monitor the adverse reaction reporting
C. Monitor the medication error reporting
D. Responsible for drug formulary management
D. Responsible for drug formulary management
70- Which of the following distribution systems works better for medicine requiring a higherlevel of control?
A. Bulk ward stock
B. Direct procurement
C. Automated dispensing
D. Individual medication order
C. Automated dispensing Or unit dose system (UDS)
77- Which of the following committees is dedicated to developing and maintaining a list ofapproved
medicine for the hospital medicines for the hospital use ?
A. Medical records
B. Medication audit
C. Quality assurance
D. Pharmacy and therapeutics
D. Pharmacy and therapeutics
66- Which of the following is the definition of management?
A) The art of maximizing profitability
B) The art of maximizing productivity
C)The art of maximizing possibilities
D)The art of maximizing predictability
B) The art of maximizing productivity
The primary goal of management is to create an environment
that lets employees work efficiently and productively
72- A 65-year-old man presents to the pharmacy for a refill his medications. On review of his refill history,
the pharmacist noticed that he does not refill his medications regularly. Upon askinghim, the patient started that
he has multiple medications that require complex administration.
Which of the following non adherence factors affecting above patient?
A. Patient related factors
B. Provider related factors
C. Health care system factors
D. Medication and condition factor
D. Medication and condition factor
24- which of the following need to be considered first by a pharmacist in order to rationalize drug therapy
decisions?
A. Care plan
B. Follow-up evaluations
C. Pharmacotherapy workup
C. Pharmacotherapy workup
75- Itisthe broad range of health care services provided by in order to optimize therapeuticoutcomes for
individual patients
Which of the following is the term used to describe the above- mentioned definition?
A. Pharmaceutical care
B. Medication counseling
C. Medication reconciliation
D. Medication therapy management
D. Medication therapy management
91- Free medical sample drugs (formulary or non-formulary) are provided by pharmaceuticalsales
representatives to physicians or members of the health care team.
Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended policy for dealing with sampledrugs?
A. Dispense them directly to the patient
B. Keep them with the rest of original items
C. Keep in outpatient clinics or nursing units
D. Exclude them from in-patient pharmacy, drug store or doctors’ offices
D. Exclude them from in-patient pharmacy, drug store or doctors’ offices
The hierarchy is showing Hospital X organizational chart. A pharmacist assigned as a clinicalpharmacist in
neuroscience ward (see image)
Which of the following managerial position will the coworker re submitting a complaint?
A) Pharmacy Director
B) Medical affair Director
C) Neuroscience ward director
D) Clinical pharmacy department Head
D) Clinical pharmacy department Head
157- Most on prescription?
A- Patient name - mrn- date
B- Phystion name - number - signature
C- Patient name - age - sex - diagnosis
D- all above
C- Patient name - age - sex - diagnosis
36-which of the following medication has a side effect metallic taste ?
A) cefuroxime
B) azithromycin
C) ciprofloxacin
D) metronidazole
D) metronidazole
118- What is the type of anemia Lack of intrinsic factor?A-
Megaloblastic anemia
B- Pernicious anemia
C- Hemolytic anemia
D- Aplastic anemia
B- Pernicious anemia-> Vitamin B12 deficiency
42- which ofthe following anesthetics drug has a higher risk of causing hepatic toxicity?
A) propofol
B) ketamine
C) isoflurane
D) nitrous oxide
C) isoflurane
________________________________________________________
A) propofol- risk of hypotension
B) ketamine- risk of hypertension
C) isoflurane- risk of hepatotoxicity
D) nitrous oxide- risk of cardiotoxicity and anemia
16- Which of the following is the advantage of using intravenous anesthetic drug?
A. Produce fast onset of anesthesia
B. Helps in maintaining anesthesia
C. Increases the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of the anesthetic drugs
D. Produce less cardiovascular and respiratory suppression
A. Produce fast onset of anesthesia
84- Which of the following is the mode of action of Phentolamine?
A. beta-adrenergic blocker
B. beta-adrenergic agonist
C. alpha-adrenergic agonist
D. alpha-adrenergic blocker (non selective alpha blocker)
D. alpha-adrenergic blocker (non selective alpha blocker)
22- Which of the following is a consequence ofstimulation of ꭤ1-Adrenoceptors?
A. A flushing Adrenergic Receptors
B. increased heart rate
C. elevated blood pressure
C. elevated blood pressure
24- which drug is used to treat an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Atropine
B. Adrenaline
C. Isoprinosine
D. Phentolamine
B. Adrenaline
30- Which of the following is a property of amphetamine?
A. It does not cross the blood brain barrier
B. It stimulates the release of stored acetylcholine
C. It stimulates the release of stored norepinephrine
D. It stimulates the release of five hydroxytryptophan (5-HT)
C. It stimulates the release of stored norepinephrine
50-A 25-year-old driver was held for reckless driving and confronting a policeman. He istooconfident,
talkatiye.restless and continuously walking around the hall.
