Order 300's Flashcards
1
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
In-person warrant requests will only be permitted for:
A
(1) The Integrity Unit or
(2) When a sworn member who has received prior approval from a DEPARTMENT DIRECTOR or higher authority.
2
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Execution of Search Warrants for Premise(s), Structure(s), and/or Conveyance(s)
The Supervisor in charge shall:
Authorize and coordinate the execution of the warrant and ensure that a Narcotics Information Network Joint Agency System (NINJAS) de-confliction request has been completed and submitted at least _______ prior to the warrant being served.
A
two hours
AND
Be present throughout the execution of the warrant
3
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Execution of Search Warrants for Premise(s), Structure(s), and/or Conveyance(s)
Supervisors shall designate officers to search specific areas. A minimum of ____ officers shall be assigned per room.
A
two
4
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Execution of a Search Warrant in Order to Obtain Biological Samples
The supervisor in charge of the execution of a search warrant which has been issued for the purpose of obtaining a biological sample(s) (e.g., hair, saliva, blood etc.) shall:
A
Coordinate and be present during the execution of the warrant
5
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Inventory of Seized Items
All individually bagged items of evidence shall be secured in a larger bag by the supervisor in charge of the search warrant. The supervisor shall check the inventory for completeness and seal the bag with tape and his initials and ID number. The sergeant shall write “Search Warrant” on the outer bag and provide their immediate contact information.
A
The bag should only be opened by Property Room personnel only
6
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Return of a Search Warrant
In eWarrants, the search warrant and inventory shall be electronically returned within ____ days of service to a judge for the judge’s signature and to convey to the judge the outcome of the search.
A
10
A copy of the return should be left with a person named on the warrant, a person at the premises, or in a conspicuous place at the premises.
7
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Warrantless Searches
Examples are: PEACH IT
A
Protective Sweep
Exigent Circumstances
Arrest
Consent
Hot (fresh) Pursuit
Inventory Search
Terry Stop
8
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Warantless Searches
Whenever an item is in a location where it can be observed by a person, without that person doing something illegal in order to observe it, then that object is considered to be in ___
A
“plain view.”
9
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
_________ are warranted for three reasons:
(1) Protecting the owner’s property;
(2) Protecting the police against lost or stolen property claims; and
(3) Protecting the police from potential danger.
A
Inventory searches
Upon the impoundment of a vehicle, watercraft, or aircraft, an inventory search shall be conducted as per Order 335 (Wrecker Regulation) unless evidentiary processing is being conducted.
10
Q
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
If officers reasonably believe there is evidence of a crime in a residence or other property, and that such evidence would dissipate or be destroyed before a search warrant could be obtained, entry may be made for the purpose of preserving that evidence.E
A
Evanescent Evidence
11
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
Officers are required to seek an arrest warrant within ______ after probable cause has been established for the arrest of the suspect.
A
36 hours
12
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
If an arrest warrant has been approved by a judge but new information indicates an arrest would no longer be appropriate or valid, the officer shall:
A
a. Contact the Warrants Unit ([904] 630-2202)and request that the warrant be placed in a “Recall Pending” status;
b. Contact the SAO to have the arrest warrant recalled; and
c. Complete a Supplemental Report
13
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
Officers are not required to file an affidavit when an arrest only involved:
A
a. Misdemeanor offenses or municipal ordinance violations;
b. Violations of probation;
c. Charges pursuant to a capias; or
d. Charges pursuant to an arrest warrant obtained by another agency.
14
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
For a felony arrest that requires a filing affidavit, the arresting officer shall prepare and submit the filing affidavit unless the arrest was:
A
a. From a Category C case, as defined in Order 210 (Patrol Function), in which case the assigned detective shall file on the arrest;
b. Pursuant to a warrant obtained by a detective, in which case the detective that obtained the warrant shall file on the arrest; or
c. Made by a dual-certified officer (DCO) pursuant to a local arrest warrant, in which case the officer or detective who obtained the arrest warrant shall file on the case.
15
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
Within _____ of a felony arrest, the member responsible for filing on that arrest shall:
a. Complete a transmittal filing packet containing:
A
24 hours
16
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
Requests for leniency or assistance for defendants without the approval of a ________ or higher authority are strictly prohibited
When a Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) member believes that leniency for a defendant could be exchanged for information that would lead to the arrest of another suspect on a more substantial charge, the member shall, with the approval of his _______, discuss the circumstances with a
department director or higher authority, who shall determine if the member is permitted to make this request.
A
department director
chain of command
17
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
The Civil Process Unit shall not accept a subpoena or notice of deposition if:
A
(1) The appearance date is less than five (5) days, or seven (7) days if a weekend or holiday is included in that five-day period, from the date of service (this refers to the date the Civil Process Unit receives the subpoena, not the date on which the officer ultimately receives it);
(2) The member is not scheduled to work before the appearance date; or
(3) The subpoena or notice is for someone who is no longer a member of JSO.
18
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
When a member is served with a subpoena or given a notice of deposition, he is _________, no matter how little time there is between his receipt of the document and the scheduled appearance.
A
required to appear
Even if the civil process unit accepts a subpoena or notice of deposition, that should not have been accepted, (the appearance day is less than five days from the day of the service.)
19
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
Supervisors shall ensure the subpoena receipt, if applicable, is kept for _______ from the appearance date listed on the subpoena, after which it may be destroyed.
A
30 days
20
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
Upon receipt of a subpoena or notice of deposition, if a member cannot make the required appearance, he shall immediately notify the issuing authority of the reason.
A
(1) For a Traffic Court subpoena, the member shall contact the Court Liaison Office.
(2) For a Florida Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles (FLHSMV) License Suspension Hearing subpoena, the member shall notify the local FLHSMV office. If not notified by the conclusion of the hearing, the FLHSMV will immediately overturn the license suspension.
21
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
The wearing of any JSO uniform, JSO insignia, or weapon while attending a personal court proceeding is ______
A
strictly prohibited.
22
Q
Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:
When a member is placed in a standby status for a court appearance, he shall remain in a place that will allow him to appear in court within ______ of being notified.
A
one hour
23
Q
Order 310 Investigations:
The use of investigative task forces shall be approved by:
A
Chief of Investigations
24
Q
Order 310 Investigations:
Adults placed in an interview room shall be visually observed every ____ minutes and unattended juveniles placed in an interview room shall be visually observed every ____ minutes. The only exception to this requirement would be if exigent circumstances exist. At no time shall the period between visual observations exceed 30 minutes, and all observations shall be documented on a Form P-0202 (Holding/Interview Room Observation Form).
A
15 mins for adults
10 mins for Juveniles
25
Order 310 Investigations:
When a detective transports a detainee from any JSO secured facility, it shall require ______ approval and _______ present
Supervisor approval
two sworn officers
26
Order 310 Investigations:
To avoid a violation of federal law, once the juvenile is placed in a secure custody status, the secure custody cannot exceed ______ before the juvenile must be delivered to the appropriate juvenile detention facility or released.
six hours
If an interview continues for a period longer than six hours, the juvenile shall be placed in an unlocked interview room and be continuously monitored by a sworn officer or detective to comply with federal non-secure custody status requirements.
27
Order 310 Investigations:
An administrative review shall be conducted at least once every ______ years by the _________ or his designee of the interview rooms and unit procedures under his command to ensure compliance with state and federal laws.
three
Commander of Property Crimes & Investigative Support
28
Order 310 Investigations:
The lieutenant or his designee of each unit shall inspect each interview room under his command, at least, _____.
monthly
29
Order 310 Investigations:
All Investigations personnel shall be sufficiently trained in the use of the audio/video recording system; and
Any deviation from this policy shall be approved by the
Commander of Major Case, the Commander of Property Crimes & Investigative Support, or the Commander of Specialized Investigation or higher authority and properly documented in the case file.
30
Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:
The showing of a single photograph for identification purposes is prohibited, unless the subject is personally known by the victim or witness and the photograph is shown merely to confirm identity. Prior to showing a single photograph, a
_______ must be notified and approve the use of the single photograph for identification purposes. The ________ approval must be documented in the Incident or Supplemental Report
supervisor
31
Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:
When a Functional Equivalent Procedure is used, all photo array procedures will remain the same with the exception of the following:
(a) Prior to presenting the photographs to the victim or witness, the administrator will remove the photographs from the envelope, randomly shuffle them face down and then return them into the envelope face down in front of the witness.
(b) The administrator shall then position himself where he is unable to see the photographs as the witness views them.
32
Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:
When creating a photo array, The potential suspect’s photo shall be grouped with ____ other filler photographs.
five
Including the suspect the photo array will have 6 photos total
33
Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:
A photo array shall be created using one of the following options:
(1) The officer/detective shall use the JSO Photo-Imaging Capture System (JPICS) or Driver License image that most resembles the suspect’s appearance at the time of the crime;
(2) If the use of JPICS is not conducive to developing a photographic line-up, then the officer/detective shall use the High Intensity Drug Trafficking Area (HIDTA).
(3) The final option is to use FaceLogics. This resource shall only be used for felony offenses when the first two options have failed at producing a photographic lineup. The use of FaceLogics must be approved by a watch lieutenant or unit lieutenant prior to submitting a request.
34
Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:
Field show-ups generally should be conducted within _____ of the crime being reported, unless extraordinary circumstances exist.
and shall be conducted with supervisory approval and direction
three hours
35
Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:
Preparing for the Show-up
Regardless of whether a positive identification was made by the witness, photographs of the ______ shall be obtained to depict his or her appearance at the time the show-up was conducted.
detained individual
36
Order 315 CGIC:
CGIC Supervisor should be notified of the following:
When a burglary, attempted burglary, or theft of a firearm occurs to a business with a Federal Firearms License where firearms are sold (i.e., gun dealer, pawn shop, etc.);
2. When a suspect is arrested for Possession of a Firearm by a Convicted Felon (PFCF) and meets one of the following criteria:
a. The suspect has a prior PFCF conviction;
b. The suspect has two prior felony convictions (drug possession convictions may only be counted as one, regardless of the number of convictions) and the last conviction or release from incarceration is within five years. This makes the subject a Habitual Offender; or
c. The suspect has been convicted of an enumerated violent felony and the conviction or release from incarceration is within five years. This makes the suspect a Habitual Violent Felony Offender.
37
Order 321 Homicide:
When a death occurs and there is no attending physician, it is a
Medical Examiner's case.
38
Order 321 Homicide:
If a physician will sign the death certificate but there is no known next of kin or it is an indigent case, transportation of the remains will be by
the funeral home under contract with
the City of Jacksonville (COJ) Welfare Division
39
Order 321 Homicide:
When a situation exists in which family members are present and they cannot decide which funeral home to call,
officers shall contact NCIC and request the contract funeral home respond to take possession of the body.
40
Order 321 Homicide:
When the death is a Medical Examiner's case, personal property on the body of the deceased will be inventoried by the ________ and in the presence of the investigating officer.
