Order 300's

Question 1

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

In-person warrant requests will only be permitted for:

Answer 1

(1) The Integrity & Special Investigations Unit (ISIU); or

(2) When a sworn member who has received prior approval from a DEPARTMENT DIRECTOR or higher authority.

Question 2

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

Execution of Search Warrants for Premise(s), Structure(s), and/or Conveyance(s)

The Supervisor in charge shall:

Authorize and coordinate the execution of the warrant and ensure that a Narcotics Information Network Joint Agency System (NINJAS) de-confliction request has been completed and submitted at least _______ prior to the warrant being served.

Answer 2

two hours

AND

Be present throughout the execution of the warrant

Question 3

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

Execution of Search Warrants for Premise(s), Structure(s), and/or Conveyance(s)

Supervisors shall designate officers to search specific areas. A minimum of ____ officers shall be assigned per room.

Answer 3

two

Question 4

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

Execution of a Search Warrant in Order to Obtain Biological Samples

The supervisor in charge of the execution of a search warrant which has been issued for the purpose of obtaining a biological sample(s) (e.g., hair, saliva, blood etc.) shall:

Answer 4

Coordinate and be present during the execution of the warrant

Question 5

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

Inventory of Seized Items

All individually bagged items of evidence shall be secured in a larger bag by the supervisor in charge of the search warrant. The supervisor shall check the inventory for completeness and seal the bag with tape and his initials and ID number. The sergeant shall write “Search Warrant” on the outer bag and provide their immediate contact information.

Answer 5

The bag should only be opened by Property Room personnel only

Question 6

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

Return of a Search Warrant

In eWarrants, the search warrant and inventory shall be electronically returned within ____ days of service to a judge for the judge’s signature and to convey to the judge the outcome of the search.

Answer 6

10

A copy of the return should be left with a person named on the warrant, a person at the premises, or in a conspicuous place at the premises.

Question 7

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

Warrantless Searches

Examples are: PEACH IT

Answer 7

Protective Sweep
Exigent Circumstances
Arrest
Consent
Hot (fresh) Pursuit
Inventory Search
Terry Stop

Question 8

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

Warantless Searches

Whenever an item is in a location where it can be observed by a person, without that person doing something illegal in order to observe it, then that object is considered to be in ___

Answer 8

“plain view.”

Question 9

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

_________ are warranted for three reasons:

(1) Protecting the owner’s property;
(2) Protecting the police against lost or stolen property claims; and
(3) Protecting the police from potential danger.

Answer 9

Inventory searches

Upon the impoundment of a vehicle, watercraft, or aircraft, an inventory search shall be conducted as per Order 335 (Wrecker Regulation) unless evidentiary processing is being conducted.

Question 10

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

If officers reasonably believe there is evidence of a crime in a residence or other property, and that such evidence would dissipate or be destroyed before a search warrant could be obtained, entry may be made for the purpose of preserving that evidence.E

Answer 10

Evanescent Evidence

Question 11

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

Officers are required to seek an arrest warrant within ______ after probable cause has been established for the arrest of the suspect.

Answer 11

36 hours

Question 12

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

If an arrest warrant has been approved by a judge but new information indicates an arrest would no longer be appropriate or valid, the officer shall:

Answer 12

a. Contact the Warrants Unit ([904] 630-2202)and request that the warrant be placed in a “Recall Pending” status;
b. Contact the SAO to have the arrest warrant recalled; and
c. Complete a Supplemental Report

Question 13

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

Officers are not required to file an affidavit when an arrest only involved:

Answer 13

a. Misdemeanor offenses or municipal ordinance violations;
b. Violations of probation;
c. Charges pursuant to a capias; or
d. Charges pursuant to an arrest warrant obtained by another agency.

Question 14

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

For a felony arrest that requires a filing affidavit, the arresting officer shall prepare and submit the filing affidavit unless the arrest was:

Answer 14

a. From a Category C case, as defined in Order 210 (Patrol Function), in which case the assigned detective shall file on the arrest;
b. Pursuant to a warrant obtained by a detective, in which case the detective that obtained the warrant shall file on the arrest; or
c. Made by a dual-certified officer (DCO) pursuant to a local arrest warrant, in which case the officer or detective who obtained the arrest warrant shall file on the case.

Question 15

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

Within _____ of a felony arrest, the member responsible for filing on that arrest shall:

a. Complete a transmittal filing packet containing:

Answer 15

24 hours

Question 16

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

Requests for leniency or assistance for defendants without the approval of a ________ or higher authority are strictly prohibited

When a Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) member believes that leniency for a defendant could be exchanged for information that would lead to the arrest of another suspect on a more substantial charge, the member shall, with the approval of his _______, discuss the circumstances with a
department director or higher authority, who shall determine if the member is permitted to make this request.

Answer 16

department director

chain of command

Question 17

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

The Civil Process Unit shall not accept a subpoena or notice of deposition if:

Answer 17

(1) The appearance date is less than five (5) days, or seven (7) days if a weekend or holiday is included in that five-day period, from the date of service (this refers to the date the Civil Process Unit receives the subpoena, not the date on which the officer ultimately receives it);
(2) The member is not scheduled to work before the appearance date; or
(3) The subpoena or notice is for someone who is no longer a member of JSO.

Question 18

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

When a member is served with a subpoena or given a notice of deposition, he is _________, no matter how little time there is between his receipt of the document and the scheduled appearance.

Answer 18

required to appear

Question 19

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

Supervisors shall ensure the subpoena receipt, if applicable, is kept for _______ from the appearance date listed on the subpoena, after which it may be destroyed.

Answer 19

30 days

Question 20

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

Upon receipt of a subpoena or notice of deposition, if a member cannot make the required appearance, he shall immediately notify the issuing authority of the reason.

Answer 20

(1) For a Traffic Court subpoena, the member shall contact the Court Liaison Office.

(2) For a Florida Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles (FLHSMV) License Suspension Hearing subpoena, the member shall notify the local FLHSMV office. If not notified by the conclusion of the hearing, the FLHSMV will immediately overturn the license suspension.

Question 21

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

The wearing of any JSO uniform, JSO insignia, or weapon while attending a personal court proceeding is ______

Answer 21

strictly prohibited.

Question 22

Order 302 Filing Cases & Attending Court:

When a member is placed in a standby status for a court appearance, he shall remain in a place that will allow him to appear in court within ______ of being notified.

Answer 22

one hour

Question 23

Order 303 Emergency Opioid Antagonist Treatment:

__________ is the generic form of Narcan and is issued by JSO

Answer 23

Naloxone

Question 24

Order 303 Emergency Opioid Antagonist Treatment:

On an _________ the commanding officer shall ensure a full visual inspection of all Naloxone is conducted and documented to verify that expiration dates have not been exceeded.

Missing, damaged, or expired Naloxone kit(s) shall immediately be reported to the JSO
member’s ___________; and

Requests for replacement of the Naloxone shall be made through the applicable unit
commanding officer.

Answer 24

annual basis (within a 12-month timeframe form the documented date)

supervisor

Question 25

Order 310 Investigations:

The use of investigative task forces shall be approved by:

Answer 25

Chief of Investigations

Question 26

Order 310 Investigations:

Adults placed in an interview room shall be visually observed every ____ minutes and unattended juveniles placed in an interview room shall be visually observed every ____ minutes. The only exception to this requirement would be if exigent circumstances exist. At no time shall the period between visual observations exceed 30 minutes, and all observations shall be documented on a Form P-0202 (Holding/Interview Room Observation Form).

Answer 26

15 mins for adults

10 mins for Juveniles

Question 27

Order 310 Investigations:

When a detective transports a detainee from any JSO secured facility, it shall require ______ approval and _______ present

Answer 27

Supervisor approval

two sworn officers

Question 28

Order 310 Investigations:

To avoid a violation of federal law, once the juvenile is placed in a secure custody status, the secure custody cannot exceed ______ before the juvenile must be delivered to the appropriate juvenile detention facility or released.

Answer 28

six hours

If an interview continues for a period longer than six hours, the juvenile shall be placed in an unlocked interview room and be continuously monitored by a sworn officer or detective to comply with federal non-secure custody status requirements.

Question 29

Order 310 Investigations:

An administrative review shall be conducted at least once every ______ years by the _________ or his designee of the interview rooms and unit procedures under his command to ensure compliance with state and federal laws.

Answer 29

three

Assistant Chief of Property Crimes & Investigative Support

Question 30

Order 310 Investigations:

The commanding officer or his designee of each unit shall inspect each interview room under his command, at least, _____.

Answer 30

monthly

Question 31

Order 310 Investigations:

All Investigations personnel shall be sufficiently trained in the use of the audio/video recording system; and

Any deviation from this policy shall be approved by the

Answer 31

Assistant Chief of Major Case, the Assistant Chief of Property Crimes & Investigative Support, or the Assistant Chief of Violence Reduction or higher authority and properly documented in the case file.

Question 32

Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:

The showing of a single photograph for identification purposes is prohibited, unless the subject is personally known by the victim or witness and the photograph is shown merely to confirm identity. Prior to showing a single photograph, a
_______ must be notified and approve the use of the single photograph for identification purposes. The ________ approval must be documented in the Incident or Supplemental Report

Answer 32

supervisor

Question 33

Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:

When a Functional Equivalent Procedure is used, all photo array procedures will remain the same with the exception of the following:

Answer 33

(a) Prior to presenting the photographs to the victim or witness, the administrator will remove the photographs from the envelope, randomly shuffle them face down and then return them into the envelope face down in front of the witness.

(b) The administrator shall then position himself where he is unable to see the photographs as the witness views them.

Question 34

Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:

When creating a photo array, The potential suspect’s photo shall be grouped with ____ other filler photographs.

Answer 34

five

Question 35

Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:

A photo array shall be created using one of the following options:

Answer 35

(1) The officer/detective shall use the JSO Photo-Imaging Capture System (JPICS) or Driver License image that most resembles the suspect’s appearance at the time of the crime;

(2) If the use of JPICS is not conducive to developing a photographic line-up, then the officer/detective shall use the High Intensity Drug Trafficking Area (HIDTA).

(3) The final option is to use FaceLogics. This resource shall only be used for felony offenses when the first two options have failed at producing a photographic lineup. The use of FaceLogics must be approved by a watch commander or unit commanding officer prior to submitting a request.

Question 36

Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:

Field show-ups generally should be conducted within _____ of the crime being reported, unless extraordinary circumstances exist.

and shall be conducted with supervisory approval and direction

Answer 36

three hours

Question 37

Order 311 Photographic Line-Ups and Field Show-Ups:
Preparing for the Show-up

Regardless of whether a positive identification was made by the witness, photographs of the ______ shall be obtained to depict his or her appearance at the time the show-up was conducted.

Answer 37

detained individual

Question 38

Order 315 CGIC:

CGIC Supervisor should be notified of the following:

When a burglary, attempted burglary, or theft of a firearm occurs to a business with a Federal Firearms License where firearms are sold (i.e., gun dealer, pawn shop, etc.);
2. When a suspect is arrested for Possession of a Firearm by a Convicted Felon (PFCF) and meets one of the following criteria:

Answer 38

a. The suspect has a prior PFCF conviction;

b. The suspect has two prior felony convictions (drug possession convictions may only be counted as one, regardless of the number of convictions) and the last conviction or release from incarceration is within five years. This makes the subject a Habitual Offender; or

c. The suspect has been convicted of an enumerated violent felony and the conviction or release from incarceration is within five years. This makes the suspect a Habitual Violent Felony Offender.

Question 39

Order 321 Homicide:

When a death occurs and there is no attending physician, it is a

Answer 39

Medical Examiner’s case.

Question 40

Order 321 Homicide:

If a physician will sign the death certificate but there is no known next of kin or it is an indigent case, transportation of the remains will be by

Answer 40

the funeral home under contract with
the City of Jacksonville (COJ) Welfare Division

Question 41

Order 321 Homicide:

When a situation exists in which family members are present and they cannot decide which funeral home to call,

Answer 41

officers shall contact NCIC and request the contract funeral home respond to take possession of the body.

Question 42

Order 321 Homicide:

When the death is a Medical Examiner’s case, personal property on the body of the deceased will be inventoried by the ________ and in the presence of the investigating officer.

Answer 42

Medical Examiner’s staff at the scene

Question 43

Order 321 Homicide:

When the death is a non-Medical Examiner’s case, JSO personnel should be involved as little as possible in handling the personal property on the body of the deceased. The officer should not handle the property at all if the death occurs at home with the next of kin present or at a health care facility

Answer 43

If circumstances are such that a family member at the scene cannot take the property, the officer shall turn property over to the funeral home personnel.

