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Sgt Test 2023 > Order 500's > Flashcards

Order 500's Flashcards

1
Q

From Order 501: All JSO Members shall know and abide by

A

All applicable local, state federal and international laws, constitutional rights of citizens, all applicable restraints upon the use of governmental power, and the rules of conduct set forth in the city of Jacksonville Civil Service and Personnel Rules and Regulations, and All JSO written directives applicable to their assignments.

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2
Q

From Order 501: Members are required to notify the Sheriff if they are arrested or cited for a criminal violation in any jurisdiction. How long after the arrest or citation do they have to notify their commanding officer?

A

24 Hours

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3
Q

From Order 501: True or False. Members of JSO shall be truthful during all criminal administrative, and civil investigations.

A

True

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4
Q

From Order 501: Agency Telephones shall be answered promptly and courteously. How shall the member answer the telephone?

A

Division, section or unit and his rank/title and name.
Example (Gang Unit, Detective Daigle)

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5
Q

From Order 501: Members who violate provisions of the secondary employment are subject to sanctions based on the number of violations accrued. For subsequent violations after four violations who determines the duration of the loss of secondary employment.

A

Assistant Chief of Special Events.

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6
Q

From Order 501: Are members allowed to testify as a character witness in criminal proceedings wearing JSO insignia or JSO authorized uniforms?

A

No, unless approved by the undersheriff.

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7
Q

From Order 501: Members who are served with an injunction for protection shall immediately notify their commanding officer. What shall the commanding officer do upon receiving the notification?

A

Notify the Commanding Officer of Internal Affairs and provide a copy of the injunction.

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8
Q

From Order 501: Members who have been served with a civil process shall immediately notify their commanding officer and provide a copy. What shall the commanding officer do upon receiving the notification

A

Immediately deliver a copy to the office of the General Counsel (OGC) and notify the Undersheriff via COC.

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9
Q

From Order 501: Can a member solicit or knowingly accept any campaign contributions in a building owned by the COJ

A

No

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10
Q

From Oder 501: Who is the Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office designated Department Ethics Officer and liaison to the COJ Office of Ethics, Compliance, and Oversight

A

The Chief of Professional Standards

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11
Q

From Order 501: Who can give approval for members to accepts gifts worth more than 100 dollars on behalf of the agency? (e.g. an appreciation meal donated to a patrol zone, a police service dog ballistic vest to the Canine Unit)

A

The Chief of Professional Standards

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12
Q

From Order 501: _______ is a positive and constructive method of improving productivity and effectiveness of an employee and is often sufficient to avoid the need for disciplinary action in the future

A

Training

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13
Q

From Order 501: _______ is an oral communication between a supervisor and subordinate designed to correct a member’s performance or behavior.

A

Informal Counseling

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14
Q

From Order 501: _______ is a written communication between supervisor and subordinate designed to correct a member’s performance or behavior

A

Formal Counseling

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15
Q

From Order 501: Known as step 1, a formal reprimand that serves as the first disciplinary step of the JSO Progressive Disciplinary System and is used to address minor conduct

A

Written Reprimand Level one

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16
Q

From Order 501: Known as step 2, a formal reprimand that serves as a more serious official censure of minor conduct. Must be approved by the member’s department director and issued by internal

A

Written Reprimande Level 2

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17
Q

From Order 501: The first step used to address serious misconduct (or repeated minor conduct) that includes a formal reprimand and some form of forfeited compensation

A

Written Reprimand Level 2 with loss of pay

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18
Q

From Order 501: Known as Step 4. The final step of JSO’s progressive Disciplinary System and is used to address significant misconduct

A

Termination

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19
Q

From Order 502: The formal line of authority, communication, and responsibility

A

Chain of Command (COC)

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20
Q

From Order 502: A ranked member who has at least one supervisor directly reporting to him and/or has been given responsibility for the daily operations of one or more units.

A

Commanding Officer

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21
Q

From Order 502: A system of succession established to ensure that leadership is available when the Sheriff is incapacitated, off-duty, out of town, or otherwise unable to act.

A

Order of Precedence

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22
Q

From Order 502: The number of individuals directly reporting to a supervisor

A

Span of Control

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23
Q

From Order 502: A member who has been given supervisory responsibility over members of a lower rank or classification. Designation maybe permanent (Sergeant) or maybe temporary (DIC/PIC).

A

Supervisor

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24
Q

From Order 502: The organizational principle used by JSO that provides that an individual reports to only one direct supervisor

A

Unity of Command

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25
Q

From Order 502: To achieve effective direction, coordination and control, supervisors shall have no more than ___ direct reports when feasible

A

12

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26
Q

From Order 503: reviews, revises and updates all written directives and forms to ensure they are clear, concise, necessary, consistent, in compliance with all applicable accreditation standards and supportive of the goals, objectives, and operational constraints of JSO.