Medical Examiner's staff at the scene
41
Order 321 Homicide:
When the death is a non-Medical Examiner's case, JSO personnel should be involved as little as possible in handling the personal property on the body of the deceased. The officer should not handle the property at all if the death occurs at home with the next of kin present or at a health care facility
If circumstances are such that a family member at the scene cannot take the property, the officer shall turn property over to the funeral home personnel.
42
Order 321 Homicide:
Generally, on an outdoor crime scene, a minimum ____ inner perimeter is recommended, with an extended outer perimeter established.
100-foot
43
Order 320 Cold Case:
If the offense of kidnapping is committed in conjunction with at least two other reported offenses of the same incident and the victim is still missing at the time of the report, a separate report (with a separate CCR number) shall be written for the kidnapping.
If there are two offenses being reported and one is kidnapping, both offenses may be recorded on the same report.
44
Order 320 Cold Case:
The Missing Person section of the Incident Report or Supplemental Report (for local, previously reported, or located victims) shall be completed for ___ kidnapping cases
ALL
45
Order 320 Cold Case:
A Florida Emergency Child Alert (FEMCA) shall be initiated in all cases involving the suspected abduction of a child. The decision to utilize FEMCA rests with the
Supervisor of Cold Case Unit or higher authority.
In any situation when FEMCA is met, the responsibility for notifying the FBI shall rest with the supervisor of Cold Case Unit.
46
Order 320 Cold Case:
Attempted Kidnappings:
(1) If the motivation is unknown and the victim is 17 years of age or younger, a _______ shall be notified;
(2) If the motivation is unknown and the victim is 18 years of age or older, a ______ shall be notified;
(3) If the circumstances indicate the motive was to conduct a robbery, a _____ shall be notified regardless of the age of the victim; or
(4) If the circumstances indicate the motive was potentially sex crimes related, then a ______ shall be notified, regardless of the age of the victim.
(1) Special Assault Unit (SAU) detective
(2) Homicide Unit detective
(3) Robbery Unit detective
(4) SAU detective
If the suspect's are arrested in the above cases, the appropriate unit should conduct an interview of the suspect.
47
Order 320 Cold Case:
Officers shall notify the _______, regardless of the motivation or age, when the victim is still missing at the time of the report
Cold Case Unit
48
Order 320 Cold Case:
Interviews of interference with custody suspects, if needed, shall be conducted by _____, regardless of the time of day.
Patrol
49
Order 322 Missing Persons:
After the immediate search of area, neighborhood canvass, and contact with relatives and friends has been conducted by Patrol personnel, an on-call Missing Persons detective and supervisor shall be notified by the responding patrol supervisor, for any of the criteria below:
a. Children 11 years of age or younger;
b. Any Person reported to be suffering from dementia and/or Alzheimer’s disease.
c. Mentally incompetent individuals (to the extent the person is unable to care for themselves and their daily activities are limited and constantly monitored because of their condition); or
d. Elderly persons (60 years of age or older) who are out of character; or medically and/or mentally at risk of death.
50
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Immediately upon patrol personnel identifying and verifying that there is clear evidence of foul play (any aged person),
an on-call Missing Persons detective shall be notified by the responding patrol supervisor
51
Order 322 Missing Persons:
A missing adult, pursuant to Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) 937.0201, is a person:
a. Who is 18 years of age or older;
b. Whose temporary or permanent residence is in, or believed to be in, this state and last seen in Duval County;
c. Whose location has not been determined; and
d. Who has been reported to a law enforcement agency.
52
Order 322 Missing Persons:
A missing juvenile is a person who could be one or more of the following criteria:
a. 11 years of age and younger;
b. 12-17 years of age who has never previously been reported missing;
c. Foul play is suspected;
d. A threat of self-harm exists;
e. A clear and present endangerment for the child exists. Examples include, but are not
limited to, being:
(1) Autistic;
(2) Blind;
(3) Confined to a wheelchair;
(4) Deaf; and
(5) Incapable of self-care.
f. The child has disappeared without explanation and there is no reasonable explanation
(i.e., family dispute, ungovernable, etc.) for their disappearance and an immediate
search is warranted.
53
Order 322 Missing Persons:
A missing/runaway juvenile is a person who:
a. Is 12-17 years of age;
b. Has been previously reported as missing at least one or more times; and
c. Does not fall under the criteria listed above.
54
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Scent Preservation Kit – Individuals for whom the scent preservation kits shall be utilized include missing persons who have:
a. Alzheimer’s disease or another form of dementia;
b. Autism;
c. A debilitating disease; or
d. Eloped (ran) more than once.
55
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Search procedures are categorized as either an
immediate search, a Missing Endangered Person Search and Rescue (MEPSAR) Phase 1, or a MEPSAR Phase 2 search.
56
Order 322 Missing Persons:
An immediate search, at a minimum, should be conducted for any missing person under the following criteria:
The missing person is mentally incompetent to include being identified as, or suffering
from:
(1) Dementia;
(2) Alzheimer’s disease;
(3) Autism;
(4) Down Syndrome; and/or
(5) Any disorder or disease relating to the loss of cognitive abilities.
b. The possibility of foul play is suspected regardless of age;
c. The missing person has a serious medical problem/condition; or
d. Any other unusual circumstances exist regardless of age.
57
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Immediate searches should include:
a. The victim's residence (including beds, closets, garages, attics, outbuildings, etc.);
b. Adjacent residences and/or structures (including those that are not occupied);
c. Interviews with neighbors and friends;
d. Locations of previous recoveries, if a prior history exists;
e. Retention ponds, drainage systems, ditch lines, lakes, or other bodies of water; and
f. Wooded areas, brush, or other overgrown areas.
58
Order 322 Missing Persons:
When immediate searches are exhausted and a more extensive search is to be conducted for missing persons, officers shall notify a sector sergeant, who shall respond to coordinate the MEPSAR Phase 1 search.
A MEPSAR Phase 1 search, at a minimum, should be conducted in the following
circumstances:
a. A child 11 years of age or younger is being reported as missing;
b. Clear evidence of foul play (any age person);
c. Elderly persons (60 years of age or older) who are out of character; or medically and/or mentally at risk of death;
d. Mentally incompetent (to the extent the person is unable to care for themselves and their daily activities are limited and constantly monitored because of their condition); or
e. Any person reported to be suffering from autism, dementia and Alzheimer’s disease.
The Missing Persons Unit shall assist and give guidance in these types of searches.
59
Order 322 Missing Persons:
MEPSAR Phase 1 searches should include everything listed within the immediate search
plus:
a. At this time, the Patrol supervisor should confer with the Missing Persons detective to
determine if MEPSAR Phase 1 protocol should be initiated;
b. Request on-duty Patrol resources to include the Missing Persons K-9, Unmanned Aerial
Systems (UAS) Unit, and Aviation Unit to assist in the search;
c. Request Jacksonville Fire and Rescue Department (JFRD) station personnel to assist in
the search;
d. Checking area jails (under the victim’s name and John/Jane Doe);
e. Checking area hospitals (under the victim’s name and John/Jane Doe);
f. Checking area mental health facilities (under the victim’s name and John/Jane Doe);
g. Checking area shelters (under the victim’s name and John/Jane Doe);
h. Checking area bus and taxi services;
i. Utilizing location enabled electronic devices (under lawful circumstances);
j. Checking electronic banking information (if available);
k. Begin to use the Missing/Endangered Person Checklist and Incident Command System
(ICS) Structure (Appendix A); and
l. Begin to use the Form P-0836 (Neighborhood Canvass Tracking Sheet).
60
Order 322 Missing Persons:
If the immediate and MEPSAR Phase 1 searches are not successful, a MEPSAR Phase 2
search can be expected in the following circumstances:
a. A child 11 years of age or younger is being reported as missing;
b. Clear evidence of foul play (any age person);
c. Elderly persons (60 years of age or older) who are out of character; or medically and/or
mentally at risk of death;
d. Mentally incompetent (to the extent the person is unable to care for themselves and
their daily activities are limited and constantly monitored because of their condition; or
e. Any person reported to be suffering from autism, dementia or Alzheimer’s disease.
61
Order 322 Missing Persons:
MEPSAR Phase 2 searches should include everything listed within immediate and MEPSAR Phase 1 searches plus:
a. Coordinate with the Missing Persons Unit supervisor in initiating MEPSAR Phase 2. This phase shall involve the following:
(1) An Emergency Preparedness Unit (EPU) callout. EPU can establish the implementation of National Incident Management System (NIMS) ICS;
(2) A JSO Mobile Field Force mobilization; and
(3) A JFRD Urban Search and Rescue callout.
b. Supervisors shall establish the following (See Appendix A):
(1) Incident Commander (IC);
(2) Operations Section Chief;
(3) Search branches for JSO and JFRD;
(4) A Situation Unit including the following:
(a) A scribe who shall document critical information and actions taken by Patrol to locate the missing individual. A dedicated dispatcher can assist with this task;
and
(b) An officer to begin completing the ICS-201 to establish objectives and record what is being searched.
(5) A Resources Unit to begin checking in and logging which JSO and JFRD units on the
scene.
c. Deploying all utilized assets in an organized and methodical approach; and
d. Conducting canvasses
62
Order 322 Missing Persons:
NCIC shall be contacted within ____ , via the phone, for a BOLO on all missing persons (adult or juvenile).
two hours
63
Order 322 Missing Persons:
The use of the “Missing Child Alert”, “Silver Alert”, and “Purple Alert” programs can be activated by the ________. Anytime this system is utilized, the Public Information Officer (PIO) and a Communications supervisor shall be notified.
Supervisor of Missing Persons Unit
64
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Notification of a _____ shall be made when there is clear evidence of foul play or there is a kidnapping incident. Refer to Order 321 (Homicide Unit).
Homicide Unit or Cold Case Unit supervisor
65
Order 322 Missing Persons:
If a missing person, adult or child, has an active warrant and is avoiding contact with the police, or if a warrant is being sought for a missing person due to criminal activity, a
Missing Person Report should not be completed. In that circumstance, the person is a fugitive from justice.
66
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Any runaway between the ages of 12 and 17 who is reported missing without foul play and has been reported missing previously on at least one occasion, will be investigated as a Category “B” investigation unless exigent circumstances exist. This is applicable to all agencies/jurisdictions that encompass Duval County.
The reporting officer shall refer to the LinX Program and/or other data resources to check for previous reports from other agencies within Duval County and notate findings in the narrative of the report.
67
Order 322 Missing Persons:
When a Tele-Serv Officer writes a runaway report that Officer shall forward the report to the appropriate district based on the address used in the report. The designated district representative, assigned by the district commander, shall forward the runaway report to an officer for follow-up for the first _____
20 calendar days.
If the runaway is not located within the 20th calendar day, the reporting officer shall submit a Supplemental Report detailing all efforts, suspend the case, and forward the report to the Missing Persons Unit.