Which of the following is the drug that the driver is abusing?
A. Diazepam
B. Theophylline
C. Amphetamine
D. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
C. Amphetamine - CNS stimulants and increase ego
72- What isthe pharmacological classification of Ipratropium bromide?
A. Beta agonist
B. Alpha agonist
C. Cholinergic agonist
D. Antimuscarinic agent
D. Antimuscarinic agent
14- Which of the following is a consequence ofstimulation of ꭤ1 - adrenoceptors?
A. flushing
B. increased heart rate
C. constricted bronchioles
D. elevated blood pressure
D. elevated blood pressure
77- Which of the following describesthe mechanism of action of rivastigmine?
A. cholinesterase inhibitor
B. alpha-a receptor inhibitor
C. serotonin reuptake inhibitor
D. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
A. cholinesterase inhibitor
106- Drug to reverse action of Atropine?
A. Physostigmine
B. Benztropine
C. Disulfiram
D. Propranolol
A. Physostigmine
301-Catechol amine with COMT ?
A- rapid metabolism
B- slow metabolism
A- rapid metabolism
55- A 21-year-old patient went through respiratory depression after receiving anesthetic agent. Which of the
following agents will counteract post-anesthetic respiratory depression?
A. morphine
B. picrotoxin
C. diazepam
D. thiopental
B. picrotoxin
76- Which of the following drugs would decrease the amount of minimum alveolarconcentration
(MAC) for an anesthetic drug?
A. diazepam
B. buspirone
C. ephedrine
D. loratadine
A. diazepam
83- Which of the following anesthetics drugs has a higher risk of causing anemia?
A. propofol
B. ketamine
C. isoflurane
D. nitrous oxide
D. nitrous oxide
Nitrous oxide inactivates methionine synthase via oxidation of the cobalt in vitamin B12 and may lead to megaloblastic anemia.
71- Which depolarizing neuromuscular blocker isless potent than tubocurarine?
A. succinylcholine (Anectine)
B. rocuronium (Zemuron)
C. pipecuronium (Arduan)
D. doxacurium (Nuromax)
A. succinylcholine (Anectine)
100- Which of the following is heparin antidote?
A. Protamine Sulphate
B. Octreotide
C. N-Acetylcysteine
D. Naloxone Hydrochloride
A. Protamine Sulphate
32- What isthe antidote for heparin toxicity?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Sodium salicylate
C. Naloxone
D. Glucagon
A. Protamine sulfate
9- Which of the following situation is most likely to be controlled by administering parenteral calcium as an
antidote?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Verapamil overdose
C. Heroine intoxication
D. Cocaine intoxication
B. Verapamil overdose
11-A 55-year-old man presents with an excessive bronchial and oconasal secretions. History
revealed, is exposed to an organophosphate insecticide. Which of the following is the best
management?
A. Atropine IV
B. Diphenhydramine orally
C. Pralidoxime intramuscularly
D. Physostigmine intramuscularly
A. Atropine IV
40- In case a patient develops toxicity from midazolam. Which of the following medications
can be given as an antidote?
A. Atropine
B. Flumazenil
C. Amifostine
D. Acetylcysteine
B. Flumazenil
(3) Which ofthe following isthe precursor for 5_hydroxytryptamine?
A) proline
B) alanine
C) glutamine
D) tryptophan
D) tryptophan
30- Which of the following enzymes regulate supercoiling of DNA?
A) Helicases
B) Primases
C) Topoisomerases
D) Reverse transcriptase
C) Topoisomerases
83- Where dose the electron transport chain reaction pathway take?
A) Cell cytoplasm
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Outer mitochondrial membrane
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
- Which of the following vitamin deficiency can cause scurvy?
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin B6
C. vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
C. vitamin C
The diagram shows the role of a vitamin as coenzyme for cystathionine synthase and cystathionase
enzymes which catalyze the transsulfuration of methionine to cysteine (see image).
Which of the following is the vitamin indicated by the star* in the figure?
A. B2
B. B3
C. B5
D. B6
d. B6
page 8 number 51
2- pH difference between extracellular and intracellular fluid is
A. Nil
B. 0.2
C. 0.4
D. 0.8
C. 0.4
3- Role of ATP ?
A. Energy carrier
B. Oxygen carrier
C. Amino acid carrier
A. Energy carrier
5- which is cytokine
A. Leukotriene
B. Adrenaline
C. Gonadotropin
A. Leukotriene- inflammatory mediator
7- Which process does Insulin work on or increase ?
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glyconeogenesis
C. Glucogensis
D. Ketogenesis
E-Glycogenesis
E-Glycogenesis
13-The synthesis of glycogen from glucose called?
A-
Glycogenesis
42- How much molecule ATP molecules are produced for every glucose.