A

Directive Review Committee
Bonus: Meets Bi-Weekly

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27
Q

From Order 503: reviews, recommended administrative charges and disciplinary actions for officers that are facing suspension, demotion, or termination

A

Disciplinary Hearing Board

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28
Q

From Order 503: evaluates available workspace needs, prioritizes requests for space modification or remodeling and monitors all lease agreements for spaces and facilities owned or leased by JSO

A

Facilities Planning Committee

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29
Q

From Order 503: Establishes methods for preserving and displaying the history of JSO

A

Historical Preservation Board

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30
Q

From Order 503: Selects the recipients of JSO meritorious awards after reviewing nominations from various sources

A

Meritorious Review Board and Peer Achievement Boards

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31
Q

From Order 503: Administrative inquiries into Response to Resistance (RTR) incidents to ensure adherence to JSO policy and training

A

Response to Resistance Review Board

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32
Q

From Order 503: Conducts administrative inquiries into JSO vehicle crashes and conducts formal policy and training reviews for safety related matters

A

Safety Review Board

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33
Q

From Order 503: Evaluates existing training programs and reviews recommendations for new training programs for all members of JSO

A

Training Committee

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34
Q

From Order 503: Establishes and evaluates policies that govern the types, configurations, care control, and maintenance of uniforms, insignia, equipment, personal apparel, accessories and foot wear worn by individuals representing JSO

A

Uniform Committee

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35
Q

From Order 504: A complete complex language that employs signs made with hands and other movements including facial expressions and postures of the body

A

American Sign Language (ASL)

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36
Q

From Order 504: A Federal Civil rights law providing civil rights protections to individuals with disabilities

A

Americans with Disabilities Acts (ADA)

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37
Q

From Order 504: An interpreter certified by National or Florida Registry of Interpreters for the Deaf

A

Certified Interpreter

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38
Q

From Order 504: sign language that forms in the American deaf community as a result of interactions between people who are deaf and those who can hear

A

Contact Language

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39
Q

From Order 504: A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of an individual in accordance with the ADA

A

Disability

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40
Q

From Order 504: Refers to the unexpected, unintentional or unavoidable release, transfer provision of access to or divulging of protected health information that results from an allowable disclosure or use of protected health information.

A

Incidental Exposure

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41
Q

From Order 504: Refers to the designated individuals in the DOC and in Human Resources who will ensure compliance with all ADA requirements

A

JSO ADA coordinator

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42
Q

From Order 504: Activities which may include: walking, speaking, breathing, performing, manual tasks, seeing, hearing, learning, caring for oneself and working

A

Major Life Activities

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43
Q

From Order 504: A communication device that enables the deaf, the hard of hearing and the hearing to interact instantly with each other face to face and provide an immediate, clear, and concise conversation

A

Personal Communications

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44
Q

From Order 504: Florida State Statues which provides that individuals who are hard of hearing, blind, or otherwise disabled are entitled to use service animals to accompany them in places open to the public

A

413.08

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45
Q

From Order 504: Refers to individually identifiable inmate health information that is maintained in any form

A

Protected Health Information

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46
Q

From Order 504: Changes in policies, practices, and procedures, the use of auxillary aids, and services and the removal of architectural barriers when necessary to provide individuals with disabilities an equal opportunity to participate in or benefit from the programs, services, or activities that are offered

A

Reasonable Accomodation

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47
Q

From Order 504: Any Animal that is trained to perform tasks for an individual with a disability in accordance with the ADA

A

Service Animal

The DOC will accommodate service dogs or miniature horses for incarcerated individuals who meet ADA requirements. 

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48
Q

From Order 510: Bargaining Units representing various employees of the JSO include:

A

The Fraternal Order of Police, Jacksonville Supervisors Association (JSA), Communications Workers of America (CWA), American Federation of State, County and Municipal Employees (AFSCME)

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49
Q

From Order 510: If a member’s request to retire or resign via Intradepartmental Correspondence includes a request to retain any item who is a copy sent to?

A

Director of Police Services

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50
Q

From Order 511: An action requiring significant difficulty or expense an action that is unduly, costly, extensive, substantial or disruptive or that will fundamentally alter the nature of the business

A

Undue Hardship

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51
Q

From Order 511: Assignments for temporary medical, physical or psychological impairments

A

Temporary Limited Duty

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52
Q

From Order 513: If cancelling a wellness appointment how many business days before must you give notification to the Safety Officer and the COJ medical vendor

A

10 or 10 business days

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53
Q

Order 510 Human Resources: The human resources division will ensure the information systems management section (ISM) is notified of employees that are exiting from service in order to deactivate their computer access within

A

Five business days 

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54
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave: Sworn officers, who fail the annual PAT will be given a grace period of _____, during which time he may retake the test. 

A

30 Calendar Days

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55
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Wellness

Officers receiving the modified examination shall have up to _____ to complete the examination.

Officers receiving the full examination shall have up to ______ to complete the examination.

A

Two hours

Five hours

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56
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave: Once human resources approves a psychological or medical fitness for duty examination, the _______ shall be notified. All medical or psychological fitness for duty examinations will include a D frog, unless an exception is approved by the _________.

A

undersheriff.

All employees required to undergo a FFD examination will also be required to submit to a drug test.

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57
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave: Work hours for each employee in EIS must include a minimum of a ______ unpaid meal break unless the employees CBA requires a paid meal break or the employee is assigned to a position that requires an immediate dispatched response.

A

30 Minute

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58
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave: Officers working in an overtime capacity outside of their division, for comp time overtime, must obtain approval from their _____ prior to working the overtime assignment.

A

Division Chief

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59
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Any exception to the eight hour rest rule, must be made by a ______

A

Division Chief

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60
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Employees are prohibited from working overtime while on FMLA or Paid Parental Leave. Employees may work overtime after ________ following FMLA or PPL.

