Order 200’s

Question 1

Order 201 Arrests: JSO has entered into MAAs with the Clay County Sheriff’s Office (CCSO), the Nassau County Sheriff’s Office (NCSO), and the St. Johns County Sheriff’s Office (SJCSO) that allow officers to, in the following circumstances, arrest a suspect in those counties when law enforcement authorities are not immediately available to assist

Answer 1

(1) When an active arrest warrant or capias for the suspect exists; and/or

(2) When there is probable cause to arrest a suspect for a forcible felony, as described in F.S.S. 776.08.

Question 2

Order 201 Arrests: Upon arresting a suspect in one of the three MAA counties for an active arrest warrant or capias, the arresting officer shall:

Answer 2

(1) Immediately contact the Communications Center within the jurisdiction where the suspect was arrested and inform them of the arrest;
(2) Inform the arrestee of the charges and bond amount for the warrant or capias; and
(a) If the arrestee requests that he/she be permitted to post bond in the county where he/she was arrested, transport the arrestee to that county’s jail; or
(b) If there is no bond, or if the arrestee does not request that he/she be permitted to post bond in the county in which he/she was arrested, transport the arrestee to the PDF and complete an Arrest & Booking Report in accordance with the procedures established in this order.

Question 3

Order 201 Arrests: Upon locating and/or detaining a suspect in one of the three MMA counties for a forcible felony, as described in F.S.S. 776.08, the officer shall:

Answer 3

(1) Contact the Comm Center w/ in the jurisdiction where the suspect was located and inform them of the arrest
(2) Relay the relevant facts to the watch commander of the jurisdiction, effect the arrest and transport the arrestee to the PDF
(3) If the watch commander in that jurisdiction determines an immediate arrest is not appropriate:
(a) Through the chain of command, notify the appropriate JSO division chief of that watch commander’s decision; and
(b) If after the JSO division chief makes contact with representatives from that jurisdiction’s agency and the arrest of the individual is still not approved by that jurisdiction, return to Duval County and obtain an arrest warrant for the suspect.

Question 4

Order 201 Arrests: For a violator to be eligible for an NTA citation, all of the following criteria must be met:

Answer 4

a. The violator is 18 years of age or older;
b. The violator can be identified using a government-issued form of identification, such as a driver’s license, state identification card, military identification card, or the Driver and Vehicle Information Database (DAVID);
c. The violator is a resident of the State of Florida (unless the charge is an open container violation, in which case Florida residency is not a requirement);
d. The violator agrees to sign the citation and provide a fingerprint;
e. There is no risk of continued violence being committed by or against the violator;
f. The violator is not impaired by alcohol or drugs and he/she clearly demonstrates the ability to assume responsibility for himself/herself;
g. There is no warrant for the violator’s arrest;
h. The violator has not been arrested within the last six months;
i. The violator has not failed to appear in court within the last 12 months pursuant to a court order or NTA;
j. The violator does not have a prior petit theft conviction (when the offense is petit theft);

Question 5

Order 201 Arrests: The Offenses NOT eligible for an NTA:

Answer 5

(1) A criminal traffic infraction (a Uniform Traffic Citation must be used instead);
(2) Cruelty to animals;
(3) Domestic violence or dating violence;
(4) Exposure of sexual organs;
(5) Prostitution;
(6) Resisting without violence;
(7) Stalking; or
(8) Violation of injunction for Protection

Question 6

Order 201 Arrests: How many Criminal OR Civil offenses can be listed on an NTA?

Answer 6

2 Criminal & 2 Civil; BUT Civil offenses and criminal offenses cannot be listed on the same NTA.

Question 7

Order 201 Arrests: Upon giving the violator the yellow copy of the NTA, officers shall advise the violator to bring his/her copy of the citation to the Clerk of Court Office (501 West Adams Street, Misdemeanor Department) within

Answer 7

10 working days. Failure to do so will result in an arrest warrant

Question 8

Order 201 Arrests: Officers shall retain all pink copies of NTA citations for ___ days beyond the date of issuance.

Answer 8

180 Days

Question 9

Order 201 Arrests: A separate Arrest & Booking Report is required for each arrestee and for each separate case number, unless

Answer 9

the charges are all from local capiases issued by the same Court division.