Question 44

Order 321 Homicide:

Generally, on an outdoor crime scene, a minimum ____ inner perimeter is recommended, with an extended outer perimeter established.

Answer 44

100-foot

Question 45

Order 321 Homicide:

If the offense of kidnapping is committed in conjunction with at least two other reported offenses of the same incident and the victim is still missing at the time of the report, a separate report (with a separate CCR number) shall be written for the kidnapping.

Answer 45

If there are two offenses being reported and one is kidnapping, both offenses may be recorded on the same report.

Question 46

Order 321 Homicide:

The Missing Person section of the Incident Report or Supplemental Report (for local, previously reported, or located victims) shall be completed for ___ kidnapping cases

Answer 46

ALL

Question 47

Order 321 Homicide:

A Florida Emergency Child Alert (FEMCA) shall be initiated in all cases involving the suspected abduction of a child. The decision to utilize FEMCA rests with the

Answer 47

Commanding Officer of Homicide Unit or higher authority.

Question 48

Order 321 Homicide:

Attempted Kidnappings:

(1) If the motivation is unknown and the victim is 17 years of age or younger, a _______ shall be notified;

(2) If the motivation is unknown and the victim is 18 years of age or older, a ______ shall be notified;

(3) If the circumstances indicate the motive was to conduct a robbery, a _____ shall be notified regardless of the age of the victim; or

(4) If the circumstances indicate the motive was potentially sex crimes related, then a ______ shall be notified, regardless of the age of the victim.

Answer 48

(1) Special Assault Unit (SAU) detective

(2) Homicide Unit detective

(3) Robbery Unit detective

(4) SAU detective

If the suspect’s are arrested in the above cases, the appropriate unit should conduct an interview of the suspect.

Question 49

Order 321 Homicide:

Officers shall notify the _______, regardless of the motivation or age, when the victim is still missing at the time of the report

Answer 49

Homicide Unit

Question 50

Order 321 Homicide:

Interviews of interference with custody suspects, if needed, shall be conducted by a _____, regardless of the time of day.

Answer 50

Missing Persons Unit detective

Question 51

Order 322 Missing Persons:

After the immediate search of area, neighborhood canvass, and contact with relatives and friends has been conducted by Patrol personnel, an on-call Missing Persons detective and supervisor shall be notified by the responding patrol supervisor, for any of the criteria below:

Answer 51

a. Children 11 years of age or younger;
b. Any Person reported to be suffering from dementia and/or Alzheimer’s disease.
c. Mentally incompetent individuals (to the extent the person is unable to care for themselves and their daily activities are limited and constantly monitored because of their condition); or
d. Elderly persons (60 years of age or older) who are out of character; or medically and/or mentally at risk of death.

Question 52

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Immediately upon patrol personnel identifying and verifying that there is clear evidence of foul play (any aged person),

Answer 52

an on-call Missing Persons detective shall be notified by the
responding patrol supervisor

Question 53

Order 322 Missing Persons:

A missing adult, pursuant to Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) 937.0201, is a person:

Answer 53

a. Who is 18 years of age or older;
b. Whose temporary or permanent residence is in, or believed to be in, this state and last seen in Duval County;
c. Whose location has not been determined; and
d. Who has been reported to a law enforcement agency.

Question 54

Order 322 Missing Persons:

A missing juvenile is a person who could be one or more of the following criteria:

Answer 54

a. 11 years of age and younger;
b. 12-17 years of age who has never previously been reported missing;
c. Foul play is suspected;
d. A threat of self-harm exists;
e. A clear and present endangerment for the child exists. Examples include, but are not
limited to, being:
(1) Autistic;
(2) Blind;
(3) Confined to a wheelchair;
(4) Deaf; and
(5) Incapable of self-care.
f. The child has disappeared without explanation and there is no reasonable explanation
(i.e., family dispute, ungovernable, etc.) for their disappearance and an immediate
search is warranted.

Question 55

Order 322 Missing Persons:

A missing/runaway juvenile is a person who:

Answer 55

a. Is 12-17 years of age;
b. Has been previously reported as missing at least one or more times; and
c. Does not fall under the criteria listed above.

Question 56

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Scent Preservation Kit – Individuals for whom the scent preservation kits shall be utilized include missing persons who have:

Answer 56

a. Alzheimer’s disease or another form of dementia;
b. Autism;
c. A debilitating disease; or
d. Eloped (ran) more than once.

Question 57

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Search procedures are categorized as either an

Answer 57

immediate search, a Missing Endangered Person Search and Rescue (MEPSAR) Phase 1, or a MEPSAR Phase 2 search.

Question 58

Order 322 Missing Persons:

An immediate search, at a minimum, should be conducted for any missing person under the following criteria:

Answer 58

The missing person is mentally incompetent to include being identified as, or suffering
from:
(1) Dementia;
(2) Alzheimer’s disease;
(3) Autism;
(4) Down Syndrome; and/or
(5) Any disorder or disease relating to the loss of cognitive abilities.
b. The possibility of foul play is suspected regardless of age;
c. The missing person has a serious medical problem/condition; or
d. Any other unusual circumstances exist regardless of age.

Question 59

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Immediate searches should include:

Answer 59

a. The victim’s residence (including beds, closets, garages, attics, outbuildings, etc.);
b. Adjacent residences and/or structures (including those that are not occupied);
c. Interviews with neighbors and friends;
d. Locations of previous recoveries, if a prior history exists;
e. Retention ponds, drainage systems, ditch lines, lakes, or other bodies of water; and
f. Wooded areas, brush, or other overgrown areas.

Question 60

Order 322 Missing Persons:

When immediate searches are exhausted and a more extensive search is to be conducted for missing persons, officers shall notify a sector sergeant, who shall respond to coordinate the MEPSAR Phase 1 search.

A MEPSAR Phase 1 search, at a minimum, should be conducted in the following
circumstances:

Answer 60

a. A child 11 years of age or younger is being reported as missing;
b. Clear evidence of foul play (any age person);
c. Elderly persons (60 years of age or older) who are out of character; or medically and/or mentally at risk of death;
d. Mentally incompetent (to the extent the person is unable to care for themselves and their daily activities are limited and constantly monitored because of their condition); or
e. Any person reported to be suffering from dementia and Alzheimer’s disease.

The Missing Persons Unit shall assist and give guidance in these types of searches.

Question 61

Order 322 Missing Persons:

MEPSAR Phase 1 searches should include everything listed within the immediate search
plus:

Answer 61

a. At this time, the Patrol supervisor should confer with the Missing Persons detective to
determine if MEPSAR Phase 1 protocol should be initiated;
b. Request on-duty Patrol resources to include the Missing Persons K-9, Unmanned Aerial
Systems (UAS) Unit, and Aviation Unit to assist in the search;
c. Request Jacksonville Fire and Rescue Department (JFRD) station personnel to assist in
the search;
d. Checking area jails (under the victim’s name and John/Jane Doe);
e. Checking area hospitals (under the victim’s name and John/Jane Doe);
f. Checking area mental health facilities (under the victim’s name and John/Jane Doe);
g. Checking area shelters (under the victim’s name and John/Jane Doe);
h. Checking area bus and taxi services;
i. Utilizing location enabled electronic devices (under lawful circumstances);
j. Checking electronic banking information (if available);
k. Begin to use the Missing/Endangered Person Checklist and Incident Command System
(ICS) Structure (Appendix A); and
l. Begin to use the Form P-0836 (Neighborhood Canvass Tracking Sheet).

Question 62

Order 322 Missing Persons:

If the immediate and MEPSAR Phase 1 searches are not successful, a MEPSAR Phase 2
search can be expected in the following circumstances:

Answer 62

a. A child 11 years of age or younger is being reported as missing;
b. Clear evidence of foul play (any age person);
c. Elderly persons (60 years of age or older) who are out of character; or medically and/or
mentally at risk of death;
d. Mentally incompetent (to the extent the person is unable to care for themselves and
their daily activities are limited and constantly monitored because of their condition; or
e. Any person reported to be suffering from dementia or Alzheimer’s disease.

Question 63

Order 322 Missing Persons:

MEPSAR Phase 2 searches should include everything listed within immediate and MEPSAR Phase 1 searches plus:

Answer 63

a. Coordinate with the Missing Persons Unit supervisor in initiating MEPSAR Phase 2. This phase shall involve the following:
(1) An Emergency Preparedness Unit (EPU) callout. EPU can establish the implementation of National Incident Management System (NIMS) ICS;
(2) A JSO Mobile Field Force mobilization; and
(3) A JFRD Urban Search and Rescue callout.
b. Supervisors shall establish the following (See Appendix A):
(1) Incident Commander (IC);
(2) Operations Section Chief;
(3) Search branches for JSO and JFRD;
(4) A Situation Unit including the following:
(a) A scribe who shall document critical information and actions taken by Patrol to locate the missing individual. A dedicated dispatcher can assist with this task;
and
(b) An officer to begin completing the ICS-201 to establish objectives and record what is being searched.
(5) A Resources Unit to begin checking in and logging which JSO and JFRD units on the
scene.

c. Deploying all utilized assets in an organized and methodical approach; and
d. Conducting canvasses

Question 64

Order 322 Missing Persons:

NCIC shall be contacted within ____ , via the phone, for a BOLO on all missing persons (adult or juvenile).

Answer 64

two hours

Question 65

Order 322 Missing Persons:

The use of the “Missing Child Alert” program can be activated by the ________. Anytime this system is utilized, the Public Information Officer (PIO) and a
Communications supervisor shall be notified.

Answer 65

Missing Persons supervisor

Question 66

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Notification of a _____ shall be made when there is clear evidence of foul play or there is a kidnapping incident. Refer to Order 321 (Homicide Unit).

Answer 66

Homicide supervisor

Question 67

Order 322 Missing Persons:

If a missing person, adult or child, has an active warrant and is avoiding contact with the police, or if a warrant is being sought for a missing person due to criminal activity, a

Answer 67

Missing Person Report should not be completed. In that circumstance, the person is a fugitive from justice.

Question 68

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Any runaway between the ages of 12 and 17 who is reported missing without foul play and has been reported missing previously on at least one occasion, will be investigated as a Category “B” investigation unless exigent circumstances exist. This is applicable to all agencies/jurisdictions that encompass Duval County.

Answer 68

The reporting officer shall refer to the LinX Program and/or other data resources to check for previous reports from other agencies within Duval County and notate findings in the narrative of the report.

Question 69

Order 322 Missing Persons:

When a Tele-Serv Officer writes a runaway report that Officer shall forward the report to the appropriate zone based on the address used in the report. The designated zone representative, assigned by the zone commander, shall forward the runaway report to an officer for follow-up for the first _____

Answer 69

20 calendar days.

If the runaway is not located within the 20th calendar day, the reporting officer shall submit a Supplemental Report detailing all efforts, suspend the case, and forward the report to the Missing Persons Unit for detective assignment for follow-up investigation and search efforts;

Question 70

Order 322 Missing Persons:

All adult missing person cases involving an accident, clear evidence of foul play, bona fide endangerment circumstances, or other critical or at-risk circumstances shall be assigned to the Missing Persons Unit as a ______

Answer 70

Category “C” investigation. (Homicide will be notified).

Question 71

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Placement of local missing children requires the following:

Answer 71

Local missing children found by the police will be returned to their homes or transported to Youth Crisis Center (YCC);
b. Runaways picked up through Project Safe Place will be transported to YCC, if there is no custody order;

For all state foster children/runaway recoveries, where the foster parent or home has refused to regain custody of the child, the officer shall call the Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF)

Question 72

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Officers who reasonably believe the runaway will be in danger of abuse if returned home or to a shelter service shall follow the following procedure:

Answer 72

If the child is less than 10 years of age and requires placement Monday through Friday between 0800 and 1700 hours (excluding holidays), contact the Florida Abuse Hotline Information System (1-800-962-2873) and request a Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF) counselor respond to the scene of the incident or another specified location. If the child is 10 years of age or older, they shall be transported to YCC;

Question 73

Order 322 Missing Persons:

All runaways from other jurisdictions shall be taken to the ____.