A

two regular days off or one working day

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61
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

If an overlap would occur officers show use standard overtime (SCHOT) instead of the minimum overtime code (CRTOT, CBOT, call back OT).

A

For example, an officer working in overtime assignment with a court disposition during the same overtime hours would use scheduled overtime in a separate overtime request instead of CTROT for the court overtime.

So use Standard OT, instead of CBOT, if you are starting another OT submission before your 2.5 hours is up.

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62
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Who shall review quarterly overtime reports?

A

Division chiefs

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63
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

EIS allows overtime submissions up to _____ prior to the requested end time to accommodate the timely submissions, and approvals, of overtime request.

A

30 mins

64
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Employees in a limited-duty status shall not work overtime assignments unless approval is obtained from both a __________

A

division chief and the Chief of Human Resources.

65
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Probationary personnel who wish to take leave for more than one work cycle must obtain permission from their respective

A

assistant chief.

66
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Probationary employees who wish to take any leave during their last 30 calendar days on probation must receive permission from their respective

A

division chief.

67
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

SL requests will be initiated by the supervisor each day via the EIS Leave screen unless the illness is extended past 10 days, at which time the leave can be inputted in

A

work-cycle increments.

Patterns of possible sick leave abuse include, but are not limited to; connecting sick leave with regular days off, personal leave, holidays, or the same days off as a relative or associate; and/or using sick leave when other types of leave have previously been denied;

68
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Unless prior approval was obtained by the ________, employees who do not have sufficient leave days to cover their absences shall have their absences considered as AWOL subjecting the employee to counseling and/or discipline up to separation.

A

department director

69
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

FMLA requires covered employers to provide up to ________of job protected leave.

A

480 hours or 12 weeks

70
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Under the extra MLT benefit, service member employees may be eligible to receive up to ________ of regular pay (per fiscal year) while absent from their JSO responsibilities due to military training and/or service

A

240 hours

Employees cannot earn any type of premium pay (holiday, call-back, on-call stand-by, etc.) if they received military leave on the same work day.

71
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

If members are activated for less than 45 calendar days, they may keep all issued equipment, however, assigned vehicles and gas cards must be returned to the motor pool if the order exceeds _____ calendar days.

A

30

If members are activated for 45 days or more, they must return equipment as instructed on Form P-1304 (Military Checklist).

72
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

The Chief of Human Resources finds that the request is for an extraordinary and compelling reason, it will be routed to the employee’s director for approval.

A

Supervisors are not authorized to approve LWOP or enter LWOP status on a time sheet until this approval has been given.

73
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

If the LWOP request is still in the process of being approved or has been denied (and the employee’s absence is not covered by the provisions outlined by FMLA), the employee’s status must be shown as _____

A

AWOL.

74
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

When an employee is involved in a critical incident, ADL with pay may be granted by an

A

Assistant Chief or higher authority.

The appropriate Director will approve the duration of the ADL.

75
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Any officer whose actions result in a death or serious bodily harm shall be removed from the line duty assignment. The Officer shall be placed on ADL by the authority of the

A

Assistant Chief of Major Case, or higher authority.

76
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

If an employee is on ADL for disciplinary reasons, he shall be at his place of residence during his normal hours of employment.

A

The duration of the ADL granted to an employee will be determined by the Sheriff or his designee.

77
Q

Order 513 Compensation and Leave:

Paid Parental Leave:

A

Paid parental leave can be used during the six week time frame and may be used on an intermittent basis. Any unused parental leave will be forfeited at the end of the six week time frame.

On paid holidays you will receive holiday pay.

PPL will run concurrently/counted on the FMLA 12 week/480 hours.

78
Q

Order 515 Drug Policy:

Employees subjected to the passive inhalation of a drug (e.g. marijuana), while on or off-duty, shall submit a Form P-0004 (intradepartmental correspondence) or email an on-duty supervisor within

A

24 hours of the exposure.

79
Q

Order 515 Drug Policy:

Random Drug Testing Procedure -

The employee must be notified of their selection immediately upon reporting to work and must report for testing no more than ____ after notification.

A

two hours.

80
Q

Order 516 Employee Assistance Program:

Employees may utilize EAP services on-duty up to

A

six hours during a quarter (not to exceed 12 hours total per year)

81
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

Workload assessments shall be completed once every -____ for each division or section in order to prevent overstaffing or understaffing by ensuring the personnel strength of an organizational component is consistent with the workload.

A

4 years

82
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

_______ shall make the final determination regarding any potential conflicts of interest regarding the assignments of family members.

A

The Undersheriff

83
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

Tuition reimbursement -

A separate application shall be submitted for each proposed course and no applications shall be submitted for courses more than ______ prior to the start of the course.

A

30 days

84
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

No later than ______ after the end of the course, the member must submit a Certificate of Completion with all required documentation to the JSO Human Resources Division.

A

four weeks. If not submitted by 4 weeks, the request for reimbursement will be denied.

Employees must agree to repay al tuition reimbursement if the member voluntarily leaves COJ employment within ONE YEAR of completing the course.

85
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

Members who transfer to another assignment for ________ cycle must have their primary assignment changed in EIS to reflect the member’s new chain of command.