If there is a discrepancy over who shall write a runaway report, the final decision shall lay with the WATCH LIEUTENANT
68
Order 322 Missing Persons:
All adult missing person cases involving an accident, clear evidence of foul play, bona fide endangerment circumstances, or other critical or at-risk circumstances shall be assigned to the Missing Persons Unit as a ______
Category “C” investigation. (Homicide will be notified).
A missing adult, who has made suicidal threats or who possesses a suicidal disposition shall be investigated as a category B case.
69
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Placement of local missing children requires the following:
Local missing children found by the police will be returned to their homes or transported to Youth Crisis Center (YCC);
b. Runaways picked up through Project Safe Place will be transported to YCC, if there is no custody order;
For all state foster children/runaway recoveries, where the foster parent or home has refused to regain custody of the child, the officer shall call the Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF)
70
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Officers who reasonably believe the runaway will be in danger of abuse if returned home or to a shelter service shall follow the following procedure:
If the child is less than 10 years of age and requires placement Monday through Friday between 0800 and 1700 hours (excluding holidays), contact the Florida Abuse Hotline Information System (1-800-962-2873) and request a Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF) counselor respond to the scene of the incident or another specified location. If the child is 10 years of age or older, they shall be transported to YCC;
71
Order 322 Missing Persons:
All runaways from other jurisdictions shall be taken to the ____.
Arranging for the disposition of other jurisdictions’ runaways under a custody order is the responsibility of ____
YCC
DJJ
72
Order 322 Missing Persons:
YCC serves juveniles who could be categorized as one or more of the following:
a. Ungovernable;
b. Runaway;
c. Involved in a family dispute and in need of a “cooling off” period;
d. Truant and the juvenile's school cannot be determined and/or a parent cannot be located; or
e. Lost and missing children as listed in this order. (10 or older go to YCC)
73
Order 322 Missing Persons:
______ is a program coordinated by the YCC involving a network of locations, designated by the Safe Place logo, where any child can go to seek help for any problem (i.e., runaway, abuse, homeless, etc.).
Project Safe Place
Officers will notify YCC
74
Order 322 Missing Persons:
The “Home Free” program offers runaways less than 18 years of age free bus passage to their hometown on Greyhound Bus Lines. In order for the child to participate in the program, officers must verify that the child wants to return home and the parents want the child to return. Participation must be initiated and coordinated through YCC
An officer shall meet the runaway and YCC counselor, at the bus station downtown, approx ONE HOUR before the bus is to leave.
75
Order 322 Missing Persons:
The Florida Silver Alert Program has been implemented, by the use of dynamic message signs, in the State of Florida to assist law enforcement agencies in the search and recovery efforts in cases of missing persons ______ or older who have a clear indication of irreversible deterioration of intellectual faculties (e.g., dementia).
60 years of age
76
Order 322 Missing Persons:
The Florida Department of Law Enforcement (FDLE) will issue Purple Alerts to assist in locating missing adults who suffer from a mental, cognitive, intellectual, or developmental disability, and who do not meet the criteria of a Silver Alert.
Purple Alerts are for adults ___ years or older.
18 years or older
77
Order 322 Missing Persons:
The Missing Persons supervisor or his designee will activate the Silver Alert or Purple Alert after receiving the approval of the
lieutenant of Missing Persons Unit.
The activation process will require local law enforcement to contact the MEPIC at 1-888-356-4774.
MEPIC will confirm the case facts meet the criteria for a Silver Alert or Purple Alert activation.
78
Order 322 Missing Persons:
If the initial steps aren’t successful in returning the lost juvenile-
Lost Juveniles - If the juvenile is ________ of age, contact the Florida Abuse Hotline Information System (1-800-962-2873) and request a Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF) counselor respond to the scene of the incident or another specified location;
less than 10 years of age
79
Order 322 Missing Persons:
If the initial steps aren’t successful in returning the lost juvenile -
Lost Juveniles - if the juvenile is ______ , transport the juvenile to YCC;
10 years of age or over
80
Order 322 Missing Persons:
Disoriented adults - if their residence cannot be found or a responsible adult relative cannot be located, and there is no evidence of a medical problem, shall be transported to the nearest _______ under the provisions of the Baker Act. Refer to Order 213 (Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Subjects). If there is evidence of a medical problem, transport the individual to the nearest hospital.
Baker Act receiving facility
81
Order 325 Special Assault:
Per F.S.S. 960, Victim’s Rights, adult victims of sexual battery are not required to make a police report to undergo a forensic exam through the SAFE Program. If an officer is made aware of an allegation of sexual battery but the victim does not wish to speak to police, the officer shall
advise the victim of this available medical assistance and provide the Rape Recovery Hotline phone number.
Juvenile victims who wish to undergo a sexual assault examination through the CPT must have an accompanying police report.
82
Order 325 Special Assault:
For adult victims, if any type of penetration occurred within the preceding ______ hours, the victim can receive a forensic sexual assault examination through the SAFE Program
120
The advocacy program and the medical examination are not mutually exclusive; the victim does not have to accept advocacy to get a medical evaluation or vice versa. If the victim agrees to accept either service from the SAFE Program, the officer must call the Rape Recovery Hotline as soon as possible during the investigation.
83
Order 325 Special Assault:
Officers shall remain with the victim until SAFE staff or a detective (if one is responding) arrives. Response time for an advocate should not exceed
45 minutes.
84
Order 325 Special Assault:
If an adult victim reports a sex crime from the preceding 120 hours but refuses to be examined, the officer shall complete the carbon copy of Form P-0145 (Delayed or Declined Medical Examination) and have the victim read and sign it.
Form P-0145 (Delayed or Declined Medical Examination) shall not be utilized when the victim decides not to make a criminal report of a sex crime pursuant to F.S.S. 960.
85
Order 325 Special Assault:
Sexual assault examination kits for victims who choose not to report their victimization to law enforcement pursuant to F.S.S. 960 shall be retrieved from the SAFE Program office and shall be submitted to the Property & Evidence Facility as NR kits by a member of the SAU.
These kits shall be maintained for two calendar years from the date they are entered into the Property & Evidence Facility.
These kits will not be sent to FDLE unless the victim wants to make report of the incident.
86
Order 325 Special Assault:
If the victim is under the age of 12, obtain information about the actual offense or criminal concern from an available adult (ensure the chosen adult is not the alleged offender) rather than interviewing the child....
All sex-based offense victim interviews for children under the age of 12 are conducted by the CPT.
87
Order 325 Special Assault:
For victims who are under the age of 18, officers shall adhere to the following procedures:
a. If the incident occurred more than 72 hours prior, the officer shall take the report following the same protocol as for adults (document on an Incident Report and route to the SAU). If there are observable injuries to non-sensitive (areas other than genitalia and/or female breasts) portions of the victim’s body, a Crime Scene Unit (CSU) detective shall be contacted to photograph the injuries.
b. If the incident occurred within the previous 72 hours or there are extenuating circumstances warranting an immediate medical opinion or examination, then:
(1) If during regular business hours, the reporting officer shall first notify the on-call SAU detective. and Shall determine whether the incident requires immediate SAU attention.
(b) If it does not, the officer shall contact the CPT office and discuss the situation with CPT staff to arrange for a timely medical examination.
(c) The officer shall assist with transport to the CPT office.
(d) If a suspect is in custody, the SAU detective shall conduct an interview with the victim (or arrange for a CPT staff member to conduct an interview) prior to the CPT medical examination taking place.
88
Order 325 Special Assault:
If the parent or guardian is not available to give the required permission for the medical examination of a juvenile, F.S.S. 39.304 authorizes
a police officer, DCF investigator, or CPT Case Coordinator to authorize and sign for the exam
89
Order 325 Special Assault:
For calls involving a suspect and victim that are both under the age of 12, designated as child-on-child, these cases are handled by ___ and should be documented in an Information Report
DCF
90
Order 325 Special Assault:
Initial Investigation of Drug-Facilitated Sex Crimes
If the assault is thought to have occurred within the preceding 12 hours, the officer shall do the following:
a. Notify a supervisor; and
b. Ask the victim to provide a urine sample at that time. If they are willing to do so, the supervisor shall request a CSU detective respond immediately. The supervisor shall advise the PECO of the nature of the call and explain that it is necessary for a CSU detective to respond without unnecessary delay.
91
Order 325 Special Assault:
For adults, if the sexual assault occurred within the preceding _____ hours, advise the victim not to shower, bathe, or otherwise alter his or her physical appearance, or engage in any activity that may contaminate or destroy valuable evidence. For victims who are under the age of 18, CPT guidelines reduce the time frame to ___ hours.
120 hours
72 hours
92
Order 325 Special Assault:
Patrol officers shall handle all non-criminal sexting investigations involving minors between the ages of
Any sexting incident involving a minor 11 years of age or younger shall be forwarded to the _____ for further investigation.
12-17.
SAU
93
Order 325 Special Assault:
The first sexting offense is classified as non-criminal (civil). Officers shall:
Complete a Form P-0698 (Juvenile Civil Sexting Citation) for each juvenile who transmits or possesses a photograph or video that meets the criteria defined in the sexting statute.
(a) Officers shall explain to the parent or guardian that the juvenile must appear before the Juvenile Court.
(b) In lieu of appearing, the juvenile may complete any of the following:
(i) Eight hours of community service;
(ii) Pay a $60 civil penalty; or
(iii) Participate in a cyber-safety program.
The juvenile receiving the citation and a parent or guardian must report to the Juvenile Department, at the Duval County Courthouse within 10 days to schedule a court date or to receive instructions for completing the alternative penalty or penalties listed above.
94
Order 325 Special Assault:
A second Sexting offense could be classified as a misdemeanor and shall be followed up by ______.
Third or subsequent offenses are ____ and must be followed up by the SAU personnel.
Patrol
felonies
95
Order 325 Special Assault:
Per F.S.S. 39.205, a person who is required to report known or suspected child abuse, abandonment, neglect, or child sexual abuse and who knowingly and willfully fails to do so, or who knowingly and willfully prevents another person to do so, commits a
felony of the 3rd degree.
96
Order 325 Special Assault:
The SAU shall take investigative responsibility for all instances of aggravated child abuse;
Patrol shall maintain investigative responsibility for all non-aggravated child abuse incidents.
Because caregivers will often attempt to explain away significant injuries, it is imperative officers contact the SAU when children are discovered with aggravated injuries regardless of whether it is believed to be accidental
97
Order 325 Special Assault:
If evidence of child abuse is present, the child should be examined by a physician, preferably by the CPT. If the victim will be medically examined by the CPT, the CPT will take evidentiary photographs.