Arranging for the disposition of other jurisdictions’ runaways under a custody order is the responsibility of ____

Answer 73

YCC

DJJ

Question 74

Order 322 Missing Persons:

YCC serves juveniles who could be categorized as one or more of the following:

Answer 74

a. Ungovernable;
b. Runaway;
c. Involved in a family dispute and in need of a “cooling off” period;
d. Truant and the juvenile’s school cannot be determined and/or a parent cannot be located; or
e. Lost and missing children as listed in this order. (10 or older go to YCC)

Question 75

Order 322 Missing Persons:

______ is a program coordinated by the YCC involving a network of locations, designated by the Safe Place logo, where any child can go to seek help for any problem (i.e., runaway, abuse, homeless, etc.).

Answer 75

Project Safe Place

Officers will notify YCC

Question 76

Order 322 Missing Persons:

The “Home Free” program offers runaways less than 18 years of age free bus passage to their hometown on Greyhound Bus Lines. In order for the child to participate in the program, officers must verify that the child wants to return home and the parents want the child to return. Participation must be initiated and coordinated through YCC

Question 77

Order 322 Missing Persons:

The Florida Silver Alert Program has been implemented, by the use of dynamic message signs, in the State of Florida to assist law enforcement agencies in the search and recovery efforts in cases of missing persons ______ or older who have a clear indication of irreversible deterioration of intellectual faculties (e.g., dementia).

Answer 77

60 years of age

Question 78

Order 322 Missing Persons:

The Florida Department of Law Enforcement (FDLE) will issue Purple Alerts to assist in locating missing adults who suffer from a mental, cognitive, intellectual, or developmental disability, and who do not meet the criteria of a Silver Alert.

Purple Alerts are for adults ___ years or older.

Answer 78

18 years or older

Question 79

Order 322 Missing Persons:

The Missing Persons supervisor or his designee will activate the Silver Alert or Purple Alert after receiving the approval of the

Answer 79

Commanding Officer of Missing Persons Unit.

The activation process will require local law enforcement to contact the MEPIC at 1-888-356-4774.

MEPIC will confirm the case facts meet the criteria for a Silver Alert or Purple Alert activation.

Question 80

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Lost Juveniles - If the juvenile is ________ of age, contact the Florida Abuse Hotline Information System (1-800-962-2873) and request a Florida Department of Children and Families (DCF) counselor respond to the scene of the incident or another specified location;

Answer 80

less than 10 years of age

Question 81

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Lost Juveniles - if the juvenile is ______ , transport the juvenile to YCC;

Answer 81

10 years of age or over

Question 82

Order 322 Missing Persons:

Disoriented adults - if their residence cannot be found or a responsible adult relative cannot be located, and there is no evidence of a medical problem, shall be transported to the nearest _______ under the provisions of the Baker Act. Refer to Order 213 (Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Subjects). If there is evidence of a medical problem, transport the individual to the nearest hospital.

Answer 82

Baker Act receiving facility

Question 83

Order 323 Robbery:

Callout Procedures

A Robbery detective will be called out on a bona fide robbery 24 hours a day when:

Answer 83

a. A business has been robbed and there is viewable surveillance video available;
b. The robbery is to a financial institution;
c. There is an abduction involved in the robbery, and the victim has been recovered at the time of the report;
d. A suspect is in custody and/or an individual is found in a vehicle taken during a robbery, home invasion, or carjacking; or
e. The victim or witness has been seriously injured (e.g., gunshot, severe stabbing, etc.).

Question 84

Order 323 Robbery:

Callout Procedures

An on-duty (0800-0000 hours, excluding holidays) Robbery detective will respond to a robbery when:

Answer 84

a. A business has been robbed;
b. The loss is $10,000 or more; or
c. The suspect is known to the victim by name or nickname.

Question 85

Order 325 Special Assault:

Per F.S.S. 960, Victim’s Rights, adult victims of sexual battery are not required to make a police report to undergo a forensic exam through the SAFE Program. If an officer is made aware of an allegation of sexual battery but the victim does not wish to speak to police, the officer shall

Answer 85

advise the victim of this available medical assistance and provide the Rape Recovery Hotline phone number.

Juvenile victims who wish to undergo a sexual assault examination through the CPT must have an accompanying police report.

Question 86

Order 325 Special Assault:

For adult victims, if any type of penetration occurred within the preceding ______ hours, the victim can receive a forensic sexual assault examination through the SAFE Program

Answer 86

120

The advocacy program and the medical examination are not mutually exclusive; the victim does not have to accept advocacy to get a medical evaluation or vice versa. If the victim agrees to accept either service from the SAFE Program, the officer must call the Rape Recovery Hotline as soon as possible during the investigation.

Question 87

Order 325 Special Assault:

Officers shall remain with the victim until SAFE staff or a detective (if one is responding) arrives. Response time for an advocate should not exceed

Answer 87

45 minutes.

Question 88

Order 325 Special Assault:

If an adult victim reports a sex crime from the preceding 120 hours but refuses to be examined, the officer shall complete the carbon copy of Form P-0145 (Delayed or Declined Medical Examination) and have the victim read and sign it.

Answer 88

Form P-0145 (Delayed or Declined Medical Examination) shall not be utilized when the victim decides not to make a criminal report of a sex crime pursuant to F.S.S. 960.

Question 89

Order 325 Special Assault:

Sexual assault examination kits for victims who choose not to report their victimization to law enforcement pursuant to F.S.S. 960 shall be retrieved from the SAFE Program office and shall be submitted to the Property & Evidence Facility as NR kits by a member of the SAU.

Answer 89

These kits shall be maintained for two calendar years from the date they are entered into the Property & Evidence Facility.

These kits will not be sent to FDLE unless the victim wants to make report of the incident.

Question 90

Order 325 Special Assault:

If the victim is under the age of 12, obtain information about the actual offense or criminal concern from an available adult (ensure the chosen adult is not the alleged offender) rather than interviewing the child….

Answer 90

All sex-based offense victim interviews for children under the age of 12 are conducted by the CPT.

Question 91

Order 325 Special Assault:

For victims who are under the age of 18, officers shall adhere to the following procedures:

Answer 91

a. If the incident occurred more than 72 hours prior, the officer shall take the report following the same protocol as for adults (document on an Incident Report and route to the SAU). If there are observable injuries to non-sensitive (areas other than genitalia and/or female breasts) portions of the victim’s body, a Crime Scene Unit (CSU) detective shall be contacted to photograph the injuries.

b. If the incident occurred within the previous 72 hours or there are extenuating circumstances warranting an immediate medical opinion or examination, then:

(1) If during regular business hours, the reporting officer shall first notify the on-call SAU detective. and Shall determine whether the incident requires immediate SAU attention.
(b) If it does not, the officer shall contact the CPT office and discuss the situation with CPT staff to arrange for a timely medical examination.
(c) The officer shall assist with transport to the CPT office.
(d) If a suspect is in custody, the SAU detective shall conduct an interview with the victim (or arrange for a CPT staff member to conduct an interview) prior to the CPT medical examination taking place.

Question 92

Order 325 Special Assault:

If the parent or guardian is not available to give the required permission for the medical examination of a juvenile, F.S.S. 39.304 authorizes

Answer 92

a police officer, DCF investigator, or CPT Case Coordinator to authorize and sign for the exam

Question 93

Order 325 Special Assault:

For calls involving a suspect and victim that are both under the age of 12, designated as child-on-child, these cases are handled by ___ and should be documented in an Information Report

Answer 93

DCF

Question 94

Order 325 Special Assault:

Initial Investigation of Drug-Facilitated Sex Crimes

If the assault is thought to have occurred within the preceding 12 hours, the officer shall do the following:

Answer 94

a. Notify a supervisor; and
b. Ask the victim to provide a urine sample at that time. If they are willing to do so, the supervisor shall request a CSU detective respond immediately. The supervisor shall advise the PECO of the nature of the call and explain that it is necessary for a CSU detective to respond without unnecessary delay.

Question 95

Order 325 Special Assault:

For adults, if the sexual assault occurred within the preceding _____ hours, advise the victim not to shower, bathe, or otherwise alter his or her physical appearance, or engage in any activity that may contaminate or destroy valuable evidence. For victims who are under the age of 18, CPT guidelines reduce the time frame to ___ hours.

Answer 95

120 hours

72 hours

Question 96

Order 325 Special Assault:

Patrol officers shall handle all non-criminal sexting investigations involving minors between the ages of

Answer 96

12-17.

Question 97

Order 325 Special Assault:

The first sexting offense is classified as non-criminal (civil). Officers shall:

Complete a Form P-0698 (Juvenile Civil Sexting Citation) for each juvenile who transmits or possesses a photograph or video that meets the criteria defined in the sexting statute.

Answer 97

(a) Officers shall explain to the parent or guardian that the juvenile must appear before the Juvenile Court.
(b) In lieu of appearing, the juvenile may complete any of the following:
(i) Eight hours of community service;
(ii) Pay a $60 civil penalty; or
(iii) Participate in a cyber-safety program.

The juvenile receiving the citation and a parent or guardian must report to the Juvenile Department, at the Duval County Courthouse within 10 days to schedule a court date or to receive instructions for completing the alternative penalty or penalties listed above.

Question 98

Order 325 Special Assault:

A second Sexting offense could be classified as a misdemeanor and shall be followed up by a ______.

Third or subsequent offenses are ____ and must be followed up by the SAU personnel.

Answer 98

A second offense could be classified as a misdemeanor and shall be followed up by a detective in the SAU. Officers shall

felonies

Question 99

Order 325 Special Assault:

Per F.S.S. 39.205, a person who is required to report known or suspected child abuse, abandonment, neglect, or child sexual abuse and who knowingly and willfully fails to do so, or who knowingly and willfully prevents another person to do so, commits a

Answer 99

felony of the 3rd degree.

Question 100

Order 325 Special Assault:

The SAU shall take investigative responsibility for all instances of aggravated child abuse;

Patrol shall maintain investigative responsibility for all non-aggravated child abuse incidents.

Answer 100

Because caregivers will often attempt to explain away significant injuries, it is imperative officers contact the SAU when children are discovered with aggravated injuries regardless of whether it is believed to be accidental

Question 101

Order 325 Special Assault:

If evidence of child abuse is present, the child should be examined by a physician, preferably by the CPT. If the victim will be medically examined by the CPT, the CPT will take evidentiary photographs.

Answer 101

If CPT, however, declines to medically examine the child, a CSU detective shall be requested for photographs;

Question 102

Order 325 Special Assault:

Officers investigating an actual, potential, or suspected case of child abuse, child neglect, or child sexual abuse, regardless if committed by a caregiver or non-caregiver, shall immediately:

Answer 102

(1) Notify a supervisor;
(2) Review F.S.S. Chapters 39.201 and 827.03 to familiarize themselves with reporting requirements and with the elements of child abuse, child neglect, and aggravated child abuse. Review F.S.S. 827.04(1) which addresses acts by another which contribute to the delinquency of a minor;
(3) Notify the Florida Abuse Hotline regarding incidents of child abuse, child neglect, or child sexual abuse, regardless if committed by a caregiver or non-caregiver as prescribed by F.S.S. 39.201. In lieu of calling the abuse registry, police reports can also be forwarded to DCF by fax or via the internet

(a) Reporting officers shall fully document the call in the narrative of the report;
(b) If a DCF protective investigator is the complainant and is present, he/she shall be listed as the complainant on the Incident Report. Officers must still contact the Florida Abuse Hotline System

Question 103

Order 325 Special Assault:

As defined in F.S.S. 39.01(50), ______ occurs when a child is deprived of or is allowed to be deprived of, necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical treatment or a child is permitted to live in an environment when such deprivation or environment causes the child’s physical, mental, or emotional health to be significantly impaired or to be in danger of being significantly impaired.

Answer 103

neglect

The foregoing circumstances shall not be considered neglect if caused primarily by financial inability unless actual services for relief have been offered to and rejected by such person. A parent or legal custodian legitimately practicing religious beliefs in accordance with a recognized church or religious organization who thereby does not provide specific medical treatment for a child may not, for that reason alone, be considered a negligent parent or legal custodian.