A

more than one work

86
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

Use of Promotional Eligibility Lists -

The life of an eligibility list is as follows, unless extended or declared depleted by the Director of COJ Employee Services:

A

(1) External – One year;
(2) Internal Priority 1 – Two years; and
(3) Internal Priority 2 – 90 days.

87
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

In accordance with COJ Civil Service and Personnel Rules and Regulations, promotional examinees shall be permitted to review examination items and responses during the following time periods:

A

(1) For examinations with 50 or fewer examinees, the five workdays immediately following the administration of the examination; and

(2) For examinations with more than 50 examinees, the 10 workdays immediately following the administration of the examination.

88
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

The rating period for each Annual Performance Evaluation is the JSO fiscal year (October 1st through September 30th of the following year).

A

October 1st – All supervisors shall create an Annual Performance Evaluation for each member assigned to them as of October 1st.

October 31st – Each division chief shall ensure all members under his command have had an Annual Performance Evaluation completed for the previous rating period.

89
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

If a member’s overall performance during his probationary period is below satisfactory, the probationary period may be extended by up to three months upon approval from the ______.

The probationary period may then be extended an additional three months upon approval from the ____

A

Sheriff or his designee

COJ Human Resources Division.

90
Q

Order 517 Personnel Development and Movement:

Probationary Period Discussions -

Police Officers - Monthly

A

newly promoted members with a 12-month promotional probationary period, direct supervisors are required to complete a written evaluation every 3 months (quarterly, mid-year, quaterly, end-of-year).

91
Q

Order 518 Employee Information and Recall:

Any member changing their name or marital status is required to report to the Human Resources Division in person within ______ after the change with a copy of the new Social Security card (or the application receipt for a new Social Security card) and to complete a new Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) Form I-9 (Employment Eligibility Verification).

A

30 calendar days

92
Q

Order 518 Employee Information and Recall:

Employees shall update any change of address or contact telephone number on the EIS within _______ of their return to duty after the change.

A

24 hours

93
Q

Order 518 Employee Information and Recall:

Employees with assigned vehicles shall update any change of address on Form P-1785A (Affidavit of Assigned Vehicle Location) within _______ of returning to work after the change.

A

one work cycle

Employees with assigned vehicles shall forward an updated Form P-0143E (Contract for the Assigned Vehicle Program) to the Fleet Coordinator’s Office, within one work cycle of returning to work after the change.

94
Q

Order 518 Employee Information and Recall:

The Communications Center shall not be called for employee telephone numbers, except between midnight and 0600 hours in emergency situations. ________ shall handle all other inquiries and only for emergency situations, or when EIS is unavailable.

A

The Supervisor of Tele-Serv Unit

95
Q

Order 519 Family and Medical Leave Act:

FMLA may provide up to a total of ______ of unpaid leave.

A

12 work weeks or 480 work hours of unpaid leave.

96
Q

Order 519 Family and Medical Leave Act:

All employees with more than ________ of available leave shall be placed on FMLA paid leave until their available leave balance reaches 80 hours.

A

80 hours. then they can choose paid or unpaid leave

97
Q

Order 519 Family and Medical Leave Act:

Leave for Domestic Violence Related Matters

  1. Florida law guarantees eligible employees time off up to ________ in a 12-month period to take care of issues such as:

a. To seek an injunction for protection against domestic violence (including repeat violence, dating violence, or sexual violence)

A

three working days

98
Q

Order 521 Injury and Exposure:

Supervisors of employees who are injured in the line of duty (including while supervising an employee during secondary employment) are required within ______ of the incident to complete an electronic Workers’ Compensation claim

A

24 hours.

Even if no medical treatment is required.

99
Q

Order 521 Injury and Exposure:

The employee must seek follow-up treatment with the same doctor and is allowed to switch doctors ____ for the life of the claim.

A

One time.

100
Q

Order 521 Injury and Exposure:

Temporary Medical Limited Duty shall be approved by:

A

Assistant Chief
Chief of Patrol Support
Employee’s Chief

the Director has final approval of the limited duty and place of assignment

101
Q

Order 521 Injury and Exposure:

On an employee’s regular workday during their regular work hours, they are allowed a maximum of _________ for Workers’ Compensation appointments, with the exception of emergency room visits, unless there is some reasonable circumstance approved by Chief of Human Resources

A

two and a half hours

102
Q

Order 521 Injury and Exposure:

If the employee has not returned to duty after ________, the JSO Human Resources Division shall transfer the employee to an IOD roll call via EIS.

A

30 calendar days

103
Q

Order 531 Communicable Disease Prevention and Protection:

In the event of a death investigation where an employee(s) was possibly exposed to a communicable disease by blood or bodily fluid, the following procedures shall be followed:

A

The responding Homicide detective shall notify the Medical Examiner’s Office of the possible exposure and request the appropriate blood sample be taken for testing at the Duval County Health Department (DCHD);

The employee’s supervisor (or an on-duty supervisor if the employee is off-duty) must fill out an electronic Exposure Incident Report Form in accordance with Order 521 (Injury and Exposure). A copy of the electronic Exposure Incident Report Form shall be given to the Homicide detective at the incident scene.

Should the employee need treatment, a Notice of Injury (IOD) Report must also be completed by the supervisor (or an on-duty supervisor if the employee is off-duty).

The homicide detective will give the Notice of Injury Report and Exposure to the Medical Examiner.