Question 10

Order 201 Arrests: Charges on an Arrest & Booking Report must be listed in the following descending order of severity:

Answer 10

(1) Felony charges;
(2) Misdemeanor charges; and
(3) Civil traffic infractions related to the case, including the Uniform Traffic Citation (UTC) number

Question 11

Order 201 Arrests: In addition to the Arrest & Booking Report, the arresting officer shall also complete an Offense Report to document an arrest. The only EXCEPTIONS are arrests for the following:

Answer 11

(1) Arrest warrant from other jurisdiction (complete an Information Report instead);
(2) Bond revocation (no separate report required);
(3) Capias (no separate report required);
(4) Courtroom charge (no separate report required);
(5) Failures to appear (no separate report required);
(6) Fugitive from justice (complete and 94 REPORT);
(7) Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) hold (no separate report required);
(8) In-transit hold (no separate report required);
(9) Violations of probation (no separate report required); and
(10) Writs of attachment (no separate report required).

Question 12

Order 201 Arrests: When completing an A&B Report for a local arrest warrant, the arresting officer shall:

Answer 12

a. Use the CCR # from the arrest warrant.
b. include statements made by the arrestee and circumstances on how he was taken into custody;
c. Include the verbatim narrative from the arrest warrant in the narr section of the A&B report;
d. Complete a supplemental report changing the status to “cleared by arrest”

Question 13

Order 201 Arrests: Once the warrant/capias has been validated by the Identification Unit, it can only be served for ____ after the validation. After which the validation process must be completed again.

Answer 13

12 hours

Question 14

Order 201 Arrests: When serving an arrest warrant from an out-of-state jurisdiction with no additional local charges, the arresting officer shall:

Answer 14

Complete the A&B Report using the “Fugitive from Justice” charge (not the charges listed on the warrant); and complete an Information report

Question 15

Order 201 Arrests: When serving an arrest warrant from another Florida jurisdiction with no additional local charges, the arresting officer shall

Answer 15

Complete the Arrest & Booking Report using the “Out of County Warrant” charge and select the type of arrest (i.e., felony, misdemeanor, or civil) based on the charge(s) listed on the warrant or teletype

Compete an Information report too

Question 16

Order 201 Arrests: Blue-bordered Department of State (DOS) identification cards are issued to

Answer 16

diplomatic officers, United Nations (UN) diplomatic officers, and their families.

They are entitled to full criminal immunity and may not be arrested or detained.

Question 17

Order 201 Arrests: Green-bordered Department of State (DOS) identification cards are issued to:

Answer 17

(a) Embassy administrative and technical staff employees, who are entitled to full criminal immunity; and

(b) Embassy service staff employees, who are entitled to immunity for official acts only.

Question 18

Order 201 Arrests: Red-bordered Department of State (DOS) cards are issued to:

Answer 18

(a) Career consular officers, career consular employees, and honorary consular officers, who are entitled to immunity for official acts only; and

(b) Consular officers, employees, and their families from certain countries (with which the U.S. has special agreements), who are entitled to full criminal immunity and may not be arrested or detained.

Question 19

Order 201 Arrests: Under the terms of the VCCR, foreign personnel with a Department of State (DOS) identification card cannot be arrested for a criminal traffic violation but

Answer 19

may be issued a traffic citation. While they are not required to pay any fines associated with the traffic citation, the citations are still tracked.

Question 20

Order 201 Arrests: U.S. senators and representatives are privileged from arrest or detention when attending, or traveling to and from, their respective sessions, unless the legislator commits:

Answer 20

(1) A felony, including treason; or
(2) Breach of peace.

Question 21

Order 201 Arrests: U.S. Mail drivers, train engineers, or bus drivers shall not be taken into custody for

Answer 21

minor, non-violent criminal offenses when they are actively responsible for the operation of their respective vehicles.

b. When a physical arrest is necessary due to the commission of a felony, violent misdemeanor, or threat to public safety, the officer shall notify his supervisor

Question 22

Order 201 Arrests: The Chief of Special Events or his designee shall inspect the holding rooms ______ to ensure they meet the facility requirements.