Question 104

Order 331 Burglary:

Burglary detectives shall be called out on the following incidents:

Answer 104

1. A burglary and another serious crime such as robbery, sex crime, etc. was also part of the crime. In these cases, the detectives from the responding units shall coordinate their efforts in the investigation of the offense;
2. Patrol has a suspect in custody being arrested for burglary (non-domestic related);
3. Patrol has a suspect in custody being arrested for Dealing in Stolen Property and/or Grand Theft of $10,000 or more;
4. Anytime a supervisor believes a detective can significantly help the investigation. Prior to requesting a Burglary detective, the patrol sergeant shall arrive at the scene and assess the situation, or if they are unable to go to the scene, a thorough consultation will be conducted; or
5. If a burglary or attempted burglary occurs to a business with a Federal Firearms License where firearms are sold (i.e., gun dealer, pawn shop, etc.) or a suspect is in custody for a burglary, attempted burglary, or theft of firearm(s) from a business with a Federal Firearms License, notifications should be made in accordance with the policies set forth in Order 315 (Crime Gun Intelligence Center).

Question 105

Order 331 Burglary:

An officer’s initial investigation should include how many neighborhood canvasses, for residential Burglaries?

Answer 105

Four

The Patrol Officer has investigative responsibilities for Residential/Business burglaries for 20 Days (Category B)

Question 106

Order 332 SCRAP and Property Recovery:

SCRAP Unit detectives may be called out at the discretion of a Supervisor of the Burglary Unit, under the following circumstances:

Answer 106

1. An individual is arrested for a series of metal related thefts or enclosed utility trailer thefts (excluding arrest warrants which a Burglary Detective will be called out);
2. An Individual is arrested for Grand Theft of metals totaling more that $10,000;
3. An Individual is arrested for Grand Theft of an enclosed utility trailer with contents totaling more than $10,000;
4. An individual is arrested for burglary involving the theft of metals (to include catalytic converters)
5. Anytime a person being arrested claims to have information on multiple metal thefts or enclosed utility trailer thefts and agrees to cooperate with a detective; or
6. Anytime a supervisor believes a detective can significantly help with the investigation.

Question 107

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

A device placed inside a credit card reader at a payment terminal for the purpose of illegally capturing credit/debit card information.

A device placed over a credit card reader at a payment terminal for the purpose of illegally capturing credit/debit card information.

Answer 107

Shimmer Device

Skimmer Device

Question 108

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

Counterfeit Money Orders

(1) If the money order is from the United States (U.S.) Postal Service, then the report shall be written and routed to the __________ for follow-up with the charge of uttering a forged/counterfeit money order.

(2) If the money order is from any other local store, the same charge will apply. If suspect information is obtained the case will be a ________, with the report being routed to the ECU. The counterfeit money order will be seized as evidence and placed into the Property & Evidence Facility.

Answer 108

U.S. Postal Inspector

Patrol follow-up (Category B)

(3) Applicable charges of F.S.S. 831.28(2)A (counterfeit of a payment instrument) and F.S.S. 831.09 (uttering of a forged instrument [i.e., check, drafts, notes, money orders]) shall apply.

Question 109

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

To charge a suspect with the crime of forgery, you must have one of the following:

Answer 109

(1) The officer witnessed the suspect sign the name of another person on the document;
(2) Video surveillance captured the suspect signing the name of another person on the document;
(3) There was a witness that observed the suspect sign the name of another person on the document; or
(4) The suspect confessed to signing the name of another person on the document.

Question 110

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

The victim in all worthless document cases is the person, company, or institution who suffers

Answer 110

the financial loss or would have suffered the loss had the transaction been completed

Question 111

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

When a suspect has signed a name while using a fraudulent credit card, the suspect will be charged with

Answer 111

forgery per F.S.S. 831.07

Question 112

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

To arrest on a felony charge for obtaining goods by use of a fraudulent credit card (i.e., false, expired, counterfeit, etc.), the purchase must be

Answer 112

$300 or more per F.S.S. 817.481

Question 113

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

When arresting on a charge of fraudulent use of a credit card per F.S.S. 817.61:

(1) The use of the credit card two or fewer times in a six month period, or obtaining goods or services valuing less than $100, is a _________.
(2) The use of the card more than two times in a six month period, or obtaining goods or services valuing $100, or more is ______.

Answer 113

1st degree misdemeanor

a 3rd degree felony

Question 114

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

The victim on the Incident Report is the financial institution which issued the credit/debit card; the cardholder will be shown as the complainant. The only exception will be when that

Answer 114

financial institution refuses to reimburse the cardholder. In those cases, the cardholder will be shown as the victim.

Question 115

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

In any case where a crime occurred in another jurisdiction

Answer 115

the officers may write an information report and advise them the location of the nearest substation so they may obtain a copy to forward to the agency with jurisdiction.

Question 116

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

_______ is the term used to refer to all types of crimes in which someone wrongfully obtains and uses another person’s personal data in some way that involves fraud or deception.

Answer 116

Identity Theft

Question 117

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

Identity Theft

If the Identity theft offense was committed in another jurisdiction, an Information Report may be completed and routed to the ECU and the victim shall be _______.

d. If the victim lives in Duval County and it is unknown where the compromise occurred, this case can be handled by the reporting officer as a Category B case. Officers shall assist victims in locating the appropriate agency for follow up to the best of their ability and document their actions in the narrative section of the Incident Report.

Answer 117

referred to the appropriate jurisdiction for follow up investigation.

Question 118

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

Frauds/Organized Schemes to Defraud

F.S.S. 817.034 establishes criminal offenses related to organized schemes to defraud.
a. Some common organized fraud schemes include, but are not limited to,______

________: A person is made to believe he has a legitimate job, typically via online job applications. The person then accepts merchandise which has been shipped to him, generally purchased by the “employer”/suspect with fraudulent credit cards. The person then places new labels on the packages and reships them to an address associated with the “employer”/suspect. Officers shall warn the citizen that they are participating in a criminal scheme and to discontinue their efforts immediately. This warning shall be documented in a report.

Answer 118

account take over schemes, telephone schemes, internet schemes, employment schemes, and mail fraud schemes.

Reshipping Schemes

Question 119

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

Lottery Ticket Cases

F.S.S. 24.118(3) defines a person dealing in counterfeit or altered tickets as any person who:

a. “Knowingly presents a counterfeit or altered State Lottery ticket”;

b. “Knowingly transfers a counterfeit or altered State Lottery ticket to another to present for payment;” or

c. “With intent to defraud falsely makes, alters, forges, passes, or counterfeits a State Lottery ticket” is guilty of ______.

Answer 119

a felony of the third degree.

Question 120

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

Counterfeit Money Cases

In counterfeit money cases where a suspect is arrested or identified (i.e., a valid tag number is obtained, a suspect is positively identified, etc.) for possession of a large quantity of counterfeit money or in association with a “print shop” that is creating counterfeit money, officers shall request that the Investigative PECO contact the ______, so the suspect can be interviewed prior to being placed in the PDF.

Answer 120

U.S. Secret Service

Question 121

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

If the suspect is arrested for passing a small number of counterfeit bills, then the officer can complete the investigation and forward the report to the _____

Answer 121

U.S. Secret Service, via the Economic Crimes Unit

Question 122

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Cases

IRS handles all Federal tax scams.

In cases where the tax preparer steals the tax refund money from the victim, the case will be reported as a ______.

Answer 122

theft and will be a Patrol follow-up.

Question 123

Order 333 Economic Crimes:

Skimmer and Shimmer Devices

Some businesses, especially banks and credit unions, will ask that the device be left with them for their own investigation.

Answer 123

Never release a located skimmer/shimmer device to any business.

Question 124

Order 333 Economic Crimes: Real Estate Fraud

This occurs when the suspect takes temporary control over a piece of real estate by use of a quit claim deed or other means to temporarily show ownership and attempt a fraudulent sale of the property to an unassuming purchaser. Sometime this is done to take possession of a home for personal use.

Answer 124

Home take-over

Question 125

Order 333 Economic Crimes: Crypto Currency Investigations

______: A digital currency designed to work as a medium of exchange through a computer network that is not reliant on any central authority such as a government or bank to uphold or maintain it.

_______:A non-interchangeable unit of data stored on a blockchain, a form of digital ledger that can be sold or traded

Answer 125

Cryptocurrency

Non-fungible token (NFT)

Question 126

Order 333 Economic Crimes: Crypto Currency Investigations

_______: An electronic device, online service, or software program that allows one party to make electronic transactions with another party bartering digital currency units for goods and services.

Answer 126

Digital wallet (e-wallet)

Question 127

Order 333 Economic Crimes: Crypto Currency Investigations

_____: A type of barcode that can be read easily by a digital device and which stores information as a series of pixels in a square-shaped grid.

Answer 127

4. QR Code

Question 128

Order 334 Auto Crimes:

An Auto Crimes Unit detective shall be called out 24 hours a day when:

Answer 128

1. A suspect is arrested in connection with a chop-shop operation or a chop-shop is located;
2. A suspect is arrested for the offense of auto burglary (including local arrest warrants);
3. A suspect is arrested where multiple stolen vehicles are recovered;
4. A suspect is in custody and is in possession of a firearm taken during an auto burglary or auto theft that occurred in the 4th Judicial Circuit (e.g., Clay, Nassau, or Duval counties) within the past year;
5. A suspect is in custody and in possession of a vehicle with an altered vehicle identification number;
6. A suspect is in custody and in possession of a vehicle stolen from a car dealership during the commission of a burglary;
7. A suspect is in custody and is in possession of a stolen motorcycle or large F-Series truck, 250 or greater, or other specialized vehicles as designated by the Auto Crimes Unit;
8. A suspect is in custody for cargo thefts;
9. An auto burglary with a person shot;
10. All warrants obtained by an Auto Crimes detective;
11. A marked or unmarked Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) vehicle is burglarized (with or without items missing); and
12. A police supervisor believes an Auto Crimes Unit detective’s input may be beneficial to an investigation.

Question 129

Order 334 Auto Crimes:

Auto Crimes Unit detectives shall be notified 24 hours a day when:

Answer 129

1. Multiple vehicles (five or more) are broken into in the same proximity;
2. Cargo thefts in excess of a loss of $100,000 or more;
3. Any JSO property is stolen from a vehicle.

Question 130

Order 334 Auto Crimes:

________ – The system is a comprehensive online application for the reporting, documentation, inventory, and distribution of information on intermodal freight theft and related occurrences. The system is overseen by Florida Highway Patrol (FHP), which provides law enforcement with the immediate distribution of freight-related information.

Answer 130

Electronic Freight Theft Management System (EFTMS)

Question 131

Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigation of Vehicle Burglaries

If the investigation involves a JSO marked or unmarked vehicle, a ________

Answer 131

Crime Scene Unit detective shall be requested to process the vehicle.

Question 132

Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicle Thefts

Be On the Lookout (BOLOs) on auto thefts, which have occurred within ______, should be broadcast on the zone talk groups and/or the Mobile Computer Assisted Dispatch (MCAD) as soon as officers have the description and tag number.

Answer 132

the last hour

Question 133

Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicle Thefts

Thefts of farm/construction equipment, boats, trailers, bicycles, personal watercraft and airplanes are to be reported as ______, not Auto Theft.

All trailers that require a license plate must be called into NCIC so they can be entered as stolen.

Multiple vehicle thefts arising out of the same incident (location and time of occurrence is the same) may be listed on one Incident Report.

Answer 133

Theft

Question 134

Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicle Thefts

Incidents where a victim’s vehicle has been returned and the victim no longer desires prosecution of the suspect (suspect has been positively identified) the incident may be exceptionally cleared with the approval of _______.

Answer 134

a supervisor.

Have the victim complete a statement on a Form P-0349 (JSO Statement Form) clearly stating that they no longer desire prosecution of the suspect.

Question 135

Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicles Taken Under Questionable Circumstances

When an officer determines that a vehicle was taken under questionable circumstances (i.e., the vehicle appears to have been loaned out in exchange for drugs, etc.), which would eliminate probable cause for the immediate arrest of a suspect, the officer shall:

Answer 135

a. Complete an Information Report and select “Information Report - Auto Theft” as the offense;
b. Do NOT have the vehicle entered into the Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC)/NCIC as stolen;
c. Request the victim complete a Form P-0412 (Stolen Vehicle/Vessel Affidavit) and advise him/her the consequences of making a false statement; and
d. Instruct the victim to immediately contact JSO if the vehicle is returned or found.