104
Q

Order 531 Communicable Disease Prevention and Protection:

The ______ is a designated employee who reports to the Chief of Human Resources to oversee safety programs targeted by the OSHA and implemented within JSO.

A

JSO Safety Officer

The overall Respiratory Protection Program shall be administered by the JSO Safety Officer through JSO’s Wellness Program. Wellness shall annually test respirator wearers.

105
Q

Order 531 Communicable Disease Prevention and Protection:

Supervisor’s shall ensure individually assigned respiratory protection devices are:

A

(a) Stored in the issued case, cleaned, and maintained in good operating condition in accordance with training; and
(b) Inspected at least quarterly.

Inform the JSO Safety Officer of all employees who are either temporarily or permanently unable to wear respiratory protective equipment due to medical reasons.

106
Q

Order 531 Communicable Disease Prevention and Protection:

Respiratory protective devices are classified into two main types:

A

air-purifying and atmosphere-supplying.

107
Q

Order 531 Communicable Disease Prevention and Protection:

_______ are designed to remove contaminate in the form of particles, gases, and vapors, or combination of these.

A

Air purifying respirators

They do not supply oxygen and cannot be worn in an oxygen deficient atmosphere;

(2) They are designed for protection against specific gases, vapors, and particulate and can only be used for protection in accordance with the particular filtration element used; and

(3) They can only be used against contaminants that have good warning properties (i.e., smell, taste, irritation).

108
Q

Order 531 Communicable Disease Prevention and Protection:

________ respirators (i.e., SCBA) are devices which provide an air source independent of the surrounding atmosphere.

A

Atmosphere supplying

109
Q

Order 531 Communicable Disease Prevention and Protection:

Supervisors shall ensure respirators are inspected _______.

A

quarterly.

When an officer cannot receive a proper fit that prevents the officer from wearing a respirator, the officer shall notify his watch commander

110
Q

Order 532 Hazardous Materials Incident:

Officers should remain upwind and never approach the immediate proximity of an HMI until the material is positively identified. This includes any rescue attempt of injured persons at the scene. Depending upon the size and type of spill or incident, an initial safe distance range is between ______

A

50 and 1200 feet.

111
Q

Order 532 Hazardous Materials Incident:

At the request of a Division inspector, the Sheriff is authorized to stop and detain for up to _______ a motor vehicle and attached mobile containment vessel that is contrary to the laws of the United States (U.S.) or the State, the rules of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) or State Department of Environmental Regulation or F.S.S. 364.111.

A

72 hours

The detainment shall be for the purpose of sampling the contents of the vehicle for containment vessel and analyzing the sample for PCB.

112
Q

Order 532 Hazardous Materials Incident:

The Bio-Environmental Services Officer is authorized to impound and, where possible, lock or seal a stationary containment vessel reasonably suspected of containing PCB contrary to the laws of the U.S. or the State, the rules of the U.S. EPA or State Department of Environmental Regulation or F.S.S. 364.111. The impoundment shall be for a period of up to _____ for the purpose of sampling the contents of the containment vessel and analyzing the sample for PCB.

A

72 hours

113
Q

Order 532 Hazardous Materials Incident:

The primary purpose of the gas mask issued by the JSO is to protect an officer from tear gas [Chloroacetophenone (CN gas) and Orthochlorobenzalmal (CS gas)] used in civil disturbances.

A

The gas mask offers no protection against hazardous materials. Use of this mask in atmospheres created by an HMI can cause serious injury or death.

114
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Read Definitions

A
115
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Consistent with training, officers shall not intentionally strike anyone with an intermediate weapon on the ________ unless the circumstance justifies the use of deadly force.

A

head, neck, or clavicle

When an officer uses an intermediate weapon (or ever writes an RTR) use the disposition code “RTR” in the primary dispo block and submit it to the responding supervisor.

116
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Chemical Weapons - Only under extreme conditions should a handheld aerosol chemical munition be used at less than _______ for the MK-3 and ______ for the MK-9.

A

3 feet for the MK-3
and

6 feet for the MK-9.

When an officer uses a chemical weapon on a person or animal and RTR should be completed.

the circumstances surrounding the use of a chemical agent, including the time of exposure, and if the contaminated body areas have been flushed with water, shall be included in the narrative of the Arrest & Booking Report and the RTR Report.

117
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

The employment and the use of specialty impact weapons are aggressive and decisive actions, which may assist in achieving the goal of protection of life and property and/or restoring order. They may be considered whenever the use of less-lethal options would assist in enabling an arrest, restoring order, and/or reducing the risk of more serious injury.

Circumstances justifying the use of specialty impact weapons include, but are not limited to:

A

a. Restoration or maintenance of order during jail or civil disturbance;
b. Safely overcoming violent prisoners;
c. Subduing vicious animals; and
d. Situations wherein the authorizing person believes deadly force would be otherwise justified in the absence of a less-lethal option (e.g., in the face of imminent death or grievous bodily harm to self or others).

Officers deploying specialty weapons shall not intentionally target a subject’s head or neck, unless the circumstances justify the use of deadly force.

118
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Prior to an officer’s decision to deploy the CEW; the following conditions must be met:

A

a. The officer must have legal authority to take the person into custody or the person is already lawfully confined in a DOC facility; and

b. The person is, at a minimum, exhibiting active physical resistance; or

c. The subject is an immediate threat to the officer or others; or

d. The person is preparing or attempting to flee in order to resist/avoid being taken into or remaining in lawful custody.

e. Also, based on the totality of circumstances, the CEW may be utilized by SWAT Unit members as directed by their supervisor and/or part of an apprehension plan.