If CPT, however, declines to medically examine the child, a CSU detective shall be requested for photographs;
98
Order 325 Special Assault:
Officers investigating an actual, potential, or suspected case of child abuse, child neglect, or child sexual abuse, regardless if committed by a caregiver or non-caregiver, shall immediately:
(1) Notify a supervisor;
(2) Review F.S.S. Chapters 39.201 and 827.03 to familiarize themselves with reporting requirements and with the elements of child abuse, child neglect, and aggravated child abuse. Review F.S.S. 827.04(1) which addresses acts by another which contribute to the delinquency of a minor;
(3) Notify the Florida Abuse Hotline regarding incidents of child abuse, child neglect, or child sexual abuse, regardless if committed by a caregiver or non-caregiver as prescribed by F.S.S. 39.201. In lieu of calling the abuse registry, police reports can also be forwarded to DCF by fax or via the internet
(a) Reporting officers shall fully document the call in the narrative of the report;
(b) If a DCF protective investigator is the complainant and is present, he/she shall be listed as the complainant on the Incident Report. Officers must still contact the Florida Abuse Hotline System
99
Order 325 Special Assault:
As defined in F.S.S. 39.01(50), ______ occurs when a child is deprived of or is allowed to be deprived of, necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical treatment or a child is permitted to live in an environment when such deprivation or environment causes the child’s physical, mental, or emotional health to be significantly impaired or to be in danger of being significantly impaired.
neglect
The foregoing circumstances shall not be considered neglect if caused primarily by financial inability unless actual services for relief have been offered to and rejected by such person. A parent or legal custodian legitimately practicing religious beliefs in accordance with a recognized church or religious organization who thereby does not provide specific medical treatment for a child may not, for that reason alone, be considered a negligent parent or legal custodian.
100
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
A device placed inside a credit card reader at a payment terminal for the purpose of illegally capturing credit/debit card information.
A device placed over a credit card reader at a payment terminal for the purpose of illegally capturing credit/debit card information.
Shimmer Device
Skimmer Device
101
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
Counterfeit Money Orders
(1) If the money order is from the United States (U.S.) Postal Service, then the report shall be written and routed to the __________ for follow-up with the charge of uttering a forged/counterfeit money order.
(2) If the money order is from any other local store, the same charge will apply. If suspect information is obtained the case will be a ________, with the report being routed to the ECU. The counterfeit money order will be seized as evidence and placed into the Property & Evidence Facility.
U.S. Postal Inspector
Patrol follow-up (Category B)
(3) Applicable charges of F.S.S. 831.28(2)A (counterfeit of a payment instrument) and F.S.S. 831.09 (uttering of a forged instrument [i.e., check, drafts, notes, money orders]) shall apply.
102
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
To charge a suspect with the crime of forgery, you must have one of the following:
(1) The officer witnessed the suspect sign the name of another person on the document;
(2) Video surveillance captured the suspect signing the name of another person on the document;
(3) There was a witness that observed the suspect sign the name of another person on the document; or
(4) The suspect confessed to signing the name of another person on the document.
103
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
The victim in all worthless document cases is the person, company, or institution who suffers
the financial loss or would have suffered the loss had the transaction been completed
104
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
When a suspect has signed a name while using a fraudulent credit card, the suspect will be charged with
forgery per F.S.S. 831.07
105
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
To arrest on a felony charge for obtaining goods by use of a fraudulent credit card (i.e., false, expired, counterfeit, etc.), the purchase must be
$300 or more per F.S.S. 817.481
106
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
When arresting on a charge of fraudulent use of a credit card per F.S.S. 817.61:
(1) The use of the credit card two or fewer times in a six month period, or obtaining goods or services valuing less than $100, is a _________.
(2) The use of the card more than two times in a six month period, or obtaining goods or services valuing $100, or more is ______.
1st degree misdemeanor
a 3rd degree felony
107
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
The victim on the Incident Report is the financial institution which issued the credit/debit card; the cardholder will be shown as the complainant. The only exception will be when that
financial institution refuses to reimburse the cardholder. In those cases, the cardholder will be shown as the victim.
108
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
In any case where a crime occurred in another jurisdiction
the officers may write an information report and advise them the location of the nearest substation so they may obtain a copy to forward to the agency with jurisdiction.
109
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
_______ is the term used to refer to all types of crimes in which someone wrongfully obtains and uses another person’s personal data in some way that involves fraud or deception.
Identity Theft
110
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
Identity Theft
If the Identity theft offense was committed in another jurisdiction, an Information Report may be completed and routed to the ECU and the victim shall be _______.
d. If the victim lives in Duval County and it is unknown where the compromise occurred, this case can be handled by the reporting officer as a Category B case. Officers shall assist victims in locating the appropriate agency for follow up to the best of their ability and document their actions in the narrative section of the Incident Report.
referred to the appropriate jurisdiction for follow up investigation.
111
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
Frauds/Organized Schemes to Defraud
F.S.S. 817.034 establishes criminal offenses related to organized schemes to defraud.
a. Some common organized fraud schemes include, but are not limited to,______
________: A person is made to believe he has a legitimate job, typically via online job applications. The person then accepts merchandise which has been shipped to him, generally purchased by the “employer”/suspect with fraudulent credit cards. The person then places new labels on the packages and reships them to an address associated with the “employer”/suspect. Officers shall warn the citizen that they are participating in a criminal scheme and to discontinue their efforts immediately. This warning shall be documented in a report.
account take over schemes, telephone schemes, internet schemes, employment schemes, and mail fraud schemes.
Reshipping Schemes
112
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
Lottery Ticket Cases
F.S.S. 24.118(3) defines a person dealing in counterfeit or altered tickets as any person who:
a. "Knowingly presents a counterfeit or altered State Lottery ticket";
b. "Knowingly transfers a counterfeit or altered State Lottery ticket to another to present for payment;" or
c. "With intent to defraud falsely makes, alters, forges, passes, or counterfeits a State Lottery ticket" is guilty of ______.
a felony of the third degree.
113
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
Counterfeit Money Cases
In counterfeit money cases where a suspect is arrested or identified (i.e., a valid tag number is obtained, a suspect is positively identified, etc.) for possession of a large quantity of counterfeit money or in association with a “print shop” that is creating counterfeit money, officers shall request that the Investigative PECO contact the ______, so the suspect can be interviewed prior to being placed in the PDF.
U.S. Secret Service
114
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
If the suspect is arrested for passing a small number of counterfeit bills, then the officer can complete the investigation and forward the report to the _____
U.S. Secret Service, via the Economic Crimes Unit
115
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Cases
IRS handles all Federal tax scams.
In cases where the tax preparer steals the tax refund money from the victim, the case will be reported as a ______.
theft and will be a Patrol follow-up.
116
Order 333 Economic Crimes:
Skimmer and Shimmer Devices
Some businesses, especially banks and credit unions, will ask that the device be left with them for their own investigation.
Never release a located skimmer/shimmer device to any business.
117
Order 333 Economic Crimes: Real Estate Fraud
This occurs when the suspect takes temporary control over a piece of real estate by use of a quit claim deed or other means to temporarily show ownership and attempt a fraudulent sale of the property to an unassuming purchaser. Sometime this is done to take possession of a home for personal use.
Home take-over
118
Order 333 Economic Crimes: Crypto Currency Investigations
______: A digital currency designed to work as a medium of exchange through a computer network that is not reliant on any central authority such as a government or bank to uphold or maintain it.
_______:A non-interchangeable unit of data stored on a blockchain, a form of digital ledger that can be sold or traded
Cryptocurrency
Non-fungible token (NFT)
119
Order 333 Economic Crimes: Crypto Currency Investigations
_______: An electronic device, online service, or software program that allows one party to make electronic transactions with another party bartering digital currency units for goods and services.
Digital wallet (e-wallet)
120
Order 333 Economic Crimes: Crypto Currency Investigations
_____: A type of barcode that can be read easily by a digital device and which stores information as a series of pixels in a square-shaped grid.
QR Code
121
Order 334 Auto Crimes:
An Auto Crimes Unit detective shall be called out 24 hours a day when:
1. A suspect is arrested in connection with a chop-shop operation or a chop-shop is located;
2. A suspect is arrested for the offense of auto burglary (including local arrest warrants);
3. A suspect is arrested where multiple stolen vehicles are recovered;
4. A suspect is in custody and is in possession of a firearm taken during an auto burglary or auto theft that occurred in the 4th Judicial Circuit (e.g., Clay, Nassau, or Duval counties) within the past year;
5. A suspect is in custody and in possession of a vehicle with an altered vehicle identification number;
6. A suspect is in custody and in possession of a vehicle stolen from a car dealership during the commission of a burglary;
7. A suspect is in custody and is in possession of a stolen motorcycle or large F-Series truck, 250 or greater, or other specialized vehicles as designated by the Auto Crimes Unit;
8. A suspect is in custody for cargo thefts;
9. An auto burglary with a person shot;
10. All warrants obtained by an Auto Crimes detective;
11. A marked or unmarked Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) vehicle is burglarized (with or without items missing); and
12. A police supervisor believes an Auto Crimes Unit detective’s input may be beneficial to an investigation.
122
Order 334 Auto Crimes:
Auto Crimes Unit detectives shall be notified 24 hours a day when:
1. Multiple vehicles (five or more) are broken into in the same proximity;
2. Cargo thefts in excess of a loss of $100,000 or more;
3. Any JSO property is stolen from a vehicle.
123
Order 334 Auto Crimes:
________ – The system is a comprehensive online application for the reporting, documentation, inventory, and distribution of information on intermodal freight theft and related occurrences. The system is overseen by Florida Highway Patrol (FHP), which provides law enforcement with the immediate distribution of freight-related information.
Electronic Freight Theft Management System (EFTMS)
124
Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigation of Vehicle Burglaries
If the investigation involves a JSO marked or unmarked vehicle, a ________
Crime Scene Unit detective shall be requested to process the vehicle.
125
Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicle Thefts
Be On the Lookout (BOLOs) on auto thefts, which have occurred within ______, should be broadcast on the district talk groups and/or the Mobile Computer Assisted Dispatch (MCAD) as soon as officers have the description and tag number.
the last hour
126
Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicle Thefts
Thefts of farm/construction equipment, boats, trailers, bicycles, personal watercraft and airplanes are to be reported as ______, not Auto Theft.
All trailers that require a license plate must be called into NCIC so they can be entered as stolen.
Multiple vehicle thefts arising out of the same incident (location and time of occurrence is the same) may be listed on one Incident Report.
Theft
127
Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicle Thefts
Incidents where a victim’s vehicle has been returned and the victim no longer desires prosecution of the suspect (suspect has been positively identified) the incident may be exceptionally cleared with the approval of _______.
a supervisor.
Have the victim complete a statement on a Form P-0349 (JSO Statement Form) clearly stating that they no longer desire prosecution of the suspect.
128
Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicles Taken Under Questionable Circumstances
When an officer determines that a vehicle was taken under questionable circumstances (i.e., the vehicle appears to have been loaned out in exchange for drugs, etc.), which would eliminate probable cause for the immediate arrest of a suspect, the officer shall:
a. Complete an Information Report and select “Information Report - Auto Theft” as the offense;
b. Do NOT have the vehicle entered into the Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC)/NCIC as stolen;
c. Request the victim complete a Form P-0412 (Stolen Vehicle/Vessel Affidavit) and advise him/her the consequences of making a false statement; and
d. Instruct the victim to immediately contact JSO if the vehicle is returned or found.