Question 136

Order 334 Auto Crimes: Investigations of Vehicles Taken Under Questionable Circumstances

The primary reporting officer shall:

Answer 136

a. Continue to investigate the case as a Category B patrol follow up for 10 days, completing Supplemental Reports as necessary to document his efforts;
b. At the end of the 10-day period, contact the victim to ensure he/she has not recovered their vehicle. The officer shall conduct any additional investigation and ask the victim if any efforts have been made to locate the vehicle;
c. Additionally, the officer shall request the assistance of an Auto Crimes detective for any further investigative needs;
d. If the determination is made to enter the vehicle as stolen, the officer should contact the NCIC PECO to have it entered and complete a Supplemental Report

Question 137

Order 334 Auto Crimes: Failure to Redeliver a Hired (Rental) Vehicle Reporting Procedures

Fraudulently rented vehicles (e.g., involving the use of stolen credit cards, fictitious names, false information on the application, etc.) does not require a waiting period. These offenses shall be reported as _________. These reports shall be routed to the Economic Crimes Unit.

Answer 137

a fraud and immediately entered in FCIC/NCIC.

Question 138

Order 334 Auto Crimes: Failure to Redeliver a Hired (Rental) Vehicle Reporting Procedures

Officers responding to incidents where a rental vehicle has not been returned to the company from which it was rented shall title the report as Failure to Redeliver a Hired Vehicle unless it is obviously fraudulently obtained. However, before the report is completed the officer shall ensure that:

Answer 138

a. The vehicle is overdue by at least seven days;

b. The rental company has completed and provided the responding officer with the following items to be provided to the State Attorney’s Office (SAO) upon requesting an arrest warrant for the suspect

Question 139

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

______ provides the authority to impound vehicles.

Answer 139

MO 804

Question 140

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

In life-threatening situations, a _________ supervisor may directly request a TOL wrecker through the JSO Communications Center to enhance rescue operations. The responding officer will be notified by National Crime Information Center (NCIC) or the zone Police Emergency Communications Officer (PECO) and will complete the NOIR upon arrival at the scene.

Answer 140

Jacksonville Fire and Rescue Department (JFRD)

Question 141

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

When a vehicle is impounded, and the owner is present, officers will complete the NOIR and have the owner sign the Signature Form (P-0214), which will be utilized as the _________

Answer 141

Notice of Impoundment.

Question 142

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

When a vehicle is impounded (not for evidentiary value), and the owner is not present, the Notice of Impoundment shall be served by the wrecker firm towing the vehicle _______

Answer 142

Within seven business days, via certified mail.

Question 143

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

Pursuant to MO 804.1103(a), any time a vehicle is impounded and the owner wishes to contest the charges for the towing and storage, the vehicle will be released by the towing facility via the procedures below:

Answer 143

(1) The owner may regain possession of the impounded vehicle from the wrecker firm without prepayment of towing and storage charges by presenting proof of ownership to the wrecker firm and posting a cash or surety bond in the amount of the accrued towing and storage charges;

(2) The owner has five business days to contact the Wrecker Regulation Unit to request a hearing as to the propriety of the impoundment and the owner’s liability for the towing and storage charges; and

(3) Impounded vehicles with a hold for investigation designation will not be released until the hold is removed.

Question 144

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

TOL wrecker firms are expected to respond to the scene within _____ of receipt of the call.

Answer 144

20 minutes

Question 145

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

If the driver/owner in lawful possession arrives before the TOL wrecker has been attached, and the vehicle can be released to this person, the TOL wrecker firm cannot charge a fee. However,

Answer 145

a parking ticket shall be issued, and NCIC will be notified to place the TOL wrecker firm back on top of the list.

Question 146

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

An officer encountering a vehicle on the right-of-way, which appears to be unattended for more than 24 hours, but is not obstructing traffic or posing an immediate danger to public safety, shall:

Answer 146

a. Affix a 24 Hour Notice (P-0172) to the outside of the windshield directly in the driver’s view or another prominent place, noting the original CCR number

Monday – Friday between 0800 – 1700 hours, return to the vehicle and log out on a follow-up call, ensuring more than 24 hours have passed. If the car is still on scene, initiate towing for an unattended conveyance and affix a parking ticket to the vehicle. If the vehicle has been moved, update the comments field on the follow-up call screen and check back in service.

Question 147

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

If a midnight unit is assigned an unattended conveyance, the officer shall:

Answer 147

Forward all the details of the unattended conveyance to the zone traffic sergeant and that sergeant will assign a traffic officer to complete the follow-up.

Question 148

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

An abandoned or derelict vehicle on private or commercial property shall be processed by one of the following methods: [CALEA 61.4.3]

Answer 148

a. The Code Enforcement Unit of the Public Works Department, COJ cites vehicles on private residential property;

b. When a JSO employee is informed of unattended vehicles on private property the caller is referred to City Link at (904) 630-CITY (2489) or COJ website at www.COJ.net;

c. The property owner or manager removes vehicles on commercial property, in compliance with F.S.S. 715.07, (e.g., shopping centers, apartment complexes, public parking lots, etc.).

Question 149

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

The officer will submit a TOL request using the ARMS (NOIR) application and place “vehicle has an expired 24 hour notice” or “Junk TOL” in the special instructions field on the request. The officer will make a voice announcement on the NCIC radio _________ so the correct wrecker rotation will be used.

Answer 149

“This is a Junk TOL”

Question 150

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

When impounding or seizing an aircraft, the _________ shall be notified

Answer 150

Commanding Officer of the Aviation Unit

Question 151

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

When impounding or seizing a watercraft, the _________ shall be notified

Answer 151

Commanding Officer of the Marine Unit

Question 152

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

When impounding or seizing large equipment, the _________ shall be notified.

Answer 152

the commanding officer of the investigative unit.

If the Property & Evidence Facility cannot accommodate the item, the commanding officer of the investigative unit requesting the seizure will make arrangements to have the equipment transported to a venue that can accommodate the item.

Question 153

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

Officers shall have vehicles/vessels stored without holds when:

Answer 153

a. The vehicle/vessel owner cannot respond to the scene within a reasonable time (approximately 30 minutes);
b. The owner of the vehicle/vessel cannot be contacted;
c. The driver of the vehicle/vessel flees the scene; or
d. The vehicle/vessel is found occupied or abandoned under suspicious circumstances (i.e., car belongs to a dealership and is found after hours out of place, the vehicle has a stolen tag affixed to it, occupant(s) has an auto theft arrest history, etc.).

Question 154

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

A hold for investigation is self-canceling in ______ excluding weekends and holidays.

Answer 154

Five Days

JSO will be responsible for any storage charges exceeding five days if the vehicle is not transferred to a JSO storage facility.

Question 155

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

An officer placing a forfeiture hold on a vehicle must complete and submit a forfeiture packet within ______ of the vehicle being towed.

a. All forfeiture cases will be stored at a TOL wrecker firm.

b. The forfeiture officer will review the paperwork and if the vehicle is to be seized, he will extend the hold and the vehicle will be moved to the Police Impound Facility Warehouse.

c. If a forfeiture packet is not received by the Forfeiture Unit within ________ of the original hold date, the hold will self-cancel. It will be the submitting officer’s responsibility to contact the owner and advise the hold has been removed.

Answer 155

24 hours

five business days

Question 156

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation: Procedures for Extending Holds for Investigation

To extend a hold beyond five days, the decision must be made within _____ from the date the hold was placed on the vehicle. Patrol officers must obtain approval from their supervisor before extending a hold.

Answer 156

72 hours

Question 157

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

When the decision not to extend the hold has been reached within the ______ period, the hold shall be released.

Answer 157

72 hour

Question 158

Order 335 Wrecker Regulation:

When an initial hold is not removed or extended, the Towed Vehicles application will automatically remove the hold. This occurs after five days, excluding weekends and holidays. The owner must be notified of the hold removal as set forth in this order. The officer who placed the vehicle on hold will receive a computer-generated email showing the system removed the hold and the responsibility for owner notification rests with the __________.

Answer 158

submitting officer

Question 159

Order 337 Traffic Homicide:

A Traffic Homicide detective will be called out 24 hours a day when:

A traffic crash occurs, with the scene intact, involving:

Answer 159

a. Death or life-threatening injuries;
b. Hit-and-run traffic crashes involving death or life-threatening injuries; or
c. Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) vehicle crashes, which have resulted in death, life threatening injury, or injury requiring transportation by an emergency medical unit to a medical facility from the scene.

Question 160

Order 337 Traffic Homicide:

The following administrative guidelines related to duty status will apply to officer-involved traffic crashes in which death or life-threatening injuries occur:

1. Any officer whose actions result in a death or serious bodily harm shall be removed from his line of duty assignment;

a. The officer shall be placed on Administrative Leave (ADL) by the authority of the _____

Answer 160

Assistant Chief of Property Crimes & Investigative Support or higher authority.

Question 161

Order 338 Crime Scene:

However, under normal conditions all items of evidence shall be turned in to the
Property & Evidence Facility by the ______ that touches them unless otherwise
directed by a supervisor.

Answer 161

first officer

Question 162

Order 338 Crime Scene:

Photographs of injuries SHALL NOT be requested or taken by a JSO CSU detective under the following circumstances:

Answer 162

a. When the location of the injury is to the external genitalia of the body (unless a court
order is obtained by the State Attorney’s Office [SAO]);

b. When the victim is a child and is admitted to a medical facility and will be examined by a Child Protection Team (CPT) medical professional (under these circumstances, the
attending CPT staff will be responsible for documenting and photographing the injuries);
and

c. When the victim is an adult and is admitted to a medical facility and will be examined by the medical staff from the Sexual Assault Forensic Exam (SAFE) Program (under these
circumstances, the attending SAFE staff will be responsible for documenting and
photographing the injuries).

Question 163

Order 338 Crime Scene:

Photographs of all JSO motor vehicles involved in a crash shall be taken by the responding ______, provided there are NO injuries requiring transport to a medical facility.

Answer 163

supervisor

Photographs of other City of Jacksonville (COJ) owned vehicles involved in accidents not involving injury or fatality are not required, unless requested by the COJ adjuster or approved by the on-scene supervisor.

Question 164

Order 338 Crime Scene:

A CSU detective shall be called to process stolen vehicles when there is evidence that the vehicle was used in the commission of a violent felony crime or when requested by a supervisor based on a known pattern, series, or trend.

Question 165

Order 338 Crime Scene:

A vehicle shall be processed if it is possibly an unreported stolen vehicle and there are
items of usable evidence or suspicious circumstances such as:

Answer 165

(1) A broken steering column;
(2) Stripped items; or
(3) A suspect flees the vehicle, or scene of a crime, and the vehicle is the only key to the
suspect’s identity.

Question 166

Order 338 Crime Scene: Response to Gunfire incidents - Collection of Evidence

In cases that do not require an investigative detective or CSU detective, officers shall make every effort to identify any victims prior to the collection of the fired cartridges. After a thorough search and a ___________ that every effort has been made to locate a victim(s), then the fired cartridge casings can be collected.

Answer 166

responding supervisor’s verification

Question 167

Order 338 Crime Scene: Response to a Weapon of Mass Destruction Incident

No less than ___ specially trained and specially equipped CSU detectives shall respond
to a weapon of mass destruction incident.

Answer 167

two

Question 168

Order 338 Crime Scene:

Only evidence that is known to be completely hazard free shall be placed into the
______. All other hazardous evidence shall either be released directly to another responding agency or placed in the JSO special hazardous material storage area.

Answer 168

Property & Evidence Facility

Question 169

Order 338 Crime Scene:

Any evidence which is to undergo serological examination shall be placed in the Property & Evidence Facility for refrigerated storage until it can be transported to the FDLE Laboratory for processing. All subsequent forensic tests (e.g., latent prints, ballistics, etc.) on this evidence will also be conducted at ______.

Answer 169

the FDLE Laboratory

Question 170

Order 339 Latent Print Unit:

The LPU is commanded by a civilian Latent Print Examiner Supervisor who reports directly to the

Answer 170

Crime Scene Unit Commanding Officer.

Question 171

Order 340 Photo Lab:

Requests for printing or pictures will be assigned the following classifications:

Answer 171

1. Rush – All requests that are considered rush will be printed by available personnel and equipment to accomplish such tasks; or
2. Standard – Assigned to work on a non-priority basis.

The Unit is under the command of the Commanding Officer of Crime Scene Unit (CSU) and Police Photographer Supervisor.

Question 172

Order 341 Crime Analysis:

After hours callouts

Example incident criterion includes, but is not limited to the
following:

Answer 172

1. Abduction/kidnapping involving well-founded danger to a juvenile victim or an adult with
   diminished mental or physical ability;
2. Death or other violent incident involving imminent danger or retaliation to additional
   citizens of Jacksonville, Florida; and
3. Grid mapping where exigency exists.