A- 12
B- 24
C- 38
C- 38
61- Which Amino acid we give for anorexia?
A. Alanine
B. arginine
C. Valine
C. Valine
62- starch is digested in saliva by ?
A. Amylase
B. lipase
A. Amylase
64- POLYSACCHARIDE?
A-
B- Glucose
b- glycogen
c- glucagon
b- glycogen
73- Which of the following is the precursor for 5- hydrotryptamine (serotonin)?
A. Proline
B. Alanine
C. Glutamine
D. Tryptophan
D. Tryptophan
79- How much ATP molecules are produced for every glucose molecule?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 38
C. 38
101- Which process does Insulin work on increase?
A- Glycogenolysis
B- Glyconeogenesis
C- Glucogensis
C- Ketogenesis
D- Glycogenesis
D- Glycogenesis
131- Krebs cycle for production of ?
ATP
look at page 9 number 64
134- DNA ligase enzyme for ligation of ?
A. mRNA with TRNA
B. 2mRNA molecules
C. 2tRNA molecules
D. 2DNA strands
D. 2DNA strands
look at page 9 number 65
138- use Glucosamine for uses ??
A- Osteoporosis
B- Osteomyelitis
C- Osteoarthritis
C- Osteoarthritis
155- Where dose the electron transport chain reaction
A. pathway take
B. Cell cytoplasm
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Outer mitochondrial membrane
E. Inner mitochondrial membrane
E. Inner mitochondrial membrane
163- How many amino acid in the human body ?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
A. 20
181- Which parameter used when we give statin and there is rhabdomyolysis ?
A- Creatine kinase
B- Crcl
A- Creatine kinase
210- Purpose of mitochondria ?A-
Synthesis of DNA
B- Synthesis of RNA
C- Produce ATP
C- Produce ATP
270- Which is complex protein ?
A. Pr
B. Sec
C. Tri
D. Quaternary in structure
D. Quaternary in structure
356- acetyl-CoA to form malonyl- coA which vitamine is used ?
A. biotin (B7)
B. riboflavin
C. pyridoxine
D. nicotinamide
A. biotin (B7)
357- coenzyme for cystathionine synthase and cystathionase enzymes which catalyze the
transfiguration of methionine to cysteine ?
A- B2
B- B3
C- B5
D- B6
D- B6
358- Acetyl coA and citric acid cycle which vitamin is used ?
A. B6
B. B12
C. B2
D. B9
C. B2
365-Which the carrier in Krebs Cycle?
A. Carrier in cycle
B. oxaloacetate
C. Citric acid
B. oxaloacetate
403- Number of ATP in glycolysis ?
A- 1
B- 22
C- 24
D- 2
D- 2
12) What the function ofsmall nuclear (snRNAs) in protein synthesis?
A. Act as catalyst
B. Modifies mRNA molecules
C. Genetic blueprint for the protein
D. Translates genetic code to amino acid
B. Modifies mRNA molecules
25) Which ofthe following pairsrepresentsthe purines nitrogenous bases?
A. Adenine (A) and Uracil (U)
B. Cytosine (C) and Uracil (U)
C. C)Adenine (A) and guanine (G)
D. D)Cytosine (C) and guanine (G)
C. C)Adenine (A) and guanine (G)
30) Which ofthe following isthe process of breaking down of glycogen ?
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis
40) Which ofthe following inhibits gluconeogenesis?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine
D. Glucocorticoid
A. Insulin
73- Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
A) Lysine
B) Valine
C) Cysteine
D) Isoleucine
C) Cysteine
N.B:-The 9 essential amino acids are: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine,phenylalanine,
threonine, tryptophan, and valine.
154- which of the following inhibits gluconeogenesis
A- insulin
B- glucagon
C- epinephrine
D- glucocorticoids
A- insulin
197- which the Carbohydrates produce more energy
A. glucose
B. maltose
C. sucrose
ــــــــــــ
ــــــــــــ
ـ
All Produce Same amount of Energy per
gram
48) Which of the following compounds is urea cycle a biochemical reaction that produce ureafrom?
A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Glycogen
D. Ammonia (NH3)
D. Ammonia (NH3)
86-Click image to enlarge
A water-soluble vitamin catalyzes the carboxylation of acetyl-COA to form malonyl-CoA, whichis
required for the synthesis of fatty acids (see image) Which of the following vitamins plays this role?
A. biotin (b7)
B. riboflavin
C. pyridoxine
D. nicotinamide
A. biotin (b7)
46- Which of the following is a potential serious side effect that is common among all
anticoagulant agents?
A. Hypokalemia.
B. Major Bleeding
C. Liver Dysfunction
D. Renal Dysfunction
B. Major Bleeding
28) Which ofthe following is a function of alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme?