129
Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicles Taken Under Questionable Circumstances
The primary reporting officer shall:
a. Continue to investigate the case as a Category B patrol follow up for 10 days, completing Supplemental Reports as necessary to document his efforts;
b. At the end of the 10-day period, contact the victim to ensure he/she has not recovered their vehicle. The officer shall conduct any additional investigation and ask the victim if any efforts have been made to locate the vehicle;
c. Additionally, the officer shall request the assistance of an Auto Crimes detective for any further investigative needs;
d. If the determination is made to enter the vehicle as stolen, the officer should contact the NCIC PECO to have it entered and complete a Supplemental Report
130
Order 334 Auto Crimes: Failure to Redeliver a Hired (Rental) Vehicle Reporting Procedures
Fraudulently rented vehicles (e.g., involving the use of stolen credit cards, fictitious names, false information on the application, etc.) does not require a waiting period. These offenses shall be reported as _________. These reports shall be routed to the Economic Crimes Unit.
a fraud and immediately entered in FCIC/NCIC.
131
Order 334 Auto Crimes: Failure to Redeliver a Hired (Rental) Vehicle Reporting Procedures
Officers responding to incidents where a rental vehicle has not been returned to the company from which it was rented shall title the report as Failure to Redeliver a Hired Vehicle unless it is obviously fraudulently obtained. However, before the report is completed the officer shall ensure that:
a. The vehicle is overdue by at least seven days;
b. The rental company has completed and provided the responding officer with the following items to be provided to the State Attorney’s Office (SAO) upon requesting an arrest warrant for the suspect
132
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
______ provides the authority to impound vehicles.
MO 804
133
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
In life-threatening situations, a _________ supervisor may directly request a TOL wrecker through the JSO Communications Center to enhance rescue operations. The responding officer will be notified by National Crime Information Center (NCIC) or the district Police Emergency Communications Officer (PECO) and will complete the NOIR upon arrival at the scene.
Jacksonville Fire and Rescue Department (JFRD)
134
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
When a vehicle is impounded, and the owner is present, officers will complete the NOIR and have the owner sign the Signature Form (P-0214), which will be utilized as the _________
Notice of Impoundment.
135
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
When a vehicle is impounded (not for evidentiary value), and the owner is not present, the Notice of Impoundment shall be served by the wrecker firm towing the vehicle _______
Within seven business days, via certified mail.
136
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
Pursuant to MO 804.1103(a), any time a vehicle is impounded and the owner wishes to contest the charges for the towing and storage, the vehicle will be released by the towing facility via the procedures below:
(1) The owner may regain possession of the impounded vehicle from the wrecker firm without prepayment of towing and storage charges by presenting proof of ownership to the wrecker firm and posting a cash or surety bond in the amount of the accrued towing and storage charges;
(2) The owner has five business days to contact the Wrecker Regulation Unit to request a hearing as to the propriety of the impoundment and the owner's liability for the towing and storage charges; and
(3) Impounded vehicles with a hold for investigation designation will not be released until the hold is removed.
137
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
TOL wrecker firms are expected to respond to the scene within _____ of receipt of the call.
20 minutes
138
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
If the TOL wrecker is attached to a vehicle, but the vehicle driver arrives before it can be moved, a partial fee of up to half of the current hookup fee may be charged by the towing firm; or
If the driver/owner in lawful possession arrives before the TOL wrecker has been attached, and the vehicle can be released to this person, the TOL wrecker firm cannot charge a fee. However,
a parking ticket shall be issued, and NCIC will be notified to place the TOL wrecker firm back on top of the list.
139
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
An officer encountering a vehicle on the right-of-way, which appears to be unattended for more than 24 hours, but is not obstructing traffic or posing an immediate danger to public safety, shall:
a. Affix a 24 Hour Notice (P-0172) to the outside of the windshield directly in the driver’s view or another prominent place, noting the original CCR number
Monday – Friday between 0800 – 1700 hours, return to the vehicle and log out on a follow-up call, ensuring more than 24 hours have passed. If the car is still on scene, initiate towing for an unattended conveyance and affix a parking ticket to the vehicle. If the vehicle has been moved, update the comments field on the follow-up call screen and check back in service.
140
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
If a midnight unit is assigned an unattended conveyance, the officer shall:
Forward all the details of the unattended conveyance to the district traffic sergeant and that sergeant will assign a traffic officer to complete the follow-up.
141
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
An abandoned or derelict vehicle on private or commercial property shall be processed by one of the following methods: [CALEA 61.4.3]
a. The Code Enforcement Unit of the Public Works Department, COJ cites vehicles on private residential property;
b. When a JSO employee is informed of unattended vehicles on private property the caller is referred to City Link at (904) 630-CITY (2489) or COJ website at www.COJ.net;
c. The property owner or manager removes vehicles on commercial property, in compliance with F.S.S. 715.07, (e.g., shopping centers, apartment complexes, public parking lots, etc.).
142
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
The officer will submit a TOL request using the ARMS (NOIR) application and place “vehicle has an expired 24 hour notice” or “Junk TOL” in the special instructions field on the request. The officer will make a voice announcement on the NCIC radio _________ so the correct wrecker rotation will be used.
“This is a Junk TOL”
143
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
When impounding or seizing an aircraft, the _________ shall be notified
lieutenant of the Aviation Unit
144
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
When impounding or seizing a watercraft, the _________ shall be notified
lieutenant of the Marine Unit
145
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
When impounding or seizing large equipment, the _________ shall be notified.
the lieutenant of the investigative unit.
If the Property & Evidence Facility cannot accommodate the item, the lieutenant of the investigative unit requesting the seizure will make arrangements to have the equipment transported to a venue that can accommodate the item.
146
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
Officers shall have vehicles/vessels stored without holds when:
a. The vehicle/vessel owner cannot respond to the scene within a reasonable time (approximately 30 minutes);
b. The owner of the vehicle/vessel cannot be contacted;
c. The driver of the vehicle/vessel flees the scene; or
d. The vehicle/vessel is found occupied or abandoned under suspicious circumstances (i.e., car belongs to a dealership and is found after hours out of place, the vehicle has a stolen tag affixed to it, occupant(s) has an auto theft arrest history, etc.).
147
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
Patrol officers must obtain the approval from a member of the investigating unit for which the hold will be placed and document the identification of the approving officer in the hold section of the NOIR, excluding ________
A hold for investigation is self-canceling in ______ excluding weekends and holidays.
forfeiture holds and holds regarding burned altered or tampered VINs.
Five Days
JSO will be responsible for any storage charges exceeding five days if the vehicle is not transferred to a JSO storage facility.
148
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
An officer placing a forfeiture hold on a vehicle must complete and submit a forfeiture packet within ______ of the vehicle being towed.
a. All forfeiture cases will be stored at a TOL wrecker firm.
b. The forfeiture officer will review the paperwork and if the vehicle is to be seized, he will extend the hold and the vehicle will be moved to the Police Impound Facility Warehouse.
c. If a forfeiture packet is not received by the Forfeiture Unit within ________ of the original hold date, the hold will self-cancel. It will be the submitting officer’s responsibility to contact the owner and advise the hold has been removed.
24 hours
five business days
149
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation: Procedures for Extending Holds for Investigation
To extend a hold beyond five days, the decision must be made within _____ from the date the hold was placed on the vehicle. Patrol officers must obtain approval from their supervisor before extending a hold.
72 hours
150
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
When the decision not to extend the hold has been reached within the ______ period, the hold shall be released.
72 hour
151
Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:
When an initial hold is not removed or extended, the Towed Vehicles application will automatically remove the hold. This occurs after five days, excluding weekends and holidays. The owner must be notified of the hold removal as set forth in this order. The officer who placed the vehicle on hold will receive a computer-generated email showing the system removed the hold and the responsibility for owner notification rests with the __________.
submitting officer
152
Order 337 Traffic Homicide:
A Traffic Homicide detective will be called out 24 hours a day when:
A traffic crash occurs, with the scene intact, involving:
a. Death or life-threatening injuries;
b. Hit-and-run traffic crashes involving death or life-threatening injuries; or
c. Jacksonville Sheriff's Office (JSO) vehicle crashes, which have resulted in death, life threatening injury, or injury requiring transportation by an emergency medical unit to a medical facility from the scene.
153
Order 337 Traffic Homicide:
The following administrative guidelines related to duty status will apply to officer-involved traffic crashes in which death or life-threatening injuries occur:
1. Any officer whose actions result in a death or serious bodily harm shall be removed from his line of duty assignment;
a. The officer shall be placed on Administrative Leave (ADL) by the authority of the _____
Commander of Property Crimes & Investigative Support or higher authority.
154
Order 338 Crime Scene:
However, under normal conditions all items of evidence shall be turned in to the Property & Evidence Facility by the ______ that touches them unless otherwise directed by a supervisor.
first officer
155
Order 338 Crime Scene:
Photographs of injuries SHALL NOT be requested or taken by a JSO CSU detective under the following circumstances:
a. When the location of the injury is to the external genitalia of the body (unless a court
order is obtained by the State Attorney’s Office [SAO]);
b. When the victim is a child and is admitted to a medical facility and will be examined by a Child Protection Team (CPT) medical professional (under these circumstances, the
attending CPT staff will be responsible for documenting and photographing the injuries);
and
c. When the victim is an adult and is admitted to a medical facility and will be examined by the medical staff from the Sexual Assault Forensic Exam (SAFE) Program (under these
circumstances, the attending SAFE staff will be responsible for documenting and
photographing the injuries).
156
Order 338 Crime Scene:
Photographs of all JSO motor vehicles involved in a crash shall be taken by the responding ______, provided there are NO injuries requiring transport to a medical facility.
supervisor
Photographs of other City of Jacksonville (COJ) owned vehicles involved in accidents not involving injury or fatality are not required, unless requested by the COJ adjuster or approved by the on-scene supervisor.
157
Order 338 Crime Scene:
A. Securing and Protecting the Crime Scene
Once requested, CSU detectives shall be notified within _____ of the request.
At major crime scenes, a Major Case CSU detective and a Supervisor of CSU shall be notified immediately.
one hour
158
Order 338 Crime Scene:
Processing Stolen Vehicles
A vehicle shall be processed if it is possibly an unreported stolen vehicle and there are items of usable evidence or suspicious circumstances such as:
(1) A broken steering column;
(2) Stripped items; or
(3) A suspect flees the vehicle, or scene of a crime, and the vehicle is the only key to the suspect's identity.
159
Order 338 Crime Scene: Response to Gunfire incidents - Collection of Evidence
In cases that do not require an investigative detective or CSU detective, officers shall make every effort to identify any victims prior to the collection of the fired cartridges. After a thorough search and a ___________ that every effort has been made to locate a victim(s), then the fired cartridge casings can be collected.
responding supervisor’s verification
160
Order 338 Crime Scene: Response to a Weapon of Mass Destruction Incident
No less than ___ specially trained and specially equipped CSU detectives shall respond to a weapon of mass destruction incident.
two
161
Order 338 Crime Scene:
Only evidence that is known to be completely hazard free shall be placed into the ______. All other hazardous evidence shall either be released directly to another responding agency or placed in the JSO special hazardous material storage area.