Question 173

Order 341 Crime Analysis:

Any information to be disseminated to
non-criminal justice entities is to be reviewed by the

Answer 173

Public Safety Analyst Supervisor and/or the CAU Administrator.

Question 174

Order 342 Real Time Crime Center:

After __ days, video which has not been archived/exported for evidence shall be deleted per the vendor agreement.

Answer 174

30 days

Question 175

Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:

Stakeouts shall be authorized by a ________ or higher authority and documented on a Form P-1310 (Tactical Operations Plan).

Answer 175

lieutenant

Question 176

Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:

Surveillance operations shall be authorized by a ________ or higher authority who will decide if the activity warrants the completion of a Form P-1310 (Tactical Operations Plan).

Answer 176

sergeant

Question 177

Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:

All stakeouts and surveillance operations shall consist of at least ____ police officers or a police officer and an auxiliary officer. Participating auxiliary officers shall be under the direct supervision of a police officer.

Answer 177

two

Question 178

Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:

Officers conducting stakeouts shall be in uniform and/or clearly marked in tactical vests. If not in their vehicle, officers will sufficiently cover their uniform for disguised entry into the stakeout location. Officers conducting surveillance operations, with no intention of taking enforcement action, may wear non-uniform clothing with the approval of a

Answer 178

lieutenant or higher authority.

Question 179

Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:

The supervisor in charge of a stakeout or surveillance operation shall:

Answer 179

a. Notify in writing via email (or verbally in short notice incidents) the Communications Watch Supervisor and the on-duty patrol and detective commanders prior to the stakeout or surveillance operation briefing, unless prior notification could jeopardize the security or success of the stakeout or surveillance operation;

b. Ensure that all officers involved are wearing approved body armor, appropriate uniforms, and have the required equipment for the operation; and

c. Ensure a Tactical Operations Plan is completed if needed and that an operational briefing is conducted prior to the stakeout or surveillance operation.

Question 180

Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:

The types of surveillance operations are as follows:

Answer 180

a. A fixed surveillance is the continuous watching of a place, object, or person from a stationary point;

b. A moving surveillance occurs when a subject is followed on foot, or by using a vehicle or an aircraft; and

c. Electronic surveillance utilizes electronic devices to intercept the contents of any oral or wire communication or to track the physical location of an individual or vehicle.

Question 181

Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:

The functions of surveillance operations are as follows:

Answer 181

a. A preliminary surveillance is utilized to gather tactical intelligence that will enable an undercover officer to identify the associates of a suspect and to determine their relationship or association with a suspect.

b. An intelligence seeking surveillance occurs when the investigators attempt to learn everything they can about a crime or an activity and the person(s) or place(s) involved in such activity.

c. A cover surveillance is used primarily for the protection of an undercover officer. It is also used to corroborate the undercover officer’s testimony. A cover surveillance should also provide for the following:
(1) Approaches to the immediate area in case the undercover officer(s) needs immediate assistance; and
(2) The staffing and equipment needed to assist the undercover officer.

d. Post purchase surveillance is conducted for the following reasons:
(1) To determine where money is taken after the purchase of contraband to locate “stash” or “safe” houses involved in drug operations; and
(2) To identify other customers and associates who may be involved with the suspect.

Question 182

Order 351 Stakeout and Surveillance:

For a surveillance utilizing more than _____officers, a sergeant or above shall be present to oversee the operation

Answer 182

three

If three officers or less are used, a supervisor may designate a lead officer

Question 183

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

If moving as a team of _______ (five is the maximum realistic number due to the difficulty of coordination in larger numbers), utilize a bounding/overwatch technique to reach the breach point.

Answer 183

two or more officers

Question 184

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

Movement through the Crisis Site

Once entry has been made into the crisis location, move directly to any stimulus that could identify the suspect’s location, bypassing victims. If no stimulus is heard, two options exist:

Answer 184

(1) Move down hallways first, conducting quick interviews with victims and others to gain intelligence, while trying to locate the suspect; or
(2) Begin clearing room to room until a stimulus is received

Question 185

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

five-point discrimination process:

Answer 185

(1) Whole person;
(2) Hands;
(3) Waistline;
(4) Immediate area; and
(5) Demeanor.

Question 186

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

When encountering people, advise them to take the following action:

Answer 186

(1) Run away from the crisis area if able; and

(2) If people are not able to leave, instruct them to barricade themselves in a secure area until the situation is resolved and they are contacted by law enforcement.

Question 187

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

If an officer encounters an IED, the officer shall call “bomb cover” and move into an adjacent room, placing shielding between themselves and the device. Be sure to clear the room prior to entry. Assess the device and determine if it can be moved past or if there is an alternate route. Do not touch the device. Attempt to mark the area near the device with some type of indicator (e.g., glow stick, other available object, etc.) and communicate its location to the PECO or the on-scene supervisor.

(2) If a suspect throws an IED at an officer, the energy propelling the device will determine the appropriate tactic. If the device will stop 15 or more feet away from officers, utilize the ______ command and seek cover.

(3) If the device will land within 15 feet of officers, utilize the call ______ and move quickly past the device and prepare to engage the suspect.

Answer 187

“bomb cover”

“bomb go,”

Question 188

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

Once the suspect has been stopped, the implementation of the acronym “SIM” will ensure the appropriate priorities of work are completed:

Answer 188

(a) S – Security: Move to the suspect and handcuff (unless the suspect is thought to be wired with explosives), consolidate other people in the area against a wall or corner, ensure all immediate threat areas are being covered by other police officers (e.g., if an officer is inside a room, have another officer stand at the doorway to ensure another suspect does not approach from the rear and to provide a means of communicating with other responding officers);

(b) I – Immediate Action Plan: After all of the above have been completed, develop a simple plan in the event more shooting occurs, necessitating a response (e.g., one officer advises the others, “if more shooting occurs or if we have to leave for any reason, I will stay and the rest of you will go to the threat,” ensure all officers verbally acknowledge that they understand what they should do if this occurs); and

M – Medical: Begin medical treatment as taught by the Training Academy while adhering to the Safety Priority Matrix (1. Hostages/innocent civilians, 2. law enforcement, and 3. suspect).

Question 189

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

A rescue taskforce is comprised of _____ police officers provide security and ____ EMS personnel (or police officers if EMS not available) provide medical aid.

Answer 189

Two to four Police officers

two EMS Personnel

Question 190

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

Should the suspect barricade himself/herself or take hostages at any time during the rapid response deployment and the deadly activity has stopped, officers should take up positions of cover, contain the suspect, and handle the situation consistent with Order 356 (SWAT).

This would only apply if there are also no victims in need of immediate medical assistance. It would not be appropriate to negotiate with a suspect while victims are dying from their injuries. Adherence to and the completion of the following five Cs will ensure the most effective response if the situation changes to a traditional barricade/hostage incident:

Answer 190

Contain - Contain the incident by deploying officers around the immediate crisis location and begin gathering intelligence

Control - Control the incident by establishing ingress and egress routes to the immediate crisis location, remove any uninvolved personnel

Communicate - Communicate the situation with other officers in the immediate area, with the suspect if he/she tries to initiate contact, with the on-scene supervisor, PECO, etc.

Call SWAT - Advise the on-scene supervisor of a possible hostage situation so a request for the SWAT Unit can be made

Create - Create a plan among the officers in the immediate area accounting for the following contingencies:
(1) If the situation turns into an active threat, who will make entry, etc.;
(2) If a hostage escapes; and
(3) If the suspect surrenders or escapes.

Implement ICS.

Question 191

Order 355 Rapid Response to Active Threats:

Under the ICS structure, the Public Information Officer (PIO) is a part of the ______ and is responsible for all public messaging at the direction of the Incident Commander/Unified Command.

Answer 191

command and general staff

Question 192

Order 356 SWAT:

Final authority to initiate a SWAT callout rests with the

Answer 192

Assistant Chief of Special Operations or higher authority.

Question 193

Order 356 SWAT:

Any non-emergency request for the assistance of the SWAT Unit (e.g., high-risk search warrant) should be made to the _________, who is the supervisor of the SWAT Administrative Squad.

Answer 193

Assistant SWAT Commander

Question 194

Order 356 SWAT:

Barricaded Subject – Not all subjects/suspects who refuse to surrender are considered barricaded. Barricaded subjects/suspects are defined as persons who:

Answer 194

a. Officers believe to be armed;

b. Are believed to have been involved in a criminal act and/or are a threat to the lives and safety of citizens or officers;

c. Are in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment, or are contained in an open area and the approach of officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the suspect (e.g., bridge jumper); and

d. Refuse to submit to arrest or surrender.

Question 195

Order 356 SWAT:

_________________ – A person threatening suicide with a weapon who is an imminent threat to others and barricades or places themselves in a position of advantage where the approach by responding officers could unnecessarily escalate the situation or endanger the officers.

Answer 195

Armed Suicidal Subject

Question 196

Order 356 SWAT:

____________________ - A group of officers, ideally with a supervisor, tasked with taking a subject into custody upon their surrender.

____________ - Any incident in which people are being held against their will by another person(s), usually by force or coercion.

Answer 196

Apprehension Team

Hostage Situation

Question 197

Order 356 SWAT:

_________ - A decision making matrix which lists the priority of different people involved in a tactical situation.

Answer 197

Safety Priority Matrix

This descending order is as follows:
(1) Hostages/citizens;
(2) Law enforcement officers;
(3) SWAT officers; and
(4) Suspects.

Question 198

Order 356 SWAT:

B. Barricaded Subject/Suspect

1. Duties of the first officer/supervisor at the scene:

Answer 198

a. The first officer at the scene must determine if the situation is bona fide;
b. Notify the Communications Center and request notification of their immediate supervisor and the Patrol watch commander;
c. Establish an inner perimeter controlling ingress and egress to the crisis site;
d. Assemble an Apprehension Team to take the subject/suspect into custody if they surrender;
e. Attempt to establish communications with the subject/suspect;
f. Establish an outer perimeter, excluding all unauthorized persons;
g. Establish a Command Post location and advise the Communications Center of its location;
h. Solicit the subject/suspect’s surrender without unnecessarily endangering Patrol officers or members of the community;
i. Evacuate residences and people in the immediate area of the crisis site;
j. Initiate and continually update Form P-0428 (First Responder Intelligence;
k. If criminal charges are pending, begin the process of acquiring an arrest and/or search warrant;
l. Determine if the subject meets Baker Act criteria; and
m. Have the news media assemble in one location to receive information from the designated source.

Question 199

Order 356 SWAT:

Barricaded Subject/Suspect

Consider the need for a temporary flight restriction:

a. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) – (904) 845-1537.
b. Provide the latitude and longitude for the area and a timeframe.
c. The recommended distance is ______

Answer 199

10,000 feet and three miles.

Question 200

Order 356 SWAT:

Hostage Situation

1. In addition to all the duties listed above for a barricaded subject, a Hostage Rescue Team should be assembled and be prepared to respond to the following:

Answer 200

a. Make emergency entry into the crisis site when it has been determined that the lives of the hostages are in imminent danger;
b. Take the suspect into custody upon surrender; and
c. Receive hostages who are released or who have escaped.

Question 201

Order 356 SWAT:

Final decisions concerning the length of negotiations and use of force, including the use of chemical munitions by the SWAT Unit, rests with the ______ acting as the Incident Commander at the callout.

Answer 201

division chief

Question 202

Order 356 SWAT:

Forced entries can be made anytime during a SWAT callout or operation. Absent exigency, all entries shall be at the direction of the ______

Answer 202

Commanding Officer of SWAT Unit or higher authority.

Question 203

Order 358 Critical Incident Stress Management:

CISM shall be notified on:

Answer 203

a. Line of duty shootings of or by any JSO employee;

b. Death or serious injury to a JSO employee;

c. Any major incident resulting in serious injury or loss of life such as:
(1) Aircraft accident;
(2) Railroad accident;
(3) Serious school bus crash;
(4) Inmate/prisoner death;
(5) Jail/prison riot or takeover; or
(6) Serious City of Jacksonville (COJ) vehicle crashes involving any JSO employees.

d. Any defrocking and/or termination of an employee of the JSO involving the Internal Affairs Unit (on-call unit members only);

e. All persons who are arrested are afforded counseling services at the Pretrial Detention Facility (PDF). Depending on the circumstances, a JSO employee who is arrested may also warrant a CISM callout. The CISM Unit Coordinator shall be notified of an employee’s arrest and the CISM Unit Coordinator shall consult with the Assistant Chief of Special Operations to discuss whether or not to make it a CISM callout

Question 204

Order 358 Critical Incident Stress Management:

The duration of the administrative leave granted to an employee shall be determined by the appropriate

Answer 204

department director or higher authority.