119
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

CEW Distance

(1) The X26P CEW in Probe Deployment mode has a normal effective range of ______________; however, optimal range is seven to 10 feet from the tip of the CEW cartridge.

(2) The Taser 7 CEW in probe deployment mode has an effective range of up to _________ (close-quarter battle [CQB]) and _________ (stand-off); however, optimal ranges are 4 to 10 feet and 10 to 20 feet respectively from the tip of the CEW.

A

X26P: 19 feet with a 21-foot cartridge and 21 feet with a 25-foot cartridge

Taser 7: 22 feet with the 12-degree cartridge and 24 feet with the 3.5-degree cartridge

120
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

If after three attempted applications of the CEW, the officer does not gain the needed compliance, the officer should consider the following:

A

a. Whether the CEW is functioning properly;

b. Whether the suspect/inmate/prisoner is exhibiting behaviors associated with an extreme medical condition; and

c. Whether other responses would be appropriate.

121
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Elevated CEW Application Risk Factors -

Presence of flammable liquids/fumes or explosive environments.

Elevated Positions

Person Operating Moving Vehicle or Machinery

Person Running (Fleeing)

Pregnant Female

Swimming Pool or Other Body of Water

Frail or Infirm Individual

CEW Deployment under heightened scrutiny:

Children

Restrained Subjects

Senior Citizens

A

Pregnant Female: As an example, officers encounter an unstable, violent, and obviously pregnant female who appears to be under the influence of illegal drugs. This female is threatening to plunge a large butcher knife into her abdomen (and fetus). The officers facing this imminent threat may reasonably believe the use of the CEW on this person may be a reasonable choice to attempt to save the lives of the fetus and the mother.

122
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Officers shall address the following concerns when transporting a suspect/inmate who has been subjected to a CEW deployment:

A

(1) Avoid Face Down Transport – Officers should avoid transporting any suspect/inmate who has been controlled using a CEW face down; and

(2) Avoid Transporting on Probes – If the probes are still in the suspect, avoid transporting the suspect in a position that would foreseeably further embed the probes in the suspect.

Medical personnel shall remove probes If probes are in sensitive areas: Face, neck, groin, female’s breast, and tops of hands and feet

123
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

If the unintentional deployment occurred during an interaction with a citizen or if the unintentional deployment resulted in someone being struck by the CEW probes, the supervisor shall:

A

(a) Ensure the deploying officer follows the same checkback and reporting procedures used for an intentional discharge; and
(b) Handles all policy violations and training issues appropriately.

(2) For all other unintentional deployments outside of training, the officer’s supervisor shall ensure the discharge is documented on a Form P-0004 (Intradepartmental Correspondence).
(3) An unintentional discharge of a CEW that occurs during approved training shall be handled by training personnel

124
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

The Cold Case Unit is responsible for conducting a criminal investigation when any member, acting in his official JSO capacity:

A

a. Intentionally discharges a firearm at a person;

b. Unintentionally discharges a firearm that results in a person being shot;

c. Takes any action against another person that results in the death or life-threatening injury of that person;

d. Is involved in any in-custody death; or

e. Is killed, shot, or the victim of a life-threatening injury inflicted by criminal means (applies to JSO canines as well).

125
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Officer-Involved Shootings, Deadly Force Incidents, and In-custody Deaths

The Chief of Investigations or his designee shall:

A

Coordinate with the PIO for media brief.

In accordance with Order 513 (Compensation and Leave), ensure the members who used deadly force are placed on administrative leave pending a review by the Sheriff or his designee regarding their ability to safely and effectively return to their duty assignments.

126
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Officer-Involved Shootings, Deadly Force Incidents, and In-custody Deaths

All responding personnel (excluding any officer who used deadly force) shall, within no more than ______ of the incident, complete a major case addendum to document their involvement.

A

24 hours

127
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Unintentional Firearm Discharges

  1. An unintentional discharge of a firearm that results in a person being shot shall be investigated as an officer-involved shooting, as outlined in this order. [CALEA 4.2.1]
  2. An unintentional discharge of a firearm that occurs during approved training at the JSO Gun Range shall be handled by ________
  3. All other unintentional discharges of firearms shall be investigated by the ______. The Supervisor of Professional Oversight Unit shall respond to the scene to conduct the administrative investigation.
A

JSO Gun Range personnel.

Professional Oversight Unit.

128
Q

Order 551 Response to Resistance:

Reporting Requirements for RTR Incidents -

When a firearm is discharged, all witness statements shall be included in the RTR Report. The RTR Report for a firearm discharge shall be completed:

A

(1) For officer-involved shootings, by the Professional Oversight Unit and Homicide Unit, after the criminal case has been completed;

(2) For unintentional discharges outside of approved training at the JSO Gun Range, by the Professional Oversight Unit; and

(3) For animal shootings, by the investigating commanding officer, within 30 days of the incident.