Property & Evidence Facility
162
Order 338 Crime Scene:
Any evidence which is to undergo serological examination shall be placed in the Property & Evidence Facility for refrigerated storage until it can be transported to the FDLE Laboratory for processing. All subsequent forensic tests (e.g., latent prints, ballistics, etc.) on this evidence will also be conducted at ______.
the FDLE Laboratory
163
Order 339 Latent Print Unit:
The LPU is commanded by a civilian Latent Print Examiner Supervisor who reports directly to the
Crime Scene Unit lieutenant.
164
Order 340 Photo Lab:
Requests for printing or pictures will be assigned the following classifications:
1. Rush – All requests that are considered rush will be printed by available personnel and equipment to accomplish such tasks; or
2. Standard – Assigned to work on a non-priority basis.
The Unit is under the command of the lieutenant of Photo Lab and Police Photographer Supervisor.
165
Order 341 Crime Analysis:
After hours callouts
Example incident criterion includes, but is not limited to the
following:
1. Abduction/kidnapping involving well-founded danger to a juvenile victim or an adult with diminished mental or physical ability;
2. Death or other violent incident involving imminent danger or retaliation to additional citizens of Jacksonville, Florida; and
3. Grid mapping where exigency exists.
166
Order 341 Crime Analysis:
Any information to be disseminated to
non-criminal justice entities is to be reviewed by the
Public Safety Analyst Supervisor and/or the CAU Administrator.
167
Order 342 Real Time Crime Center:
After __ days, video which has not been archived/exported for evidence shall be deleted per the vendor agreement.
30 days
168
Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:
Stakeouts shall be authorized by a ________ or higher authority and documented on a Form P-1310 (Tactical Operations Plan).
lieutenant
169
Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:
Surveillance operations shall be authorized by a ________ or higher authority who will decide if the activity warrants the completion of a Form P-1310 (Tactical Operations Plan).
sergeant
170
Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:
All stakeouts and surveillance operations shall consist of at least ____ police officers or a police officer and an auxiliary officer. Participating auxiliary officers shall be under the direct supervision of a police officer.
two
171
Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:
Officers conducting stakeouts shall be in uniform and/or clearly marked in tactical vests. If not in their vehicle, officers will sufficiently cover their uniform for disguised entry into the stakeout location. Officers conducting surveillance operations, with no intention of taking enforcement action, may wear non-uniform clothing with the approval of a
lieutenant or higher authority.
172
Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:
The supervisor in charge of a stakeout or surveillance operation shall:
a. Notify in writing via email (or verbally in short notice incidents) the Communications Watch Supervisor and the on-duty patrol and detective lieutenants prior to the stakeout or surveillance operation briefing, unless prior notification could jeopardize the security or success of the stakeout or surveillance operation;
b. Ensure that all officers involved are wearing approved body armor, appropriate uniforms, and have the required equipment for the operation; and
c. Ensure a Tactical Operations Plan is completed if needed and that an operational briefing is conducted prior to the stakeout or surveillance operation.
173
Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:
The types of surveillance operations are as follows:
a. A fixed surveillance is the continuous watching of a place, object, or person from a stationary point;
b. A moving surveillance occurs when a subject is followed on foot, or by using a vehicle or an aircraft; and
c. Electronic surveillance utilizes electronic devices to intercept the contents of any oral or wire communication or to track the physical location of an individual or vehicle.
174
Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:
The functions of surveillance operations are as follows:
a. A preliminary surveillance is utilized to gather tactical intelligence that will enable an undercover officer to identify the associates of a suspect and to determine their relationship or association with a suspect.
b. An intelligence seeking surveillance occurs when the investigators attempt to learn everything they can about a crime or an activity and the person(s) or place(s) involved in such activity.
c. A cover surveillance is used primarily for the protection of an undercover officer. It is also used to corroborate the undercover officer’s testimony. A cover surveillance should also provide for the following:
(1) Approaches to the immediate area in case the undercover officer(s) needs immediate assistance; and
(2) The staffing and equipment needed to assist the undercover officer.
d. Post purchase surveillance is conducted for the following reasons:
(1) To determine where money is taken after the purchase of contraband to locate “stash” or “safe” houses involved in drug operations; and
(2) To identify other customers and associates who may be involved with the suspect.
175
Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:
For a surveillance utilizing more than _____officers, a sergeant or above shall be present to oversee the operation
three
If three officers or less are used, a supervisor may designate a lead officer
176
Order 356 SWAT:
Final authority to initiate a SWAT callout rests with the
Commander of Special Operations or higher authority.
177
Order 356 SWAT:
Any non-emergency request for the assistance of the SWAT Unit (e.g., high-risk search warrant) should be made to the _________, who is the supervisor of the SWAT Administrative Squad.
Assistant SWAT Supervisor
178
Order 356 SWAT:
Barricaded Subject – Not all subjects/suspects who refuse to surrender are considered barricaded. Barricaded subjects/suspects are defined as persons who:
a. Officers believe to be armed;
b. Are believed to have been involved in a criminal act and/or are a threat to the lives and safety of citizens or officers;
c. Are in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment, or are contained in an open area and the approach of officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the suspect (e.g., bridge jumper); and
d. Refuse to submit to arrest or surrender.
179
Order 356 SWAT:
_________________ -- A person threatening suicide with a weapon who is an imminent threat to others and barricades or places themselves in a position of advantage where the approach by responding officers could unnecessarily escalate the situation or endanger the officers.
Armed Suicidal Subject
180
Order 356 SWAT:
____________________ - A group of officers, ideally with a supervisor, tasked with taking a subject into custody upon their surrender.
____________ - Any incident in which people are being held against their will by another person(s), usually by force or coercion.
Apprehension Team
Hostage Situation
181
Order 356 SWAT:
_________ - A decision making matrix which lists the priority of different people involved in a tactical situation.
Safety Priority Matrix
This descending order is as follows:
(1) Hostages/citizens;
(2) Law enforcement officers;
(3) SWAT officers; and
(4) Suspects.
182
Order 356 SWAT:
B. Barricaded Subject/Suspect
1. Duties of the first officer/supervisor at the scene:
a. The first officer at the scene must determine if the situation is bona fide;
b. Notify the Communications Center and request notification of their immediate supervisor and the Patrol watch lieutenant;
c. Establish an inner perimeter controlling ingress and egress to the crisis site;
d. Assemble an Apprehension Team to take the subject/suspect into custody if they surrender;
e. Attempt to establish communications with the subject/suspect;
f. Establish an outer perimeter, excluding all unauthorized persons;
g. Establish a Command Post location and advise the Communications Center of its location;
h. Solicit the subject/suspect’s surrender without unnecessarily endangering Patrol officers or members of the community;
i. Evacuate residences and people in the immediate area of the crisis site;
j. Initiate and continually update Form P-0428 (First Responder Intelligence;
k. If criminal charges are pending, begin the process of acquiring an arrest and/or search warrant;
l. Determine if the subject meets Baker Act criteria; and
m. Have the news media assemble in one location to receive information from the designated source.
183
Order 356 SWAT:
Barricaded Subject/Suspect
Consider the need for a temporary flight restriction:
a. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) – (904) 845-1537.
b. Provide the latitude and longitude for the area and a timeframe.
c. The recommended distance is ______
10,000 feet and three miles.
184
Order 356 SWAT:
Hostage Situation
1. In addition to all the duties listed above for a barricaded subject, a Hostage Rescue Team should be assembled and be prepared to respond to the following:
a. Make emergency entry into the crisis site when it has been determined that the lives of the hostages are in imminent danger;
b. Take the suspect into custody upon surrender; and
c. Receive hostages who are released or who have escaped.
185
Order 356 SWAT:
Final decisions concerning the length of negotiations and use of force, including the use of chemical munitions by the SWAT Unit, rests with the ______ acting as the Incident Commander at the callout.
division chief
186
Order 356 SWAT:
Forced entries can be made anytime during a SWAT callout or operation. Absent exigency, all entries shall be at the direction of the ______
lieutenant of SWAT Unit or higher authority.
187
Order 361 Intelligence:
An Intelligence Unit detective shall be NOTIFIED 24 hours a day when police are summoned to any incident involving:
1. Suspected or actual terrorist activity;
2. Radical, militant, or subversive groups (e.g., anti-abortion groups, Ku Klux Klan, anti-nuclear groups, satanic groups, etc.);
3. Any hate crime (e.g., race, religious, or ethnic bias incident);
4. Any racial and/or civil disorder;
5. Diplomatic privileges or immunity;
6. An unknown substance and/or “white powder” threat associated with a substance, package, or letter;
7. Escapes from a secure detention facility;
8. Declared arson incidents involving critical infrastructures, military installations, places of worship, and arsons suspected of being a hate crime. Intelligence detectives serve as investigative liaisons with the Florida State Fire Marshal’s Office.
9. Bomb threats to critical infrastructures and military installations;
10. Hazardous Devices Unit (HDU) investigations;
11. Mass threats of violence, regardless of venue;
12. Any potentially politically motivated attack, threat, crime, or disruption at a polling location or voter registration site; or
13. Any other incident in which the presence of an Intelligence Unit detective may be needed and is authorized by the Supervisor of Intelligence Unit.
188
Order 361 Intelligence:
SARS:
They are used to document any reported or observed activity, or any criminal act or attempted criminal act, which an officer believes may reveal a nexus to foreign or domestic terrorism. The information reported in a SAR may be the result of observations or investigations by police officers or may be reported to them by private parties. SARs shall be routed to the Intelligence Unit.
189
Order 361 Intelligence:
Heightened Levels of Securities:
Under normal conditions where no alert has been issued, _________ are responsible for the security of their respective substations. The __________ shall be responsible for the security of the Police Memorial Building (PMB). The responsibility for the security of all other JSO facilities rests with the highest-ranking officer or his designee assigned to the building.
district commanders
Chief of Support Services
190
Order 361 Intelligence:
Heightened Levels of Securities:
Should an Elevated Threat Alert be issued, the ___________ shall inform the Undersheriff and/or the Sheriff and other department directors and immediately institute the appropriate security precautions commensurate with the current alert status.
Director of Investigations & Homeland Security
191
Order 361 Intelligence:
Bomb Threats to Critical Infrastructures and Military Installations
1. Intelligence Unit detectives are responsible for follow-up investigations for bomb threats to critical infrastructure locations or military installations. Intelligence Unit detectives shall have primary investigative responsibility and the on-call Intelligence detective shall be contacted.
2. Intelligence Unit detectives shall coordinate investigative efforts with the Integrity & Special Investigations Unit on bomb threats targeting government entities and law enforcement facilities.
3. Bomb threats to individuals or businesses are _______. In the event Patrol needs assistance from the Intelligence Unit, the on-call Intelligence detective shall be contacted.