A. Accelerates the reduction of ethanol
B. Accelerate the addition of hydrogen to ethanol
C. Accelerates the addition of phosphate to ethanol
D. Accelerates the removal of hydrogen from ethanol
D. Accelerates the removal of hydrogen from ethanol
86- Which of the following enzymes is responsible for forming DNA copy from RNA?
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Helicase
D. Primase
A. Reverse transcriptase
6) Which of the following is an example of a parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor?
A) enoxaparin
B) argatroban
C) fondaparinux
D) unfractionated heparin
B) argatroban
11- which of the following anti platelets is contraindicated patients with transient ischemicattack
(TIA) or stroke?
A. Prasugrel
B. Ticagrelor
C. Clopidogrel
A. Prasugrel
26- which of the following antiplatelet agents the highest risk of causing dyspnea ?
A. Prasugrel
B. Ticagrelor
C. Clopidogrel
D. Dipyridamole
B. Ticagrelor
(34) Which of the following isthe recommended anti-coagulation strategy for atrial fibrillation
patient with a CHA2DS2-VACS score of 5?
A. aspirin
B. dabigatran
C. clopidogrel
D. no anticoagulation
B. dabigatran
Which of the following could lead to decrease in international normalization ratio (INR) in a
patient of warfarin therapy?
A. decrease the consumption of dietary vitamin K
B. carbamazepine therapy
C. cotrimoxazole therapy
D. metronidazole therapy
B. carbamazepine therapy
64- Which of the following is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during hemodialysis
procedure?
A. Enoxaparin
B. Dabigatran
C. Rivaroxaban
D. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
D. Unfractionated heparin (UFH)
71- A 51-year-old man diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The patient planned for warfarinand
started combination with warfarin until INR is therapeutic (see lab result).
weight :80kg
height :160cm
test :
creatinine
result:85
normal value:44-115 umol/L
creatinin clearance
reasult:103
normal value:70-103 umol/L
Which of the following enoxaparin dose regimen should the patient receive?
A. Enoxaparin 30 mg SC every 24h
B. Enoxaparin 40 mg SC every 24h
C. Enoxaparin 80 mg SC every 12h
D. Enoxaparin 160 mg SC every 12h
C. Enoxaparin 80 mg SC every 12h
2- Which of the following medications is an anticoagulant agent?
A. Aspirin
B. Warfarin
C. Clopidogrel
D. D. Streptokinase
B. Warfarin
Which of the following isthe mechanism of action of apixaban?
A. an indirect inhibitor of thrombin
B. an indirect inhibitor of factor Xa
C. a direct inhibitor of thrombin
D. a direct inhibitor of factor Xa
D. a direct inhibitor of factor Xa
73- Which of the following best represents the activity of dipyridamole?
A. It has fibrinolytic activity
B. It has antifibrinolytic activity
C. It is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
D. It is a phosphodiesterase enzyme inducer
C. It is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
45- Which of the following can decrease the effect of warfarin?
A. Antibiotics
B. Paracetamol
C. Multivitamins (contain vit k)
D. Calcium supplement
C. Multivitamins (contain vit k)
25- What is the route of administration of Enoxaparin?
A. Intrathecal bolus
B. Transdermal injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
D. Intramuscular injection
C. Subcutaneous injection
97- Which of the following drugs can be used to lyse fibrin clots?
A. heparin
B. warfarin
C. enoxaparin
D. streptokinase
D. streptokinase
18- Which of the following can decrease the effect of warfarin?
A. antibiotics
B. paracetamol
C. multivitamins
D. calcium supplement
C. multivitamins
41- Which of the following medications produces antiplatelet effect by inhibiting Adenosine
Diphosphate (ADP) receptors?
A. aspirin
B. abciximab
C. clopidogrel
D. streptokinase
C. clopidogrel
63- Which of the following isrecommended regarding air bubble in the syringe for a patientstarting on
enoxaparin subcutaneous Injection?
A. inject the dose with the air bubble
B. Inject the air bubble if the volume is small
C. remove the air bubble to avoid wastage of the dose
D. remove air bubble and adjust volume before injection
A. inject the dose with the air bubble
74- Which of the following is a potentialseriousside effect that is common among all
anticoagulant agents?
A. hypokalemia
B. major bleeding
C. liver dysfunction
D. renal dysfunction
B. major bleeding
75- Which of the following statements describes unfractionated heparin?
A. enolic acid derivative
B. propionic acid derivative
C. acetyl ester of salicylic acid
D. mucopolysaccharide polymers
D. mucopolysaccharide polymers
71- Which of the following isrecommended regarding air bubble in the syringe for a patient
starting on enoxaparin subcutaneous injection?
A. Inject the dose with the air bubble
B. inject the air bubble if the volume is small
C. remove air bubble to avoid wastage of the dose
D. remove air bubble and adjust volume before injection
A. Inject the dose with the air bubble
22- Risk factor cause DVT?