Answer 22

Annually

Question 23

Order 201 Arrests: Upon placing a detainee in the holding room, the officer shall:

Answer 23

Ensure the detainee remains handcuffed while in the holding room;

AND

Observe all detainees, including those identified as being suicidal or a danger to themselves, at least once every 15 minutes or every 10 minutes if the detainee is a juvenile using an officer of the same gender as the detainee when one is available.

Question 24

Order 201 Arrests: If the detainee inside of a holding room is a juvenile the following procedures apply:

Answer 24

(1) Do not place the juvenile in the holding room with an adult

(2) Ensure the secure custody of the juvenile does not exceed six (6) hours before the juvenile is delivered to the appropriate juvenile detention facility or is released

Question 25

Order 201 Arrests: When needing medical attention, JFRD transports the arrestee to:

Answer 25

a. UF Health Jacksonville (downtown location at 655 West 8th Street), the arresting officer shall initiate the absentee-booking procedures

b. Any other medical facility (e.g., Orange Park Medical Center, Memorial Hospital, etc.), the arresting officer’s DEPARTMENT DIRECTOR shall be notified via chain of command to determine the detention status of the arrestee

Question 26

Order 201 Arrests: Physical Arrests at Medical Facilities

a. Prior to arresting any individual who is receiving or about to receive medical care in a local hospital or medical facility, other than UF Health Jacksonville (downtown location), an officer must:

Answer 26

(1) Obtain approval via his chain of command from his DEPARTMENT DIRECTOR; and

(2) Notify and coordinate with hospital security

Question 27

Order 201 Arrests: When a juvenile arrestee is intoxicated, the arresting officer shall:

Answer 27

a. Ensure the arrestee receives any necessary medical treatment at the scene;

b. Transport the arrestee to UF Health Jacksonville (downtown location) to be medically cleared; and

c. Ensure the juvenile is transported to the PDF once he/she is medically cleared or absentee booked if medical clearance is not expected in a reasonable amount of time

Question 28

Order 201 Arrests: Florida law provides that a juvenile may be taken into custody under the following circumstances:

Answer 28

a. Pursuant to an order of the Circuit Court;

b. For a delinquent act or any violation of law that would be punishable by incarceration if the violation had been committed by an adult;

c. For failing to appear at a court hearing after being given adequate notice;

d. For violating the conditions of his/her probation, home detention, post-community probation, or conditional release supervision; or

e. The juvenile has absconded from non-residential commitment or escaped from residential commitment

Question 29

Order 201 Arrests: When arresting a juvenile an officer shall:

Answer 29

a. Determine whether the juvenile is alleged to have been harmed or was in danger of being harmed prior to being taken into custody;

b. Not transport the juvenile arrestee with an adult arrestee or an arrestee of the opposite gender, unless they were arrested during the same incident;

c. Properly restrain the juvenile arrestee during transport with a safety belt; and

d. Transport the juvenile arrestee to the appropriate receiving facility without delay.

Question 30

Order 201 Arrests: Officers shall not make warrantless arrests for violation of probation if the individual

Answer 30

is on probation from another state, even when the individual currently resides in Florida and is on supervised release in Florida (i.e., Interstate Compact Case).

Question 31

Order 201 Arrests: Officers may effect a warrantless arrest for the charge of violation of probation if an individual is currently on probation from any county in the State of Florida and:

Answer 31

a. Commits a criminal offense;

b. Knowingly associates with a criminal gang member, a person associated with gang members, or a person engaging in any criminal activity;

c. Is in possession of a firearm or ammunition;

d. Has used or is in possession of alcohol or illegal drugs; or

e. Violates any of the following special conditions of release, if established for that specific individual by the Court:

(1) Is not at his/her residence during the hours of an imposed curfew (usually 2200 to 0600 hours);
(2) Has made direct or indirect contact with the victim, victim’s family, or any other individual specifically listed in the conditions of release; or
(3) Currently resides within 1,000 feet of a school, childcare facility, park, playground, or other place where children regularly congregate, despite being ordered not to due to the victim having been under the age of 18 at the time of the original offense

Question 32

Order 202 Detainee Transport: 1. A juvenile detainee shall not be transported in a vehicle with an adult detainee unless

2. A female shall not be transported with a male detainee unless

Answer 32

1. They were arrested together for the same offense or incident. All juvenile detainees under the age of 18 must be restrained by a safety belt or child restraint device
2. They were arrested together for the same offense or incident.