Patrol follow-up
192
Order 363 Marine:
The _______________ is the primary investigative agency for all boating accidents which occur on the inland waters of the State.
Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC)
193
Order 363 Marine:
Operators of any boat involved in an accident or collision (in, on, entering, or leaving the water) where any injury, death, or disappearance of any person from on board, or total property damage of _____, are required by Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) 327.30 to report the accident or collision to the FWC.
$2,000 or more
194
Order 363 Marine:
FWC's decision to respond to the scene is at their discretion.
(a) FWC may not respond to accident cases with only property damage or cases where the injuries were minor, and all parties have left the scene;
(b) Officers shall advise the operators of those vessels that they are still required to notify FWC of the accident and/or collision within ______; and
(c) Accidents or collisions with damages totaling less than $2,000 (property damage only - no injuries or death) require no report.
24 hours
195
Order 364 Dive:
The Dive Team will be called out 24 hours a day when:
1. A vehicle is fully or partially submerged in water, to include environments where proper personal protective equipment (PPE) is required (i.e., wetlands or shallow areas). This does not apply to victims or objects that could reasonably be recovered without unnecessary exposure to Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) personnel or contracted individuals (i.e., wrecker drivers);
2. Suicidal or missing persons are believed to be in the water;
3. Boat crashes with missing boaters or vehicle crashes with ejections into the water; and
4. Anytime a supervisor determines the Dive Team can significantly help the investigation.
196
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Unless a suspected item or hazardous device has been located, the victim's representative in authority has the right to make the decisions of whether or not to search the scene and whether or not to evacuate.
If the building or structure is a city-owned facility, JSO has the authority to determine if the facility will be searched.
d. If a threat, suspected device, or hazardous device has been located, JSO shall immediately order an evacuation.
197
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
If the scene is to be searched, the on-scene supervisor shall establish a temporary command post upwind, uphill, and at least _____ from the scene when the terrain and situation allows, and organize search teams.
1,000 feet
All communications should take place at the command post. No communications shall take place over any electronic device, which would emit an electrical or radio frequency impulse (i.e., radios, cellular telephones, or Mobile Computer Aided Dispatch [MCAD]) within 1,000 feet of the area where a suspected device or area of search is located.
198
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
If the scene is to be evacuated during the search:
(1) The persons being evacuated shall proceed to a location of at least _____ from the scene, regardless of protective barricade
1,000 feet
199
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
At the conclusion of all searches, the _________ shall notify the victim’s representative in authority and the PECO supervisor of the results of the search.
on-scene supervisor
If no device is found do not state “THERE IS NO BOMB;” only state, “the search did not reveal a bomb.”
200
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
If the threat involves a critical infrastructure or military installation, the on-call ________ detective shall be notified and shall have investigative responsibilities for the case.
Intelligence Unit
If the threat involves a government or law enforcement facility, the Intelligence Unit shall coordinate investigative resources with the Integrity Unit
201
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Suspicious Packages and Hazardous Devices
The minimum evacuation distance shall be ______ with or without a protective barricade.
1,000 feet
Unless told otherwise by HDU
After the scene is cleared and released by investigating authorities, the watch Lieutenant shall ensure the owner or agent has notified to secure the location, if applicable.
202
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Suspicious Packages and Hazardous Devices
Evidence & Follow-Up Procedures
a. If the threat or suspect item is RSP’d, no explosive material is found, or it is not a “Hoax” device, the suspect item shall be turned over to patrol for follow-up.
b. If the suspect item or hazardous device is RSP’d and explosive material is found, the device and contents shall be processed by HDU and a crime scene detective.
c. The Intelligence Unit shall be responsible for the follow-up investigation where explosive material is found, there is evidence of a hoax device, or there is suspect information.
203
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Post-Blast Scenes
After life safety measures have been implemented, officers should note the location of debris and potential fragments from the blast and establish an inner perimeter at least ________ wider than the debris located farthest from the seat of the blast
50 percent
(e.g., debris located 200 feet from the epicenter would require an inner perimeter no less than 300 feet from the epicenter).
204
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
CBRNE Threats or Releases
By federal law, the _______ is the lead investigating agency for all terrorist incidents.
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
205
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
CBRNE Threats or Releases
Notify the PECO and responding officers immediately, advising the location of the suspected release and, if known, the wind direction, weather conditions, and a recommended rally point and Command Post upwind, uphill, and at least _____ from the outside of the suspected contaminated area
1,000 feet
206
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Depending upon the type of agent released, and the potential for further contamination, the ________ may impose a quarantine or isolation order for persons or areas.
Florida Department of Health
207
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
A CBRNE event could possibly fall into the parameters for a Type ______ All Hazards operations.
Types 1, 2, or 3
208
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Unknown Substance or “White Powder” Incidents
When responding to an incident involving a suspicious substance or package that has not been opened, officers shall:
Do not touch the package, ask to meet away form the package, if inside tell the complainant to shut down the HVAC, notify supervisor, and
At a minimum, wear a High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) mask and disposable latex or nitrile gloves if contact with the package is unavoidable.
209
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Signs that might indicate a chemical suicide are:
(1) Vehicle doors may be locked;
(2) Window and door seams may be taped or sealed;
(3) A warning note advising others to not enter the vehicle, structure, or confined space; and
(4) Chemical containers, labeled or unlabeled, may be visible.
210
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
A ______ perimeter should be established around the scene of the chemical suicide incident and persons inside should be evacuated.
1,000 foot
211
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Radiation – Personal Radiation Detectors (PRDs)
By implementing proper controls at the scene of an incident involving radioactive material, radiation exposure to first responders can be kept to a minimum by:
a. Minimizing the time in a field of radiation;
b. Maximizing the distance from the source of radiation; and
c. Maximizing the amount of shielding between the responder and the source of radiation.
212
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
If an officer’s PRD detects an elevated radiation level in the area or while driving by, he should:
(1) Verify the alarm by repeating the detection process.
(a) Recheck vehicles, persons, or packages suspected of causing the alarm:
(i) If a person is carrying a suspected package, separate the person from the package to verify the alarm; and
(ii) If a package is unattended, do not survey the item. Establish a ______ perimeter and follow procedures outlined in this order.
1,000 foot
213
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
The perimeter for possible radiological sources is determined by the locate process and measure of the alarm as indicated by the PRD. Any perimeter shall be established by
HDU and JFRD HAZMAT.
214
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Disposal of Commercial and Consumer Fireworks
When commercial fireworks are recovered or seized by officers, the following guidelines shall be followed:
a. Contact the on-call Supervisor of HDU;
b. The responding HDU technicians shall take custody of the fireworks; and
c. They shall be properly logged as evidence or recovered property by the investigating officer.
215
Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:
UAS Detectives shall respond in support of Eagle Eye Program to any of the following:
1. Counter a high risk of terrorist attack by a specific individual or organization;
2. Provide an aerial perspective of a crowd of 50 or more people with respect to personal safety and protecting the U.S. Constitutional rights of citizens. These missions must be at the direction, and with the authorization of, the Commander of Special Operations or the
Sheriff’s designee;
3. Collect digital multimedia evidence (DME) at a crime scene or traffic crash when requested by the Investigations Division;
4. Assist any mission with an approved search warrant;
5. Collect DME for damage assessments during a declared state of emergency;
6. Participate in any emergency operation deemed applicable by the Commander of Special Operations, or any of the exigent circumstances listed; and
7. Provide situational awareness to decision makers, incident command personnel, and first responders responding to emergency situations.
216
Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:
Only officers designated by the _________ are authorized to operate UAS aircraft and UAS equipment owned or leased by JSO.
Commander of Special Operations
217
Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:
For purposes of this section, a person is presumed to have a reasonable expectation to privacy on his or her privately owned real property if he or she is not observable by persons located at _____ in a place where they have a legal right to be, regardless of whether he or she is observable from the air with the use of a UAS.
ground level
218
Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:
At a minimum, per FAA policy, no UAS shall be flown unless there are at least ___ people dedicated to the entirety of the flight, a pilot-in-command/control and a visual observer.
two people
219
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
The purchase of contraband, controlled substances, or other items that are material to a criminal investigation from a target offender, which is initiated, managed, overseen, or participated in by law enforcement personnel with the knowledge of a confidential informant.
Controlled Buy
220
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
Refers to information with respect to an identifiable person or group of persons collected by a criminal justice agency to anticipate, prevent, or monitor possible criminal activity.
Criminal Intelligence Information
221
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
Refers to information with respect to an identifiable person or group of persons compiled by a criminal justice agency while conducting a criminal investigation of a specific act or omission. This includes, but is not limited to, information derived from laboratory tests, reports of investigators or informants, or any type of surveillance.
Criminal Investigative Information
222
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
A patrol officer needing to use a CI, which has not been certified, shall adhere to the following procedures:
(1) Obtain a supervisor’s approval;
(2) Submit a complete set of fingerprints to the Identification Unit to be checked for positive identification and a National Crime Information Center (NCIC) and Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC) warrants check;
(3) Check the individual’s arrest file for a history of violence and to determine if they are on probation or parole. If the individual is on probation or parole that person shall not be utilized as a CI unless approved in advance by the court or Florida Commission on Offender Review (FCOR) through their probation officer. Once approved by the court or FCOR, approval from the ____________ must be obtained. The complete CI packet shall be submitted by hand or intraoffice mail through the chain of command to the ________ for his review and approval;
(4) If the individual has no record, secure a full set of fingerprints and a photograph for the file;
(5) Complete an informant file for the individual in accordance with this order and then return it to the Narcotics & Vice Section within _______.
Director of Investigations & Homeland Security
Director of Investigations & Homeland Security
72 hours
A narcotics or vice detective must be called prior to deferring any arrest (including a physical arrest or NTA
223
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
A confidential identifying code number shall be assigned to each informant by the _____.
Commander of Narcotics & Vice or his designee.
An electronic master informant index, organized alphabetically by last name and by informant code number, shall be maintained by the Commander of Narcotics & Vice.
Access to the CI files for review, notations, and upkeep is restricted to the Commander of Narcotics & Vice or his designee.
224
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
In the event a CI is inactive for a period of _________, the CI’s confidential file shall be updated by completing a new Form P-1689 (Confidential Informant Intelligence Report Form) and a new Form P-1682 (Cooperating Individual Agreement Form). The file shall be reviewed, and a criminal history check shall be completed prior to the person being reactivated as an informant. This review shall be conducted by the Commander of Narcotics & Vice or his designee.
six months or more
225
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
____officers shall conduct personal interviews of sources or CIs. In the event a second officer is not available, the supervisor shall respond to serve as the second officer.
Two
226
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
Precautions shall always be used when dealing with informants of the opposite sex. There should always be _______.
two officers present.