A. Age
B. food rich of VK
C. surgery
C. surgery
59- The recommended DVT prophylaxis dose for postpartum in women with heigh risk ofDVT
is?
A. 3 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
B. 6 weeks
most accurate
6 weeks to 12 weeks depend on risk factor
92- Which of the following is parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor?
A. Argatroban
B. Dabigatran
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin
A. Argatroban
96- Which of the following antiplatelet working by inhibition of adenosine diphosphate
receptor?
A. Aspirin
B. Abciximab
C. Clopidogrel
D. Streptokinase
C. Clopidogrel
136- how ibuprofen inhibit antiplatelet effect of aspirin ?
A- Ibuprofen bind to cox1 and hinder it’s acetylation by aspirin
113- Which direct anticoagulant needs premedication 5-10 dayswith
anticoagulant ?
Note: endoxaban > Apixaban >Dabigatran
146- Neonate with coagulopathy which vit K route will you use ?
A. Suppository
B. Iv
C. Sc
D. Im
Child is IM
Coagulopathy.. IV
B. Iv
141- Ptient on Warfarin and has mechanical valve and INR 3.5, what should you do ?
A- No management
B- decrease warfarin dose
A- No management
239- antiplatelet C.I. in patients with transient ischemic attack ?A-
dipyradimole
B- clopidogrel
C- prasugrel
D- ticagrelor
C- prasugrel
253- INR monitoring after initiation as outpatient ?A-
next day
B- 2-5 days
C- 1 month
D- 3 months
B- 2-5 days
318- treatments of pulmonary embolism?
A- Enoxaparin 40 mg sc once daily
B- Rivaroxaban
C- Enoxaparin 1 mg/ kg twice dailyOr 2
mg/ kg once daily
C- Enoxaparin 1 mg/ kg twice dailyOr 2
mg/ kg once daily
334- patient is taking warfarin 4.5 mg PO daily came to the clinic with INR of 5.1 withoutany
signs of active bleeding, what is the appropriate management for her ?
A. Hold warfarin and give vit K IV
B. Hold warfarin and resume with lower dose
C. Hold warfarin and give platelet
B. Hold warfarin and resume with lower dose
345- in pregnancy what the trimester can be use warfarin ?
A. first
B. second
C. third trimester
D. avoided use in pregnancy
D. avoided use in pregnancy
397- Pt use Warfarin 10mg and INR low why ?
A. Low dose
B. Diet
C. Low bioavailability of warfarin
B. Diet
425- which the fallowing uses in prophylaxis strock
A. anticoagulant
B. thrombolytic drug
C. antiplatelet
C. antiplatelet
427- Which the fallowing drugs inducing thrombocytopenia
A- UFH heparin
B- LMWH
C- warfarin
D- Aspirin
A- UFH heparin
428- Which the fallowing drugs treatment thrombocytopenia
A- UFH
B- LMWH
C- warfarin
D- Argatroban
D- Argatroban
120- Medication for osteoporosis in women given weekly ?
A- Zoledronic acid
B- ibandronate
C- raloxifene
D- Alendronate
D- Alendronate
70mg PO once weekly
110- Medication for osteoporosis in menopausal women given monthly?
A. Zoledronic acid
B. ibandronate
C. raloxifene
B. ibandronate
119- Medication for osteoporosis in women given once per a year ?
A- Zoledronic acid
B- ibandronateC-
raloxifene
A- Zoledronic acid
5mg IV once yearly
202- gold standard test for Osteoporosis ?
A- (DEXA)
dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
285- Patient with Osteoporosis which need for Diagnosis?
A- X-ray
B- MRI
C- CT
A- X-ray
(39) Which of the following osteoporosis drugs can cause esophageal ulcers?
A. denosumab
B. teriparatide
C. alendronate
D. zelodronic acid
C. alendronate
73- Which of the following medications for osteoporosis will significantly reduce the risk of hip
fracture?
A. Phosphate
B. Risedronate
C. Raloxifene
D. Calcitonin
B. Risedronate
14-A 65-year patient suffered from Osteomalacia with finger numbness, tingling and burning of
extremities. The doctor prescribed vitamin D and an IV calcium supplement. Which of the followingcalcium
salts did the physician most likely prescribed ?
A. Calcium citrate (21%calcium)
B. Calcium lactate(13%calcium)
C. Calcium gluconate (9%calcium)
D. Calcium phosphate (39% calcium)
C. Calcium gluconate (9%calcium)
calcium gluconate is a calcium salt used to directly replete serum calcium levels
N.B:-Ca phosphate no more effective — and may in fact be less effective — than calcium citrateor
calcium carbonate.
56- A 25-year-old man with leukemia admitted to hematology oncology center. Who is allowedto
read the patient file without additional permission?