Question 205

Order 358 Critical Incident Stress Management:

Following any critical incident, an involved employee’s ________ shall determine if that employee should be temporarily reassigned or given administrative leave

Answer 205

assistant chief or higher authority

Question 206

Order 361 Intelligence:

An Intelligence Unit detective shall be NOTIFIED 24 hours a day when police are summoned to any incident involving:

Answer 206

1. Suspected or actual terrorist activity;
2. Radical, militant, or subversive groups (e.g., anti-abortion groups, Ku Klux Klan, anti-nuclear groups, satanic groups, etc.);
3. Any hate crime (e.g., race, religious, or ethnic bias incident);
4. Any racial and/or civil disorder;
5. Diplomatic privileges or immunity;
6. An unknown substance and/or “white powder” threat associated with a substance, package, or letter;
7. Escapes from a secure detention facility;
8. Declared arson incidents involving critical infrastructures, military installations, places of worship, and arsons suspected of being a hate crime. Intelligence detectives serve as investigative liaisons with the Florida State Fire Marshal’s Office.
9. Bomb threats to critical infrastructures and military installations;
10. Hazardous Devices Unit (HDU) investigations;
11. Mass threats of violence, regardless of venue;
12. Any potentially politically motivated attack, threat, crime, or disruption at a polling location or voter registration site; or
13. Any other incident in which the presence of an Intelligence Unit detective may be needed and is authorized by the Supervisor of Intelligence Unit.

Question 207

Order 361 Intelligence:

SARS:

Answer 207

They are used to document any reported or observed activity, or any criminal act or attempted criminal act, which an officer believes may reveal a nexus to foreign or domestic terrorism. The information reported in a SAR may be the result of observations or investigations by police officers or may be reported to them by private parties. SARs shall be routed to the Intelligence Unit.

Question 208

Order 361 Intelligence:

Heightened Levels of Securities:

Under normal conditions where no alert has been issued, _________ are responsible for the security of their respective substations. The __________ shall be responsible for the security of the Police Memorial Building (PMB). The responsibility for the security of all other JSO facilities rests with the highest-ranking officer or his designee assigned to the building.

Answer 208

zone commanders

Chief of Support Services

Question 209

Order 361 Intelligence:

Heightened Levels of Securities:

Should an Elevated Threat Alert be issued, the ___________ shall inform the Undersheriff and/or the Sheriff and other department directors and immediately institute the appropriate security precautions commensurate with the current alert status.

Answer 209

Director of Investigations & Homeland Security

Question 210

Order 361 Intelligence:

Bomb Threats to Critical Infrastructures and Military Installations

1. Intelligence Unit detectives are responsible for follow-up investigations for bomb threats to critical infrastructure locations or military installations. Intelligence Unit detectives shall have primary investigative responsibility and the on-call Intelligence detective shall be contacted.
2. Intelligence Unit detectives shall coordinate investigative efforts with the Integrity & Special Investigations Unit on bomb threats targeting government entities and law enforcement facilities.
3. Bomb threats to individuals or businesses are _______. In the event Patrol needs assistance from the Intelligence Unit, the on-call Intelligence detective shall be contacted.

Answer 210

Patrol follow-up

Question 211

Order 363 Marine:

The _______________ is the primary investigative agency for all boating accidents which occur on the inland waters of the State.

Answer 211

Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC)

Question 212

Order 363 Marine:

Operators of any boat involved in an accident or collision (in, on, entering, or leaving the water) where any injury, death, or disappearance of any person from on board, or total property damage of _____, are required by Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) 327.30 to report the accident or collision to the FWC.

Answer 212

$2,000 or more

Question 213

Order 363 Marine:

FWC’s decision to respond to the scene is at their discretion.

(a) FWC may not respond to accident cases with only property damage or cases where the injuries were minor, and all parties have left the scene;

(b) Officers shall advise the operators of those vessels that they are still required to notify FWC of the accident and/or collision within ______; and

(c) Accidents or collisions with damages totaling less than $2,000 (property damage only - no injuries or death) require no report.

Answer 213

24 hours

Question 214

Order 364 Dive:

The Dive Team will be called out 24 hours a day when:

Answer 214

1. A vehicle is fully or partially submerged in water, to include environments where proper personal protective equipment (PPE) is required (i.e., wetlands or shallow areas). This does not apply to victims or objects that could reasonably be recovered without unnecessary exposure to Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) personnel or contracted individuals (i.e., wrecker drivers);
2. Suicidal or missing persons are believed to be in the water;
3. Boat crashes with missing boaters or vehicle crashes with ejections into the water; and
4. Anytime a supervisor determines the Dive Team can significantly help the investigation.

Question 215

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Unless a suspected item or hazardous device has been located, the victim’s representative in authority has the right to make the decisions of whether or not to search the scene and whether or not to evacuate.

Answer 215

If the building or structure is a city-owned facility, JSO has the authority to determine if the facility will be searched.

d. If a threat, suspected device, or hazardous device has been located, JSO shall immediately order an evacuation.

Question 216

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

If the scene is to be searched, the on-scene supervisor shall establish a temporary command post upwind, uphill, and at least _____ from the scene when the terrain and situation allows, and organize search teams.

Answer 216

1,000 feet

All communications should take place at the command post. No communications shall take place over any electronic device, which would emit an electrical or radio frequency impulse (i.e., radios, cellular telephones, or Mobile Computer Aided Dispatch [MCAD]) within 1,000 feet of the area where a suspected device or area of search is located.

Question 217

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

If the scene is to be evacuated during the search:
(1) The persons being evacuated shall proceed to a location of at least _____ from the scene, regardless of protective barricade

Answer 217

1,000 feet

Question 218

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

At the conclusion of all searches, the _________ shall notify the victim’s representative in authority and the PECO supervisor of the results of the search.

Answer 218

on-scene supervisor

If no device is found do not state “THERE IS NO BOMB;” only state, “the search did not reveal a bomb.”

Question 219

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

If the threat involves a critical infrastructure or military installation, the on-call ________ detective shall be notified and shall have investigative responsibilities for the case.

Answer 219

Intelligence Unit

If the threat involves a government or law enforcement facility, the Intelligence Unit shall coordinate investigative resources with the Integrity Unit

Question 220

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Suspicious Packages and Hazardous Devices

The minimum evacuation distance shall be ______ with or without a protective barricade.

Answer 220

1,000 feet

Unless told otherwise by HDU

Question 221

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Suspicious Packages and Hazardous Devices

Evidence & Follow-Up Procedures

Answer 221

a. If the threat or suspect item is RSP’d, no explosive material is found, or it is not a “Hoax” device, the suspect item shall be turned over to patrol for follow-up.

b. If the suspect item or hazardous device is RSP’d and explosive material is found, the device and contents shall be processed by HDU and a crime scene detective.

c. The Intelligence Unit shall be responsible for the follow-up investigation where explosive material is found, there is evidence of a hoax device, or there is suspect information.

Question 222

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Post-Blast Scenes

After life safety measures have been implemented, officers should note the location of debris and potential fragments from the blast and establish an inner perimeter at least ________ wider than the debris located farthest from the seat of the blast

Answer 222

50 percent

(e.g., debris located 200 feet from the epicenter would require an inner perimeter no less than 300 feet from the epicenter).

Question 223

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

CBRNE Threats or Releases

By federal law, the _______ is the lead investigating agency for all terrorist incidents.

Answer 223

Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

Question 224

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

CBRNE Threats or Releases

Notify the PECO and responding officers immediately, advising the location of the suspected release and, if known, the wind direction, weather conditions, and a recommended rally point and Command Post upwind, uphill, and at least _____ from the outside of the suspected contaminated area

Answer 224

1,000 feet

Question 225

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Depending upon the type of agent released, and the potential for further contamination, the ________ may impose a quarantine or isolation order for persons or areas.

Answer 225

Florida Department of Health

Question 226

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

A CBRNE event could possibly fall into the parameters for a Type ______ All Hazards operations.

Answer 226

Types 1, 2, or 3

Question 227

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Unknown Substance or “White Powder” Incidents

When responding to an incident involving a suspicious substance or package that has not been opened, officers shall:

Answer 227

Do not touch the package, ask to meet away form the package, if inside tell the complainant to shut down the HVAC, notify supervisor, and

At a minimum, wear a High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) mask and disposable latex or nitrile gloves if contact with the package is unavoidable.

Question 228

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Signs that might indicate a chemical suicide are:

Answer 228

(1) Vehicle doors may be locked;
(2) Window and door seams may be taped or sealed;
(3) A warning note advising others to not enter the vehicle, structure, or confined space; and
(4) Chemical containers, labeled or unlabeled, may be visible.

Question 229

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

A ______ perimeter should be established around the scene of the chemical suicide incident and persons inside should be evacuated.

Answer 229

1,000 foot

Question 230

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Radiation – Personal Radiation Detectors (PRDs)

By implementing proper controls at the scene of an incident involving radioactive material, radiation exposure to first responders can be kept to a minimum by:

Answer 230

a. Minimizing the time in a field of radiation;
b. Maximizing the distance from the source of radiation; and
c. Maximizing the amount of shielding between the responder and the source of radiation.

Question 231

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

If an officer’s PRD detects an elevated radiation level in the area or while driving by, he should:

(1) Verify the alarm by repeating the detection process.
(a) Recheck vehicles, persons, or packages suspected of causing the alarm:
(i) If a person is carrying a suspected package, separate the person from the package to verify the alarm; and
(ii) If a package is unattended, do not survey the item. Establish a ______ perimeter and follow procedures outlined in this order.

Answer 231

1,000 foot

Question 232

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

The perimeter for possible radiological sources is determined by the locate process and measure of the alarm as indicated by the PRD. Any perimeter shall be established by

Answer 232

HDU and JFRD HAZMAT.

Question 233

Order 365 Hazardous Devices:

Disposal of Commercial and Consumer Fireworks

When commercial fireworks are recovered or seized by officers, the following guidelines shall be followed:

Answer 233

a. Contact the on-call Supervisor of HDU;
b. The responding HDU technicians shall take custody of the fireworks; and
c. They shall be properly logged as evidence or recovered property by the investigating officer.

Question 234

Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:

The UAS Unit shall respond to any of the following:

Answer 234

1. Search, rescue, and recovery efforts associated with missing and/or endangered persons;
2. Natural disasters to conduct damage assessments;
3. Authorized criminal investigations;
4. Crime scenes or traffic crashes to collect evidence;
5. Traffic management;
6. Provide an aerial perspective of 50 people or more with a focus on providing personal safety and protecting the constitutional rights afforded to citizens;
   a. Review Section 5 of Restrictions and Privacy
   Considerations of this order; and
   b. All requests to provide an aerial perspective of 50 people or more shall be reviewed and approved by the Commanding Officer of UAS Unit or higher authority.
7. Any emergency operation deemed applicable by the Assistant Chief of Special Operations, or any of the exigent circumstances listed in F.S.S. 934.50.

Question 235

Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:

Only officers designated by the _________ are authorized to operate UAS aircraft and UAS equipment owned or leased by JSO.

Answer 235

Assistant Chief of Special Operations

Question 236

Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:

For purposes of this section, a person is presumed to have a reasonable expectation to privacy on his or her privately owned real property if he or she is not observable by persons located at _____ in a place where they have a legal right to be, regardless of whether he or she is observable from the air with the use of a UAS.

Answer 236

ground level

Question 237

Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:

At a minimum, per FAA policy, no UAS shall be flown unless there are at least ___ people dedicated to the entirety of the flight, a pilot-in-command/control and a visual observer.

Answer 237

two people

Question 238

Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:

Recordings obtained on agency systems shall not be released to the public without prior approval from the ___________.

Answer 238

Assistant Chief of Special Operations or the respective investigative unit.

Question 239

Order 366 Unmanned Aerial Services:

Unless authorized by the Supervisor of UAS Unit, all other non-evidentiary digital media from the UAS Unit shall be purged every _____.

Answer 239

90 days.

Question 240

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

The _______ is responsible for ensuring the proper operation and accounting of the fund.

Answer 240

Assistant Chief of Narcotics & Vice

Question 241

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

The Narcotics & Vice Budget Management Analyst and a commanding officer shall jointly conduct a ____ cash count of the main vault and document it on the Cash Count Form maintained by the Budget Management Analyst.