227
Order 381 Street Level Narcotics:
Under the following circumstances officers shall contact their Patrol supervisor who shall respond to the scene and request notification of a narcotics detective if the below criteria are met:
1. Arrests involving trafficking amounts of narcotics when the suspect is willing to cooperate with a narcotics detective;
2. The seizure of United States (U.S.) currency in excess of $5,000; and/or
3. Arrests involving individuals who are willing and capable of providing additional narcotics information.
228
Order 381 Street Level Narcotics:
Officers seizing trafficking amounts of narcotics (e.g., one ounce cocaine, four grams heroin, 25 pounds marijuana, 10 grams methylenedioxymethamphetamine [MDMA] pills) shall:
a. Field test the controlled substance;
b. Contact their supervisor and request notification of a narcotics detective if the suspect is willing to cooperate with a narcotics detective;
c. Ensure all items of evidence are individually bagged to prevent contamination of possible forensic evidence and are then secured in a larger bag by the responding supervisor. The supervisor shall then seal the bag with tape and add his initials prior to the evidence being transported to the Property & Evidence Facility;
d. If Property & Evidence Facility personnel receive a bag with a broken seal, they shall notify the supervisor who originally signed the seal who shall respond and verify the contents and determine why the seal was broken; and
e. The submitting officer shall then submit all items of evidence into the Property & Evidence Facility following the guidelines listed in Order 481 (Property & Evidence
229
Order 385 Clandestine Laboratory Enforcement:
Establish a perimeter between _______feet around the site to ensure proper safety and security. Do not permit anyone to enter until the scene is turned over to CLET. Officers will work with responding CLET members on evacuation requirements of surrounding area;
fifty to one hundred (50–100)
230
Order 387 Drug Abatement Response:
Anytime a search warrant is obtained related to the above listed items, the DART unit must be notified before the warrant is executed.
a. Illegal drug activities;
b. Gang related activities;
c. Prostitution;
d. Dog fighting;
e. Alcohol violations;
f. Human trafficking; and/or
g. Illegal gambling.
231
Order 387 Drug Abatement Response:
Any DART request that may result in the condemnation of any hotels, motels, or apartment communities must be approved through the _____.
COJ Fire Marshal.
232
Order 394 Police Impound Facility:
When a covert/warehouse vehicle is involved in a crash or damaged property incident, a supervisor must conduct an __________ as outlined in Order 572 (Professional Oversight). The completed Blue Team report and any other associated documents will be sent or faxed to the Police Impound Warehouse at (904) 630-0216.
administrative investigation
When a police impound facility vehicle is wrecked during normal business hours the police impound facility. Staff shall determine if a city wreckers available to recover the vehicle. If not, a contract wrecker shall be called to tow the vehicle to the police impound facility.
After normal business hours, the vehicle should be towed via Top of the List. (TOL) procedures.
233
Order 394 Police Impound Facility:
To aid in minimizing the inventory of held vehicles, the Warehouse Unit will ______ send a complete list of all vehicles being held for evidence to the State Attorney’s Office (SAO) Homicide Director and the Lieutenant of any unit for which a vehicle is being held.
Quarterly
234
Order 395 Forfeiture:
Real estate may be seized only after approval from the ________ is received and the owner of the property is afforded a lis pendens hearing pursuant to the provisions of the FCFA.
The determination of whether JSO should file a civil forfeiture action shall be made by the_______ or his designee who is not directly involved in making the seizure.
Lieutenant of Forfeiture Unit
The seizure warrant can be obtained by contacting the Civil Forfeitures Attorney at the State Attorney’s Office (SAO).
235
Order 395 Forfeiture:
Each property item being seized shall be listed individually. Within the original ARMS Incident Report, a separate Forfeiture Request shall be completed for ________ being seized.
each property item
236
Order 395 Forfeiture:
Vehicle Seized as follows:
a. Any vehicle that was used in the commission of a felony or was the proceeds of felony activity, is eligible for seizure and shall be seized unless there is an “Innocent Owner.”
b. Any vehicle driven by a Habitual Traffic Offender (HTO) is eligible for seizure and shall be seized unless there is an “Innocent Owner.”
c. If making a driving under the influence (DUI) arrest and the violator’s license is under current suspension, revoked, or cancelled as a result of a prior DUI conviction, the vehicle is, pursuant to F.S.S., subject to seizure and forfeiture under the provisions of the FCFA and shall be seized, unless there is an “Innocent Owner.”
d. Suspensions for driving with an unlawful blood alcohol level, failure to submit to breath/urine blood test, or a recent arrest for DUI but the license is not suspended for DUI, do not fall under the FCFA and therefore are not eligible for seizure based on that suspension alone.
237
Order 351 Stakeouts and Surveillance:
Prior to the start of the stakeout operation, the supervisor shall conduct an operational briefing about the operation. The following items shall be covered in the briefing:
a. Goals of the operation;
b. Assignments during the operation;
c. Radio talk-group to be used;
d. Ensure all equipment, body armor, and visible police markings are with the officers;
e. Any special hazards or dangers;
f. Emergency contingency plans; and
g. Ensure that officers are aware of the Jacksonville Sheriff's Office (JSO) policy and procedures for response to resistance and vehicle pursuits.
238
Order 372 Confidential Informants:
Each sergeant assigned to the Major Case, Mid-Level, Street-Level, and Vice Squads, shall conduct _____ random informant inspection monthly, to include a face-to-face interview. During the interview, the sergeant shall verify adherence to JSO policy regarding the use of informants.
one
239
Order 310 Investigations:
When detainees are transported to the PMB, detainees shall be separated by gender and adults shall be separated from juveniles unless an
investigative advantage exists and there is constant supervision or observation.
240
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
If a warrant is not served in a timely manner or the officer decides to let it lapse, the warrant shall be returned as unserved within
15 Days
241
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Prior to the service of any search warrant, the supervisor and officer shall, when possible:
1) determine the number of persons present in their identities;
2) determine if the occupants are armed;
3) determine if children are present;
4) check criminal histories when possible; and
5) check for dogs or other animals and determine how they are to be handled.
242
Order 301 Search and Seizure:
Emergency Situation -
Officers may make a warrantless nonconsensual entry into a residence or other property whenever there is a reasonable belief that:
1) A person inside is in medical distress;
2) a person inside is in danger of being injured; and
3) a person or object inside poses and eminent danger to citizens, to officers, or to the property of the public.
243
Order 302 Filing Cases and Attending Court:
Court Appearances Outside Duval County
Any member who receives a subpoena or request to attend any court-related function
outside Duval County shall immediately notify his lieutenant.
2. The lieutenant shall contact the issuing authority and:
a. If a subpoena was not issued, request that one be sent via mail;
b. Request that any deposition or pretrial conference be held in Duval County, if possible;
and
c. Request the issuing authority minimize the amount of time the member is away from
Duval County.
244
Order 302 Filing Cases and Attending Court:
When a case has not been properly investigated, the SAO will notify the _______, who shall coordinate with the assigned member’s chain of command to ensure the appropriate corrective and/or disciplinary actions are taken.
Chief of Investigations
245
Order 310 Investigations:
All items, except _______, shall be removed from an interviewee prior to being placed in the interview room.
Money and jewelry
246
Order 302 Filing Cases and Attending Court:
When an officer leaves the agency, his last assigned ________ shall ensure all active arrest warrants under the officer’s name are reassigned to current officers by using the “Reassign Officer” function in eWarrants.
Lieutenant
247
Order 302 Filing Cases and Attending Court:
The warrant shall then be approved by a sergeant or higher, affirming the affidavit has been reviewed and contains probable cause prior to submission to the SAO for review. A ___________ shall not approve the warrant in place of a sergeant or higher.
police officer-in-charge (PIC)
248
Order 310 investigations:
All detectives and patrol officers shall be trained and interview room usage. Retraining Shelby offered at least once every ______
Three years
249
Order 320 Cold Case:
When investigating any mysterious disappearance of a child of tender years (age 11 or under) or confirmed non-custodial abduction, the supervisor of cold case unit shall ensure the ______ is notified.
FBI
250
Order 320 Cold Case:
All BWC footage involved in the officer-involved shooting shall be provided to the SAO Officer Involved Critical Incident (OICI) team within ____ of the incident.
The investigation summary shall be submitted to the SAO OICI team within ____ of the incident.
24 hours
30 days
251
Order 321 Homicide:
Local notification procedure is not involving homicide or traffic homicide-
The on duty ________ shall make the next of kin notification.
Patrol supervisor and one additional officer
252
Order 321 Homicide:
Next of Kin notification -
When requested by a supervisor, the designated JSO chaplain shall be contacted, and shall notify the victims next of kin when:
1) The victim is an employee or employees, family member; or
2) The victim/employee, or the family of the victim/employee, request the designated JSO Chaplain
The JSO Chaplain and FOP president shall be notified, for information only, of all incidents involving death or serious injury of any employee or family member of any employee of the JSO.
253
Order 321 Homicide:
Removal of body/human remains is the sole responsibility of the medical examiner’s office.
Human remains, shall not be transported in any JSO vehicle without the express approval of the _______
Commander of Major Case or higher authority
254
Order 339 Latent Print:
Court orders to obtain fingerprints for Judgment and Sentencing cases with no prior LPU involvement are handled by the _____
AFIS Unit
255
Order 338 Crime Scene:
Recoveries from jurisdictions other than Duval, Clay, Nassau, St. Johns, or Baker County ____ be processed unless requested by another agency or when deemed necessary by a supervisor. This includes cases where a suspect was apprehended.
shall not
256
Order 343 Automated License Plate Recognition:
The _______ shall assign an a ALPR administrator to manage the AL PR system.
Director of Investigations & Homeland Security
257
Order 343 Automated License Plate Recognition:
Portable ALPR systems should be managed by the _____ with regard to:
Storage, Assignment, and Deployment
Crime Analysis Unit, and the Real Time Crime Center (RTCC)
258
Order 343 Automated License Plate Recognition:
Unless submitted as evidence, ALPR data should be purged automatically at the conclusion of the _____
Three-year period
259
Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:
Eagle Eye Program officers shall respond to any of the following:
Suspects fleeing from apprehension. This program can only be used under the laws regarding the _____ and not in a surveillance capacity
fresh pursuit standard
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) – Governs all air space in the United States (U.S.)
260
Order 395 Forfeiture:
Cash Seizures -
The minimum currency only seizure is ___ when a nexus can be proven between the money and the felony activity. If a vehicle is seized in conjunction with other assets, then any amount can be seized;
If the seizure is currency of ___ or more, a supervisor shall respond to the scene;
$750
$5,000
The supervisor shall determine if the money is not to be counted at the scene. If the money is not counted at the scene, the supervisor shall have the reason documented on the forfeiture paperwork;
The supervisor responding shall ensure all of the currency is securely bagged and sealed with tape along with his initials on the bag;
261
Order 363 Marine:
__________ are responsible for the civil removal of derelict vessels upon state waters, specifically within the City of Jacksonville.
The City of Jacksonville Environmental Quality Division (EQD) and the FWC
262
Order 365 Hazardous Devices:
Request for HDU shall be made through the Investigative police Dispatcher by a _________
Watch Lieutenant, designated, or higher authority — 24 hours a day