A) Patient’s cousin who is working as out-patient nurse in the hospital
B) Medical resident in pediatric who wants to explore the risk leukemia
C) Clinical nutritionist who is assigned to calculate the requires for the patient
D) Pharmacy resident who is planning to do a research cell transplant
C) Clinical nutritionist who is assigned to calculate the requires for the patient
57 -Which of the following anti-neoplastic medications is known to cause bone marrowsuppression?
A. bleomycin
B. vincristine
C. doxorubicin
D. l-asparaginase
C. doxorubicin
(11) 42-year-old woman, a mother of 2 boys is diagnosed with cancer, treatment options includes
either hysterectomy or chemotherapy The patient refused the surgery because she still wantsto
daughter, and do not want to receive any chemotherapy in protect her hair and beauty.What will be the
most appropriate suggestion for her?
A-To starts chemotherapy with very low doses and less frequency
B- To go with the option of surgery immediately because it is
C-To discuss the risk and benefit with the patient and take the decision
D-To force the patient to receive chemotherapy and wear syn hair extensions
C-To discuss the risk and benefit with the patient and take the decision
59- Which of the following is an alkylating anticancer agent?
A. cyclophosphamide
B. fluorouracil
C. doxorubicin
D. etoposide
A. cyclophosphamide
42-year-old woman, a mother of 2 boys is diagnosed with cancer, treatment options includes
either hysterectomy or chemotherapy The patient refused the surgery because she still wantsto
daughter, and do not want to receive any chemotherapy in protect her hair and beauty.What will be the
most appropriate suggestion for her?
A-To starts chemotherapy with very low doses and less frequency
B- To go with the option of surgery immediately because it is
C-To discuss the risk and benefit with the patient and take the decision
D-To force the patient to receive chemotherapy and wear syn hair extensions
C-To discuss the risk and benefit with the patient and take the decision
Which of the following anti-cancer alkaloids act by stabilizing the microtubule polymer and
protecting it from disassembly?
A. Paclitaxel
B. Colchicine
C. Vinblastine
D. Camptothesin
A. Paclitaxel
- Which of the following is a recommendation to reduce the inadvertent intrathecal
administration of vincristine?
A. dispense the syringe without needle
B. dispense vincristine in 60-ml syringe
C. dispense vincristine in mini bag instead of syringe
D. dispense the vial for the nurse to prepare at the bedside
C. dispense vincristine in mini bag instead of syringe
8- What is the most common adverse reaction of doxorubicin?
A. Bone marrow depression
B. Hepatic toxicity
C. Cardiac toxicity
D. Skin necrosis
C. Cardiac toxicity
BELOMYCIN _ pulmonary fibrosis
MITOMYCIN _nephrotoxicity
35- What is the therapeutic indication fo r nilotinib ?
D
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Familial hyperlipidemia
C. Highly active and relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis
D. Philadelphia chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia
D. Philadelphia chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia
29- 40 years old women with breast cancer, topoisomerase is elevated, which drug shouldbe
used
A- Cyclophosphamide
B- Melphalan
C- Irinotican
D- Methotrexate
C- Irinotican
129- Immune system works an important role in cancer treatment by ?
A. Macrophage
B. cytotoxic
C. complex
B. cytotoxic
173- prevention breast cancer ?
A. Vit A 100
B. Vit D 200
C. None of them
D. Vit A + vit d
B. Vit D 200
196- Prevention breast cancer ?
A. Vit A 100
B. Vit D 200
C. None of them
D. Vit A + vit d
B. Vit D 200
N.B : Deficiency of Vitamin D is combined with tumor progression , Metastasis
265- Immune system works an important role in cancer treatment by ?
A. Macrophage
B. cytotoxic
C. complex
B. cytotoxic
267-Cysteine in chemotherapy agent benefit ?
A- Increase Target
B- Increase effects
C- increase solubility
D- More information need
B- Increase effects
can abrogate the effects of the majority of oxidative or alkylating drugs used in cancer therapy
90- Click image to enlarge
Acetaminophen is an antipyretic and an analgesic drug. It binds to a cytosolic protein (see image).
Which of the following types of bonds is formed between the protonated amine of theacetaminophen
and the cytosolic acid of the aspartate residue of the protein?
A. ionic bond
B. covalent bond
C. hydrogen bond
D. VAN_der walls interaction
C. hydrogen bond
63- Which of the following molecules contains double bond?
A. CH3
B. CNH
C. C2H2
D. C2H4
D. C2H4
80) Click image to enlarge
Acetaminophen is an anti pyretic and an analgesic drug. It binds to a cytosolic protein (see image).
Which of the following types of bonds is formed between the protonated amine of theacetaminophen
and the carboxylic acid of the aspartate residue of the protein?
A) lonic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
D) van-der wallsinteraction
C) hydrogen bond
65) Quinine is an important antimalarial drug with very complicated structure and is very
sensitive stereochemistry (see image).
Which pharmacological activity the drug will possess stereochemistry at the arrow has changedfrom R
to S?