Answer 241

weekly

Question 242

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Members of the _________ conducting investigations that require the use of investigative funds shall complete a Form P-1590 (Investigative Funds Request Form)

Answer 242

Patrol or Investigations Divisions

Question 243

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Within ______, the officer(s)/detective(s) shall provide the Patrol or Investigations Division supervisor with a Form P-1776 (Criminal Investigative Fund Form) documenting the use of the funds or return the funds to a Narcotics & Vice commanding officer with a completed Form P-1421 (Returned Funds Form).

Answer 243

two working days

Question 244

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

The Patrol or Investigations Division supervisor shall approve the Form P-1776 (Criminal Investigative Fund Form) within ______ of the transaction and provide it for approval to the Patrol or Investigations Division commanding officer.

Answer 244

six working days

Question 245

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Within _______ of receipt, the Patrol or Investigations Division commanding officer or designee shall approve the Form P-1776 (Criminal Investigative Funds Form) and, as soon as possible, shall submit it to the Assistant Chief of Narcotics & Vice for final review and approval.

Answer 245

five working days

Question 246

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Any member or unit needing to expend or return funds outside of prescribed time limits due to exigent circumstances (e.g., natural disasters, pandemics, large scale investigations outside of jurisdiction) shall obtain written approval from the _______.

Answer 246

Director of Investigations & Homeland Security.

Question 247

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Homeland Security Division, Violence Reduction Section, and ISIU procedures for obtaining funds are as follows:

Supervisors may be issued up to ______, on an as-needed basis, which shall be maintained in a safe in the supervisor’s office. The supervisor shall sign for the funds on a Form P-0114 (Cash Receipt Card);

Answer 247

$4,000

Question 248

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:
Homeland Security Division, Violence Reduction Section, and ISIU procedures for obtaining funds are as follows:

Detectives can receive funds directly from the Main Vault with the approval of a _______.

Answer 248

Narcotics & Vice commanding officer.

Question 249

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Authorizations to expend funds are on page 8 in this order.

Flash Rolls Authorization are too

Question 250

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Investigations, which require travel, must be authorized and approved by the requesting member’s ________.

Answer 250

assistant chief or his designee.

Question 251

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Per diem and traveling expenses of informants, sources, suspects, etc. must have prior authorization from the ____.

Answer 251

Assistant Chief of Narcotics & Vice.

Question 252

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

Authorization for use of the investigative prepaid card or debit card is restricted to only those members of the Narcotics & Vice Section unless approved by the _____

Answer 252

Assistant Chief of Narcotics & Vice.

Question 253

Order 371 Criminal Investigative Fund:

The form is to be used by detectives/officers who spend funds from the Criminal Investigative Fund for authorized expenditures, which require a receipt, and the receipt has been lost or misplaced.

Answer 253

Form P-0633 (Affidavit for Undocumented Expenses)

Question 254

Order 372 Confidential Informants:

The purchase of contraband, controlled substances, or other items that are material to a criminal investigation from a target offender, which is initiated, managed, overseen, or participated in by law enforcement personnel with the knowledge of a confidential informant.

Answer 254

Controlled Buy

Question 255

Order 372 Confidential Informants:

Refers to information with respect to an identifiable person or group of persons collected by a criminal justice agency to anticipate, prevent, or monitor possible criminal activity.

Answer 255

Criminal Intelligence Information

Question 256

Order 372 Confidential Informants:

Refers to information with respect to an identifiable person or group of persons compiled by a criminal justice agency while conducting a criminal investigation of a specific act or omission. This includes, but is not limited to, information derived from laboratory tests, reports of investigators or informants, or any type of surveillance.

Answer 256

Criminal Investigative Information

Question 257

Order 372 Confidential Informants:

A patrol officer needing to use a CI, which has not been certified, shall adhere to the following procedures:

(1) Obtain a supervisor’s approval;

(2) Submit a complete set of fingerprints to the Identification Unit to be checked for positive identification and a National Crime Information Center (NCIC) and Florida Crime Information Center (FCIC) warrants check;

(3) Check the individual’s arrest file for a history of violence and to determine if they are on probation or parole. If the individual is on probation or parole that person shall not be utilized as a CI unless approved in advance by the court or Florida Commission on Offender Review (FCOR) through their probation officer. Once approved by the court or FCOR, approval from the ____________ must be obtained. The complete CI packet shall be submitted by hand or intraoffice mail through the chain of command to the ________ for his review and approval;

(4) If the individual has no record, secure a full set of fingerprints and a photograph for the file;

(5) Complete an informant file for the individual in accordance with this order and then return it to the Narcotics & Vice Section within _______.

Answer 257

Director of Investigations & Homeland Security

Director of Investigations & Homeland Security

72 hours

A narcotics or vice detective must be called prior to deferring any arrest (including a physical arrest or NTA

Question 258

Order 372 Confidential Informants:

A confidential identifying code number shall be assigned to each informant by the _____.

Answer 258

Assistant Chief of Narcotics & Vice or his designee.

An electronic master informant index, organized alphabetically by last name and by informant code number, shall be maintained by the Assistant Chief of Narcotics & Vice.

Access to the CI files for review, notations, and upkeep is restricted to the Assistant Chief of Narcotics & Vice or his designee.

Question 259

Order 372 Confidential Informants:

In the event a CI is inactive for a period of _________, the CI’s confidential file shall be updated by completing a new Form P-1689 (Confidential Informant Intelligence Report Form) and a new Form P-1682 (Cooperating Individual Agreement Form). The file shall be reviewed, and a criminal history check shall be completed prior to the person being reactivated as an informant. This review shall be conducted by the Assistant Chief of Narcotics & Vice or his designee.

Answer 259

six months or more

Question 260

Order 372 Confidential Informants:

____officers shall conduct personal interviews of sources or CIs. In the event a second officer is not available, the supervisor shall respond to serve as the second officer.

Answer 260

Two

Question 261

Order 372 Confidential Informants:

Precautions shall always be used when dealing with informants of the opposite sex. There should always be _______.

Answer 261

two officers present.

Question 262

Order 381 Street Level Narcotics:

Under the following circumstances officers shall contact their Patrol supervisor who shall respond to the scene and request notification of a narcotics detective if the below criteria are met:

Answer 262

1. Arrests involving trafficking amounts of narcotics when the suspect is willing to cooperate with a narcotics detective;
2. The seizure of United States (U.S.) currency in excess of $5,000; and/or
3. Arrests involving individuals who are willing and capable of providing additional narcotics information.

Question 263

Order 381 Street Level Narcotics:

Officers seizing trafficking amounts of narcotics (e.g., one ounce cocaine, four grams heroin, 25 pounds marijuana, 10 grams methylenedioxymethamphetamine [MDMA] pills) shall:

Answer 263

a. Field test the controlled substance;

b. Contact their supervisor and request notification of a narcotics detective if the suspect is willing to cooperate with a narcotics detective;

c. Ensure all items of evidence are individually bagged to prevent contamination of possible forensic evidence and are then secured in a larger bag by the responding supervisor. The supervisor shall then seal the bag with tape and add his initials prior to the evidence being transported to the Property & Evidence Facility;

d. If Property & Evidence Facility personnel receive a bag with a broken seal, they shall notify the supervisor who originally signed the seal who shall respond and verify the contents and determine why the seal was broken; and

e. The submitting officer shall then submit all items of evidence into the Property & Evidence Facility following the guidelines listed in Order 481 (Property & Evidence

Question 264

Order 383 Mid-Level Narcotics:

Patrol shall contact the Supervisor of Mid-Level Narcotics Unit via the investigative PECO when called to a _____

Answer 264

commercial shipping facility regarding packages containing any form of suspected illegal cannabis or legal hemp.

Question 265

Order 385 Clandestine Laboratory Enforcement:

Establish a perimeter between _______feet around the site to ensure proper safety and security. Do not permit anyone to enter until the scene is turned over to CLET. Officers will work with responding CLET members on evacuation requirements of surrounding area;

Answer 265

fifty to one hundred (50–100)

Question 266

Order 387 Drug Abatement Response:

Anytime a search warrant is obtained related to the above listed items, the DART unit must be notified before the warrant is executed.

Answer 266

a. Illegal drug activities;
b. Gang related activities;
c. Prostitution;
d. Dog fighting;
e. Alcohol violations;
f. Human trafficking; and/or
g. Illegal gambling.

Question 267

Order 387 Drug Abatement Response:

Any DART request that may result in the condemnation of any hotels, motels, or apartment communities must be approved through the _____.

Answer 267

COJ Fire Marshal.

Question 268

Order 394 Warehouse:

When a covert/warehouse vehicle is involved in a crash or damaged property incident, a _____ must conduct an __________ as outlined in Order 572 (Professional Oversight). The completed Blue Team report and any other associated documents will be sent or faxed to the Police Impound Warehouse at (904) 630-0216.

Answer 268

supervisor

administrative investigation

Question 269

Order 394 Warehouse:

To aid in minimizing the inventory of held vehicles, the Warehouse Unit will ______ send a complete list of all vehicles being held for evidence to the State Attorney’s Office (SAO) Homicide Director and the commanding officer of any unit for which a vehicle is being held.

Answer 269

annually

Question 270

Order 395 Forfeiture:

Real estate may be seized only after approval from the ________ is received and the owner of the property is afforded a lis pendens hearing pursuant to the provisions of the FCFA.

The determination of whether JSO should file a civil forfeiture action shall be made by the_______ or his designee who is not directly involved in making the seizure.

Answer 270

Commanding Officer of Forfeiture Unit

Question 271

Order 395 Forfeiture:

A separate Form P-0983e (Online Forfeiture Request Form) shall be completed for _________ being seized. Only a single piece of property is allowed per form. A report clone feature is provided to replicate completed reports.

Answer 271

each property item

Question 272

Order 395 Forfeiture:

Vehicle Seized as follows:

Answer 272

Any vehicle that was used in the commission of a felony or was the proceeds of felony activity, is eligible for seizure and shall be seized unless there is an “Innocent Owner.”

b. Any vehicle driven by a Habitual Traffic Offender (HTO) is eligible for seizure and shall be seized unless there is an “Innocent Owner.”

c. If making a driving under the influence (DUI) arrest and the violator’s license is under current suspension, revoked, or cancelled as a result of a prior DUI conviction, the vehicle is, pursuant to F.S.S., subject to seizure and forfeiture under the provisions of the FCFA and shall be seized, unless there is an “Innocent Owner.”

Question 273

Order 351 Stakeouts and Surveillance:

Prior to the start of the stakeout operation, the supervisor shall conduct an operational briefing about the operation. The following items shall be covered in the briefing:

Answer 273

a. Goals of the operation;
b. Assignments during the operation;
c. Radio talk-group to be used;
d. Ensure all equipment, body armor, and visible police markings are with the officers;
e. Any special hazards or dangers;
f. Emergency contingency plans; and
g. Ensure that officers are aware of the Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) policy and procedures for response to resistance and vehicle pursuits.

Question 274

Supervisors of members being served with a subpoena or notice of deposition shall
ensure:

Answer 274

(1) The member is served as soon as practical;
(2) The subpoena log is updated accordingly;
(3) The member attends, and is adequately prepared for, the hearing or deposition; and
(4) The subpoena receipt, if applicable, is kept for 30 days from the appearance date
listed on the subpoena, after which it may be destroyed

Question 275

Each sergeant assigned to the Major Case, Mid-Level, Street-Level, and Vice Squads, shall conduct _____ random informant inspection monthly, to include a face-to-face interview. During the interview, the sergeant shall verify adherence to JSO policy regarding the use of informants.

Answer 275

one

Question 276

Order 310 Investigations:

When detainees are transported to the PMB, detainees shall be separated by gender and adults shall be separated from juveniles unless an

Answer 276

investigative advantage exists and there is constant supervision or observation.

Question 277

Order 301 Search and Seizure:

If a warrant is not served in a timely manner or the officer decides to let it lapse, the
warrant shall be returned as unserved within

Answer 277

15 Days

Question 278

Order 302 Filing Cases and Attending Court:

When a member receives a call-in subpoena for Monday jury selection, the member shall:

Answer 278

a. Call as directed on Monday at the stated time;
b. Receive any update on the case;
c. Write the name of the individual with whom he spoke, as well as the date/time of the
conversation, on the subpoena; and
d. Continue to call each day, or as directed, until the case receives a final disposition.