Question 33

Order 202 Detainee Transport: When transporting suspects without a cage ensure

Answer 33

The suspect is handcuffed with his hands behind his back and seated in the right rear passenger seat. The second officer will sit behind the driver seat. Detainees are required to wear seatbelts when being transported in vehicle’s without a safety barrier.

Question 34

Order 202 Detainee Transport: Upon being notified of an escape, the supervisor shall:

Answer 34

a. Ensure that all efforts to capture the escapee have been exhausted, including:
(1) Establishing and maintaining an appropriate perimeter;
(2) Coordinating a detailed search;
(3) Requesting assistance from specialized units; and
(4) Notifying the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) so that a Be on the Lookout (BOLO) can be dispatched.

b. Notify his commanding officer of the incident; and

c. Notify the law enforcement agency with jurisdiction, if the escape occurred outside Duval County.

Question 35

Order 202 Detainee Transport: When transporting detainee’s on comercial flights, Officers shall ensure that an airline representative is notified at least _______ in advance of departure time or as soon as practical, that a detainee is being escorted.

Answer 35

One hour

Also, any police officer flying armed on a commercial aircraft must be on official business and must carry a letter on JSO official letterhead authorizing the armed travel. The letter must be signed by a supervisor.

Question 36

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: An injunction for protection issued by another state, the District of Columbia, an Indian tribe, a commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States (U.S.).

Answer 36

Foreign Protection Order

Question 37

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: A police officer assigned to the Civil Unit whose duties include coordinating and tracking injunctions for protections and violations of injunctions between the Clerk of Courts and the Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO).

Answer 37

Management of Criminal Investigations Officer (MCI)

Question 38

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: The person who petitioned the Court to issue an injunction for protection, either for his/her protection or for the protection of an immediate family member.

Answer 38

Petitioner

Question 39

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: Two or more incidents of violence or stalking committed by a suspect (one of which must have been within the last six months) against a victim or one of the victim’s immediate family members

Answer 39

Repeat Violence

Question 40

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: The person who, pursuant to an injunction for protection, is prohibited from making contact with another person or doing a specified act.

Answer 40

Respondent

Question 41

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: Any one incident of sexual battery (as defined in Florida State Statute [F.S.S.] 794); a lewd or lascivious act (as defined in F.S.S. 800); luring or enticing a child (as defined in F.S.S. 787); sexual performance by a child (as defined in F.S.S. 827); or any other forcible felony wherein a sexual act is committed or attempted, regardless of whether criminal charges based on the incident were filed, reduced, or dismissed by the State Attorney’s Office (SAO).

Answer 41

Sexual Violence

Question 42

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: A court order issued by a judge, following the filing of a “Petition for Injunction for Protection against Domestic, Repeat, Sexual, or Dating Violence,” that remains in effect until a full hearing can be held or for a period of 15 days, whichever comes first. If just cause is shown, the Court can extend the expiration date of a temporary injunction beyond the initial 15 days.

Answer 42

Temporary Injunction for Protection

Question 43

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: A foreign protection order that has been served on a respondent is enforceable in Florida, even when

Answer 43

Florida residency has not been established or when the injunction has not been registered or recorded in Florida.

Question 44

Order 232 Injunctions for Protection: Pursuant to F.S.S. 741.315(5), any person who acts under this section and intentionally provides a law enforcement officer with a copy of an order of protection known by that person to be false or invalid, or who denies having been served with an order of protection when that person has been served with such order, commits a

Answer 44

misdemeanor of the first degree.

Question 45

Order 241 Aviation: The JSO Aviation Unit is not available for calls for service if the winds are steady at more than:

Answer 45

20 knots or wind gusts that exceed 25 knots.