129
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

_______ officers may be issued a 36” straight Monadnock baton for use only in riot or crowd control.

A

Mobile Field Force Unit

regular police officers carry 22” or 26” expandable batons

130
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

After receiving the appropriate training, patrol and Department of Corrections (DOC) supervisors (i.e., sergeants and lieutenants) are, additionally, authorized to carry the _______. Supervisors are authorized to use this chemical munition, in accordance with their training, to control civil unrest (i.e., large crowds, etc.).

A

Defense Technology MK-9

131
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

While in uniform or Battle Dress Uniform (BDU), authorized agency members below the rank of lieutenant shall carry the authorized ______ on their duty belt.

A

hand-held chemical munition.

132
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

Any aerosol munition or gas weapon found to be unsafe, malfunctioning, or expired (_____ after the manufacture date printed on the label) shall be removed from service and taken to the Supply Unit to be repaired or replaced.

A

five years

133
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

CEW: Conducted Energy Weapon

X26P CEW weapon data shall be downloaded on each CEW ______.

Taser 7 CEW weapon data shall be downloaded every ______, or sooner when required by the battery indicator.

A

X26P - quarterly. X26P CEW downloads shall be part of the supervisors’ quarterly inspections of their personnel and shall be documented on Form P-0721e (Vehicle & Equipment Line Inspection).

Taser 7 - 45 days. Taser 7 CEW downloads, although not the direct responsibility of supervisors to perform, shall be verified and documented quarterly.

134
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

Personnel equipped with a CEW shall ensure proper operation by testing the CEW at the

A

beginning of each shift (including secondary employment) or at least once every five days during days off

135
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

“Cruiser Ready” is the required condition of storage of JSO shoulder weapons in vehicles. The safety shall be on. The bolt/actions shall be forward and locked in position with the chamber empty. Shotgun magazine tubes shall be loaded with a _____. Rifle magazines shall be inserted into the magazine wells and locked in place.

A

minimum of four shells

136
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

The official JSO issued rifle is the AR-15, 5.56 mm caliber, with a 16” barrel, adjustable stock, and a tactical sling.

A

A minimum of 32 hours of rifle training is required before rifles are issued and utilized on-duty by an employee.

137
Q

Order 552 Weapons:

If a weapon is removed from the vehicle due to unlawful means while an officer is on-duty, or operating in an off-duty capacity as mentioned above, the officer shall notify their chain of command and ensure all necessary reports are written. These cases shall be evaluated by the member’s ______ to determine if officer negligence was a contributing factor for the loss.

A

director

If officer negligence is deemed a contributing factor and the officer may be subject to disciplinary action, the director shall forward all the incident information to the Internal Affairs Unit for review.

138
Q

Order 553 Physical Restraints:

Physical Restraints

  1. Authorized restraints issued by the JSO consist of:
A

a. Double locking handcuffs;
b. The “hobble restraint” device;
c. Plastic handcuffs; and
d. Disposable spit masks.

139
Q

Order 553 Physical Restraints:

The current handcuffing technique (speedcuffing, both standing and kneeling) taught by the Training Academy is designed for the safety of both the officer and the subject. When the situation allows, this technique shall be the appropriate technique utilized.

______ are used for low risk, compliant subjects.

______ are used for unknown risk situations or when space is limited.

_______ are used for high risk and/or non-compliant subjects.

A

Standing techniques

Kneeling techniques

Prone handcuffing techniques

140
Q

Order 553 Physical Restraints:

Upon application of this method (TAR), the subject shall be:

A

Supervisor shall be notified

(a) Positioned chest-up or on their side, whenever possible, to alleviate the possibility of injury to the subject; and

(b) Taken immediately to the point of release (PDF or hospital). Upon arrival at the PDF, the transporting officer shall cause the facility nurse on duty to be notified of the subject’s violent behavior, and an evaluation will be requested.

141
Q

Order 554 Vehicle Pursuits:

___________ - A vehicle with a center of gravity that is higher than most vehicles due to factors such as the vehicle being abnormally tall, having an enhanced suspension system, or having a substantial roof load.

A

High Center-of-Gravity Vehicle

142
Q

Order 554 Vehicle Pursuits:

An officer operating an authorized emergency vehicle may initiate a vehicle pursuit only if the risk of engaging in a vehicle pursuit is less than the risk posed to the community by not stopping the subject vehicle. In addition, an officer must have the reasonable belief that:

A

a. The driver or an occupant of the subject vehicle has committed a forcible felony as defined in this order; or

b. PRIOR to law enforcement following or attempting to stop the subject vehicle, the extremely dangerous actions of the driver or an occupant of the subject vehicle pose an imminent threat of death and/or serious bodily injury to the community if the subject vehicle is not stopped. Reckless driving and/or the commission of multiple traffic infractions do not constitute an imminent threat of death and/or serious bodily injury to the community.

143
Q

Order 554 Vehicle Pursuits:

Unless given authorization by the monitoring watch commander, officers operating any of the following vehicles shall relinquish the positions of primary pursuit vehicle and secondary pursuit vehicle to a marked JSO sedan or SUV:

A
  1. Motorcycle;
  2. Unmarked vehicle;
  3. Van; or
  4. Vehicle with a non-JSO passenger.
144
Q

Order 554 Vehicle Pursuits:

When the Aviation Unit joins a vehicle pursuit, the Aviation Unit shall:

A
  1. Assist keeping the supervisors updated on the conditions and location of the pursuit, if feasible; and
  2. Inform the monitoring watch commander of any pursuit safety concerns and violations of policy.
145
Q

Order 554 Vehicle Pursuits:

Precision Immobilization Technique (PIT)

Unless the use of deadly force is justified, as outlined in Order 551 (Response to Resistance), the PIT tactic shall not be used on a(an):

A

(1) All-terrain vehicle;
(2) High center-of-gravity vehicle;
(3) Motorcycle or motor scooter;
(4) Open-top vehicle; or
(5) Vehicle travelling in excess of 55 mph.