A. anticancer
B. antimalarial
C. anticoagulant
D. antiarrhythmic
D. antiarrhythmic
(14) Which ofthe following can be used safely in a patient with sulfa allergy?
A) gliclazide
B) furosemide
C) sulfamethoxazole
D) sodium thiosulfate
B) furosemide
13) The structure of norepinephrine-serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (NSRI) (see image)
Which of the following structure modifications can
transform this drug into a selective norepinephrine re-
uptake inhibitor (SNRI) analogue?
A. quaternization of the side chain amino group
B. transformation of the side chain amino group into a primary amine
C. replacement of the side chain N.N-dimethylamino group with a hydroxyl group
D. demethylation of the side chain tertiary amino group to yield a secondary amino group
D. demethylation of the side chain tertiary amino group to yield a secondary amino group
Thalidomide is a potent immunomodulatory drug used to treat leprosy Thalidomide exist intwo
conformation structures with different pharmacological
and toxicological activatesteratogenicity is believed to becaused
on conformational structure (see image ).
Which of the following is the most appropriate term used tocall
the two conformations of the thalidomide?
A. Isomers
B. Epimers
C. Enatntimomers
D. diasteriomers
C. Enatntimomers
see image
28) A structure of the glibenclamide (glyburide)(see image)
Which of the following pharmacophore does Glibenclamide (glyburide) contain?
A. Benzenesulfate urea
B. Benzenesulfinyl urea
C. Benzenesulfhydryl urea
D. Benzenesulphonyl urea
D. Benzenesulphonyl urea
29- Aspirin is well-known antiplatelet aggregating agent (see image)
What is the role of the acetyle group in its antiplatelet activity?
A. it represents a good leaving group to form the active salicylic acid
B. it provides hydrogen binding with tyrosine moiety on COX binding
C. it provides covalent binding with serine moiety found on COX binding site
D. it provides hydrophobic binding with a tryptophan moiety on COX binding site
C. it provides covalent binding with serine moiety found on COX binding site
38)
Examine the drug in the figure (see image).
What is the effect of replacement of the methoxyl group (boxed) with a hydroxyl group?
A. Decrease in analgesic activity
B. Decrease in addition activity
C. Reduction in the antitussive activity
D. Lower affinity to morphine receptors
C. Reduction in the antitussive activity
N.B:-structure in pic is codeine (anti tussive) convert into morphine(analgesic)
40- The structure of erythromycin (see image)
Which of the following is the reason why erythromycin is sensitive to acidic pH?
A. The presence of lactone group in the ring
B. The presence of two basic sugars at position 3 and 5
C. The presence of 6 months methyl groups at alternate positions of the macrolide ring
D. Ketal fomation between hydroxyl group (6 and 12) and ketone at position 9
D. Ketal fomation between hydroxyl group (6 and 12) and ketone at position 9
35- Which of the following polymorphic enzyme isresponsible for the conversion of codeine to
morphine?
A. CYP2D6
B. CYP2C9
C. CCR5 corecptor
D. N-Acetyltransferase
A. CYP2D6
38- Structures of four antidepressant drugs (see image)
Which of the following antidepressant structure undergoes a photo- oxidation reaction uponexposure
to the light?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A. 1
39- The chemical structure of four non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs) (see image).
Which of the following NSAIDs has minimal possible gastric side effects?
A. (ibuprofen)
B. (celecoxib) selective cox-2
C. (indomethacin)
D. (diclofenac)
A. (ibuprofen)
10- Which of the following is the most common cause of drug instability?
A. oxidation
B. racemization
C. epimerization
D. decarboxylation
A. oxidation
30- Which of the following molecules contains double bond?
A. CH3
B. CNH
C. C2H2
D. C2H4
D. C2H4
50- Structure of ciprofloxacin (SEE IMAGE )
Which of the following is the benefit of the piperazine group at position?
A. Increases drug resistance to β-lactamase
A. improves the oral bioavailability of the drug
B. Increases lipophilicity and hence penetration of the bacterial cell wall
C. Improves the spectrum of antibacterial activity (especially Gram-
negative)
C. Improves the spectrum of antibacterial activity (especially Gram-
negative)
51- Which one of the following isthe effect to alkaline buffersthat have in commercial
formulations of aspirin?
A. they have one effect on the rate of absorption.
B. they increase the rate of its absorption by alkalinizing the pH of the stomach
C. they reduce the rate of absorption of aspirin by converting it to the less readily
absorbed lonic form
D. they Increase the rate of absorption by increasing the PH immediately around the
disintegrating aspirin particles and accelerating their dissolution
D. they Increase the rate of absorption by increasing the PH immediately around the
disintegrating aspirin particles and accelerating their dissolution
73-Examine the chemical structure of diclofenac (see image ب . ي ر ق ت(.