Question 46

Order 241 Aviation: Establishment of landing zones for emergency medical and police helicopters requires the following:

Answer 46

a. Daylight landing zones require at a minimum a clear area of 60 feet by 60 feet;

b. Nighttime landing zones require at a minimum a clear area of 100 feet by 100 feet;

Officers shall define the landing zone by utilizing their blue lights

Question 47

Order 241 Aviation: Emergency personnel should be kept at least ____ feet from the perimeter of the landing zone

Answer 47

100

Question 48

Order 241 Aviation: The general public should be kept at least ____ feet from the perimeter of the landing zone

Answer 48

200

Question 49

Order 241 Aviation: ________ is responsible for investigating the cause of all civilian aircraft crashes. JSO shall conduct a joint investigation to determine if the crash is the result of a suicide or criminal activity. The primary responsibility of Patrol and support personnel at an aircraft crash is to care for injured persons, secure the scene, and provide assistance for the detectives and NTSB.

Answer 49

The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

Question 50

Order 241 Aviation: Remember that the (civilian) plane crash may be the result of a suicide, homicide, or some other criminal act, and should be treated as any other crime scene until such determination can be made. The responding supervisor shall:

Answer 50

a. Ensure the FAA Flight Standards District Office at Craig Airport and the NTSB are notified by the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) PECO as soon as possible to respond to the scene; and

b. Unless relieved by a higher authority or advised that it is no longer necessary, maintain site security and coordinate with the FAA and NTSB investigators at the scene.

FAA will respond to the scene within 2 hours

Question 51

Order 241 Aviation: Military aircraft may be carrying live ordnance that could create an additional hazard to rescue personnel and others on the ground. If an aircraft is suspected of carrying live ordnance, a perimeter at least _____ feet from the wreckage should be established and all persons within the perimeter should be evacuated as quickly and safely as possible.

Answer 51

2,000 feet

Question 52

Order 241 Aviation: If the crash involves a JSO aircraft, the following shall apply:

Answer 52

a. If there are no injuries or fatalities and no damage to any property other than that owned or leased by JSO, the FAA and the NTSB shall not be notified. JSO shall conduct the sole investigation and an Incident Report shall be completed entitled, “Damage to Property;” and

b. If there are any injuries or fatalities (including to JSO personnel) or any property damaged other than that belonging to JSO, the FAA and NTSB shall be notified and requested to conduct an investigation. The JSO shall conduct a joint investigation as in the case of a civilian aircraft crash and the appropriate report(s) completed.

Question 53

Order 241 Aviation: City of Jacksonville (COJ) Municipal Ordinance (MO) 800.101 establishes minimum altitudes for aircraft flying over congested parts of the COJ (_____ feet) and other areas (____ feet).

Answer 53

1,000 feet over congested areas and 500 feet over other areas

Question 54

Order 244 Offender Tracking: A place where a career offender abides, lodges, or resides for 14 or more consecutive days.

Answer 54

Permanent Residence Career Offender

Question 55

Order 244 Offender Tracking: A place where a sexual predator or sexual offender abides, lodges, or resides for three or more consecutive days.

Answer 55

Permanent Residence for Sexual Offender or Predator

Question 56

Order 244 Offender Tracking: Upon their release from prison or establishing residency in Duval County, sexual predators and offenders have ____ to register with Felony registration

Answer 56

48 hours

Question 57

Order 244 Offender Tracking: Sexual Predators will have ____ and Sexual Offenders will have ______ affixed to their Florida DL or ID card

Answer 57

Sexual Predators: “Sexual Predator”

Sexual Offenders: “943.0435”

Question 58

Order 244 Offender Tracking: All transient sexual predators and sexual offenders will be required to report in person to the Sheriff’s Office in the county in which they are located within _____ hours after establishing a transient residence. They must report in person every ______ days to the JSO Felony Registration Office at 1024 Superior Street while maintaining a transient residence.

Answer 58

48 hours

30 days

Question 59

Order 244 Offender Tracking: Any person who qualifies as a career offender must register with FDLE or with the Sheriff’s Office in the county in which the career offender establishes or maintains a permanent or temporary residence, within _____ days after establishing permanent or temporary residence in this state, or after being released from the custody, control, or supervision of the Department of Corrections (DOC)

Answer 59

two working days

Question 60

Order 244 Offender Tracking: COJ MO 685.102 provides that it is unlawful for any person who is required by Florida law to register as a sexual predator to reside within _______ feet of any school, public library, day care center, park, playground, or other place where children regularly congregate.

Answer 60

2,500 feet.