Three (3) police vehicles should be present to prpoerly complete the PIT tactic.

146
Q

Order 554 Vehicle Pursuits:

Unless the use of deadly force is justified, as outlined in Order 551 (Response to Resistance), a tire deflation device shall not be used on a(an):

A

(1) All-terrain vehicle;
(2) Motorcycle or motor scooter; or
(3) Three-wheeled vehicle.

147
Q

Order 554 Vehicle Pursuits:

JSO has been given advance permission to continue a vehicle pursuit into the jurisdictions of

A

Naval Air Station (NAS) Jacksonville and Naval Station Mayport.

148
Q

Order 572 Professional Oversight:

Recommended corrective actions are sent to the member’s commanding officer for implementation unless any of the following extenuating circumstances exist, in which case the Safety Review Board shall conduct an initial review beforehand and may modify the recommended corrective actions and/or number of JSO-vehicle points assessed:

A

(1) Aggravating factors – the member’s actions demonstrate more than just carelessness;

(2) Mitigating factors – conditions beyond the member’s control were potentially a contributing factor;

(3) Point frequency – the member has received three or more JSO-vehicle points within the last year;

(4) Probationary status – the member is currently on probation and has received two or more JSO-vehicle points within his 12-month probationary period;

(5) Qualifies for discipline – the recommended corrective actions include the issuance of a Written Reprimand Level One or higher;

(6) Reported mechanical failure – the member reported some form of mechanical failure, supported with proof the failure occurred with data obtained by POU; and/or

(7) Serious injury – the incident involved serious injury.

149
Q

Order 572 Professional Oversight:

Personnel Early Intervention Program / Three-Month Proactive Report

To assist supervisors in identifying members who may need intervention efforts, POU generates a monthly report that lists members who, within the previous three calendar months, have had three or more occurrences of being:

A

(1) The subject of an allegation of misconduct;

(2) The primary officer in an RTR incident;

(3) The primary officer in a vehicle pursuit;

(4) Deemed chargeable in a JSO vehicle crash or incident; or

(5) In excess of 120 hours of secondary employment or scheduled overtime in a month.

150
Q

Order 572 Professional Oversight:

Personnel Early Intervention Program / Three-Month Proactive Report

When a member is listed on __________, the Commanding Officer of POU shall review the reports to determine if a meeting should be convened with the member’s chain of command to establish the most appropriate intervention efforts.

A

three or more Three-Month Proactive Reports within a 12-month period

151
Q

Order 574 Body Worn Camera:

All police officers and sergeants shall be issued two BWCs and complete the initial JSO BWC training course, along with ______ refresher training every year thereafter.

A

annual

152
Q

Order 574 Body Worn Camera:

Officers shall remove their BWCs prior to entering:

A

a. The Breathalyzer Room inside the Pretrial Detention Facility (PDF);
b. The Internal Affairs Unit office; or
c. The Integrity & Special Investigations Unit office.

153
Q

Order 574 Body Worn Camera:

Officers shall keep their BWCs activated until one of the following conditions apply, at which time the officer may deactivate his BWC after stating the applicable reason (in bold):

A

a. Conclusion of Citizen-Related Activity: There is no longer the potential for an interaction with a community member. This occurs when the officer leaves the scene or has returned to his vehicle unaccompanied by a community member.

b. Legally Privileged Communication: Privileged communication, Florida State Statutes (F.S.S.) Chapter 90, is taking place. This includes conversations between:
(1) JSO members and any attorney who represents the agency’s interests (e.g., JSO Legal Advisor, State Attorney’s Office (SAO), Office of General Counsel (OGC), United States Attorney’s Office);
(2) Sexual assault counselors and victims;
(3) Domestic violence advocates and victims;
(4) Attorneys and clients; and
(5) Doctors and patients.

c. Community Member Request for Unrecorded Statement: A community member has indicated he/she wants to provide case-related information but does not want the interaction to be recorded for personal reasons (e.g., fear of retaliation, privacy concerns, etc.). Prior to deactivation, if feasible given the circumstances, the officer shall obtain approval from a supervisor to deactivate his BWC for the duration of the conversation with the community member.

d. Hazardous Device: The officer is within 1000 feet of a scene involving a bomb threat or located device.

154
Q

Order 574 Body Worn Camera:

For large-scale Incident Command System (ICS) incidents (e.g., a multi-day missing persons search) that could potentially capture many hours of footage without citizen-related activity, an __________ can amend BWC requirements for that operation by notifying the ICS command and general staff of the specific changes via written correspondence.

A

assistant chief

155
Q

Order 574 Body Worn Camera:

Any BWC recording captured by an officer during his regular shift must be uploaded within _____.

Any BWC recording captured by an officer while working secondary employment, working overtime, or off-duty must be uploaded no later than his _______.

A

24 hours

next regular working day

Sgt Test 2023 (7 decks)

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