Which of the following structures best represents a major active metabolite of diclofenac?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
D.4
78- Click image to enlarge
The presented structure belongs to the proton pump inhibitor tenatoprazol (see image).
Which of the following metabolic reactions can occur at the pointed arrow on the structure?
A. sulfation
B. oxidation
C. demethylation
D. glucoronidation
B. oxidation
Click image to enlarge
Which of the following medications contains triazole moiety? (see image)
98- Click image to enlarge
Histamine (pKa=9.4) is endogenous chemical release when allergic reaction happened. As a
pharmacist you are responsible to understand the mechanism and the conformation of this chemical
in the blood (see image).
Which of the following is the least dominant tautomer of the histamine?at the
physiological pH?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
C. c
80- Click image to enlarge
D-Galactose and D-Mannose are monosaccharide sugar. They have the same number of carbons
and the same functional group, but they differ in their configurations. This reflects their
pharmacoceutical uses (see image)
Which of the following types of stereo-isomerization do these sugars represent?
A. isomers
B. epimers
C. anomers
D. diasteromers
B. epimers
8) - Ropivancain e is an important local anesthetic. The figure shows the chemical structures
of
D
ropivacaine and 4 other local anesthetics (see image). Which of the following is the bioisoster for
ropivacaine?
A. Etidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Mepivacaine
D. Levobupivacaine
D. Levobupivacaine
63- epimor of glucose?
A. Ribose
B. galactose
C. deoxyribose
B. galactose
60- Amphotericin undergo which reaction?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Alkylation
C. Reduction
D. Oxidation
A. Hydrolysis
66- two chemical configurations for the same drug, one is R and
the other is S what it is called ?
Enantiomer
74- Morphine to heroine?
A. Carboxylation
B. Esterification
A. Carboxylation
124- Morphine to heroine??
A- Carboxylation
B- esterification
B- esterification
135- type of bond between amino acids ?
A. amide bond
B. disulfide bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Van der vals bond
A. amide bond
145- Aspirin metabolism ?
A- Methylation
b- Hydroxylation
c- Conjugation
b- Hydroxylation
169- Bond between Carboxyl and amine ?
A. hydrogen bond
B. b- ionic bond
C. Vander wal
D. Peptide bond
D. Peptide bond
295-Structures of zidovudine antivirals, marked 4 area on structure and asked about
which part to remove that make the antiviral drug not effective ?
A. N3
B. CH3
C. C=O
D. OH
A. N3
Any Modification to Chemical Structure of AZT may affect its ability to mimic
thymidine and inhibit reverse transcriptase effectively so inhibit its antiviral activity
246-Banzimidazole and pyridine connected together with ?
disulphide bond
methylene
-ch2-
364- Which element is not involve in heterocyclic compounds ?
A. N
B. H
C. Se
D. Fe
D. Fe
367- which the least dominant Tautomerism of the histamine atthe
physiological ph ?
NH3
375- ephedrine phenylephrine additional of hydroxyl group what do to activity ?
A. increase alpha 1
B. decrease alpha 1
C. increase alpha 2
D. decrease alpha 2
A. increase alpha 1
82- Which of the following is the active metabolite of primidone?
A. phenytoin
B. dopamine
C. phenobarbital
D. methsuximide
C. phenobarbital
85- Which of the following is the therapeutic indication for methylphenidate?
A. eczema
B. insomnia
C. anorexia nervous
D. attention deficit disorder in children
D. attention deficit disorder in children
96- A 6-year-old boy is brought with complaint of uncontrollable spasm-like movements and
excessive eye blinking for four months. Chronic motor disorder was diagnosed.Which of the following is
the best management?
A. pregabalin
B. Haloperidol
C. Methadone
D. Chlorzoxazone
D. Chlorzoxazone
Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
A. Aspartate
B. Sertonin
C. Glutamate
D. Gama aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D. Gama aminobutyric acid (GABA)
44) 67-year-old man presents with complaints of tremors trouble waiding and masked face
Parkinson’s disease is suspected levodopa is prescribed along with a compound to lower requireddose
of levodopa and to achieve an effective brain dopamine concentration
which of the following is that most likely compound?
A. pergolide
B. selegiline
C. carbidopa
D. entacapone
C. carbidopa
64) Which ofthe following is a potentialside effect of using chlorpromazine in an elderly person?
A. dyskinesia
B. constipation
C. urinary retention
D. tardive dyskinesia
D. tardive dyskinesia
40) 14 years-old man expressed withdrawalsymptoms from using benzodiazepine drug which
included Irritability and aggression
which of the following types of benzodiazepines is more likely associated with these
symptoms?
A) long-acting benzodiazepines
B) ultra-short acting benzodiazepines
C) benzodiazepines WITH ACTIVE METABOLITES
B) ultra-short acting benzodiazepines
Short-acting benzodiazepines have stronger withdrawal effects and can be more
addictive than long-acting ones.