ALL violations must be coordinated with the OTU Supervsior

Question 61

Order 244 Offender Tracking: Within 48 hours JSO shall, via OffenderWatch, provide notification to all residences within ____ feet of a sexual predator’s new temporary or permanent residence.

Answer 61

1,000 feet

Question 62

Order 244 Offender Tracking: Within 48 hours, JSO shall, via OffenderWatch, provide notification that includes the name, description, photograph, address, and the sexual predator’s offense or offenses in accordance with F.S.S. 775.21 to all licensed child care facilities, elementary, middle and high schools located within a _______ radius of the sexual predator’s new temporary or permanent residence.

Answer 62

one mile radius

Question 63

Order 249 Risk Protection: A subject commits a ______ of violation of an RPO if he/she:

(1) Has been served with an RPO; and

(2) Purchases, possesses, or receives any firearm(s) and/or ammunition.

Answer 63

third-degree felony

Question 64

Order 210 Patrol Function: Under normal circumstances, a supervisor has no more than ______ officers reporting to him

Answer 64

ten

Question 65

Order 210 Patrol Function: Utilizing the Form P-0720 (Violent Crime Acknowledgement Form) the victims are presented with the following options:

Answer 65

(1) Have their personal information exempted from public release for five years; and/or

(2) Provide their contact information to victim service providers.

Question 66

Order 210 Patrol Function: Incidents Being Reported Away from Original Incident Locations

Answer 66

a. When an incident is reported at a hospital or the Police Memorial Building (PMB), the call for service shall be dispatched using the original incident location, if known, and shall be assigned to an officer from the subsector of the original location.

b. When an incident is reported at any other location that is different from the original incident location, the call shall be dispatched to an officer from the subsector where the incident was reported.

(1) The responding officer shall complete all initial scene response procedures, including completing the appropriate report.
(2) If the case requires any additional patrol follow-up responsibilities, the supervisor of the initial reporting officer shall notify a supervisor from the zone of the original incident location. The supervisor shall ensure an officer from the subsector of the original incident location completes all follow-up responsibilities for the case.

Question 67

Order 210 Patrol Function: Forced entry, or the use of physical force to gain entry to a structure or vehicle, may be necessary:

Answer 67

a. During the serving of a search warrant in order to preserve evidence or apprehend a suspect (the need for this entry never outweighs the safety to the officers executing the warrant);

b. To rescue an individual inside a residence because of an accident, injury, or serious medical emergency (the use of JFRD would be appropriate for these types of entries);

c. In defense of life with the justifiable use of deadly force per Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) Chapter 776; and

d. To retrieve items immediately essential to the health of an individual, when no feasible alternative for obtaining those items exists.

Some situations, such as an armed suicide threat, do not necessarily constitute the need for a forced entry.

Question 68

Order 210 Patrol Function: Patrol Follow-up Responsibilities Category A, B, and C cases

Answer 68

Category A – Patrol Division has complete follow-up responsibility;

Category B – Patrol Division has the initial follow-up responsibility and Investigations Division has subsequent follow-up responsibility; and [CALEA 41.2.6]

Category C – Investigations Division has complete follow-up responsibility. Patrol Division is only responsible for the preliminary investigation.

Question 69

Order 210 Patrol Function: Officers should diligently work to clear any case requiring patrol follow-up until the case is:

Answer 69

a. Cleared by Arrest – Probable cause was established for the arrest of a suspect and suspect arrested;

b. Exceptionally Cleared – Probable cause exists for the arrest of a suspect, suspect has been positively identified, the location of suspect is known, but one of the following prevents an arrest from being made:
(1) The SAO has declined to prosecute the suspect;
(2) The SAO has elected to prosecute the suspect on another offense related to the incident;
(3) The SAO has referred the case to another agency or entity for disposition (e.g., military agency, pre-trial intervention, etc.);
(4) A juvenile civil citation was issued for the offense;
(5) Extradition for the suspect was declined; or
(6) The suspect is deceased.

c. Unfounded – Investigation revealed the offense did not occur; or

d. Suspended – Case could not be cleared because:

(1) There is insufficient information to identify a suspect or establish probable cause for the arrest of a suspect; or
(2) A capias, warrant, or summons was issued for the arrest of a suspect but has not been served

Question 70

Order 210 Patrol Function: Category A, B, and C reporting requirements

Answer 70

Category A: Patrol officers shall:
a. Complete an Offense Report or Information Report, whichever is applicable.
b. Complete a Supplemental Report within 10 days of the initial report to document all investigative efforts and findings; and
c. For cases remaining open after the initial Supplemental Report, complete a subsequent Supplemental Report every 10 days until investigative efforts are exhausted.

Category B:
a. Complete an Offense Report or Information Report, whichever is applicable;
b. Complete a Supplemental Report within 20 days of the initial report to document all investigative efforts and findings;
c. For cases remaining open after the initial Supplemental Report, complete a subsequent Supplemental Report every 10 days until investigative efforts are exhausted;
d. Coordinate efforts with the assigned detective; and
e. Upon the arrest of a suspect, have the suspect interviewed by a detective from the appropriate unit.

Category C: No follow-up conducted by patrol. Detective follow-up.

Question 71

Order 210 Patrol Function: An Officer can issue a SAO referral card for adults suspects involved in ______ cases.

Answer 71

misdemeanor offense or City of Jacksonville (COJ) Municipal Ordinance (MO) violation,

AND

The offense is not:
(1) Cruelty to animals;
(2) Domestic violence or dating violence;
(3) Exposure of sexual organs;
(4) Retail theft;
(5) Stalking; or
(6) Violation of an Injunction for Protection.

Question 72

Order 210 Patrol Function: High-risk operations involving the probability of hazardous conditions, such as serving search warrants or conducting stakeouts of known high-risk individuals, require:

Answer 72

(1) A supervisor; and

(2) An approved Form P-1310 (Tactical Operations Plan) prior to the deployment.

Question 73

Order 210 Patrol Function: Field Interviews

(1) This statute permits an officer to request identification and an explanation of a subject’s conduct and presence.

(2) If the officer has reasonable suspicion to believe the detained person is armed, he may conduct a pat down for weapons. Any weapons or evidence of a criminal offense disclosed by such a search may be seized (unless the weapon was being lawfully carried), and if probable cause for an arrest is established at any time during the interview, the officer may make the arrest. [CALEA 1.2.4]

(3) If the person properly identifies himself/herself and gives an explanation for his/her conduct, he/she shall be released if there is no probable cause for an arrest.

Answer 73

Stop and Frisk Law

Question 74

Order 210 Patrol Function: Field Interviews

(1) To commit the offense of _______________ (F.S.S. 856), a person must intentionally commit conduct that he/she knows or with substantial certainty should have known would cause an objectively reasonable observer to have a reasonable alarm or imminent concern that the suspect’s conduct was creating a safety risk for persons or property at the location.

(2) A person may not loiter or prowl in a place, at a time, or in a manner not usual for law-abiding individuals. When determining if a person has committed this offense, an officer should consider whether or not the person:
(a) Takes flight upon the appearance of law enforcement;
(b) Refuses to identify himself/herself; and
(c) Attempts to conceal himself/herself or any object.

Answer 74

Loitering and Prowling

Question 75

Order 210 Patrol Function: 1. Officers responding to active fires or reports of suspected arson shall notify JFRD.
2. Upon conferring with JFRD, officers shall ensure an arson detective from the Florida State Fire Marshal’s Office is requested via the Investigative PECO for:

Answer 75

a. Any fire to a dwelling, occupied or not, where arson has been proven or is suspected;
b. Any fire to a commercial building, occupied or not, where arson has been proven or is suspected;
c. Any arson to a vehicle or vessel in the patrol officer’s judgment is not auto-theft related;
d. Any fire occurring at a house of worship, even in cases where arson is not suspected;
e. Any fire resulting in a death or with injuries so severe death is expected;
f. Any incident where a firebomb or incendiary device has been placed, assembled, or was activated; and
g. Any fire where property loss is expected to exceed $1 million.

Question 76

Order 210 Patrol Function: When officers respond to a call involving a bail bond agent attempting to arrest an individual on an outstanding capias or forfeiture order, officers shall review the following information:

Answer 76

a. A copy of the bond;
b. A copy of the capias or forfeiture order (which is only valid if the forfeiture has occurred within the TWO YEAR period immediately preceding the date of the request for assistance, as outlined in F.S.S. 903.29) for the defendant;
c. The bail bond agent’s license; and
d. Defendant’s criminal history and other pertinent intelligence on potential threats to officer safety.

Question 77

Order 210 Patrol Function: Bail bond agents are responsible for the transportation of suspects they have arrested unless

Answer 77

An exigent circumstance led to an officer(s) using physical force on or restraining a suspect. In those situations, officers shall be responsible for transporting the suspect to the Pretrial Detention Facility (PDF).

Question 78

Order 210 Patrol Function: When an officer is made aware of a dependent child whose health, safety, or wellbeing is in question, he shall:

Answer 78

Notify the Florida Abuse Hotline Information System (1-800-962-2873), even if the mandatory reporting requirements established in F.S.S 39.201 (related to a person having knowledge or suspicion of abuse, abandonment, or neglect) are not met;

Write a report and route it to SAU

Question 79

Order 210 Patrol Function: Calls involving child custody issues with no evidence of abuse, neglect, or endangerment shall be treated as civil matters unless a court order directs the Sheriff to take a specific action.

Answer 79

a. When presented with a custody order that has been issued by a court of any Florida jurisdiction and specifically directs law enforcement to take action, an officer shall:
(1) Verify the order is currently active by contacting the Central Records Section;
(2) Only take the actions that are specifically directed towards law enforcement (e.g., “The Sheriff shall forthwith take possession of said child and deliver that child to the custody of the petitioner.”); and

(3) write and ARMS report

Officers shall not enforce the terms of an out-of-state custody order unless the order has been validated by a local circuit judge.

Question 80

Order 210 Patrol Function: For Dating Violence to occur the relationship existed within the past _____

Answer 80

6 Months

Question 81

Order 210 Patrol Function: Arrange for the victim to be transported to a domestic violence center, if requested by the victim, and have the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) PECO notify the shelter to advise an officer is en route with the victim. In the event the domestic violence center advises they are unable to accept the victim, the ____________ is available 24 hours a day and shall be contacted via the Investigative PECO for assistance;

Answer 81

Victim & Witness Services Unit

Question 82

Order 210 Patrol Function: When handling any threats to a Duval County Charter School that could result in a mass casualty incident, the responding officer shall notify his supervisor and commanding officer.

Answer 82

a. If the school is open, the supervisor and commanding officer shall respond to the scene and coordinate the investigation with the Intelligence Unit.

b. If the school is closed, the supervisor shall ensure:
(1) The on-call Intelligence Unit detective is immediately notified;
(2) The school principal is immediately notified, using the Charter Schools Directory on the Community Engagement Section site on 94Net; and
(3) The Patrol watch commander for the next upcoming school day is notified.

Question 83

Order 210 Patrol Function: Officers shall not make a physical arrest on DCPS property unless a violent crime occurred in the officers presence. If an arrest is made the JSO Supervisor and DCPS supervisor should be called.

All sexual batteries that occurred on DCPS property shall be

Answer 83

investigated and handled by the JSO

Question 84

Order 210 Patrol Function: Shot Spotter alerts place the gunfire search area within a _______ radius.

If an Officer responds to a ShotSpotter call between dusk and dawn that involved five or more shots and zero casings being recovered, ________

Answer 84

25 meters

a follow up call will be initiated the following day for Officers to recanvass.

Question 85

Order 210 Patrol Function: Upon approval from his supervisor, contact the _________________through Investigative Dispatch prior to making a probable cause arrest for Interference with Custody

Answer 85

State Attorney’s Office Special Victims Unit

Question 86

Order 210 Patrol Function: ___________ shall notify the next-of-kin promptly, in person.

The Patrol Division shall handle next-of-kin death notifications when the deaths were not related to homicide or traffic homicide incidents.

Answer 86

One supervisor and One Officer

NOT BY TELEPHONE

Question 87

Order 210 Patrol Function: Public lodging establishments (e.g. hotels, motels)

_________means any unit, group of units, dwelling, building, or group of buildings within a single complex of buildings which is rented to guests more than three times in a calendar year for periods of less than 30 days or 1 calendar month, whichever is less, or which is advertised or held out to the public as a place regularly rented to guests.

Answer 87

“Transient public lodging establishment”

Question 88

Order 210 Patrol Function: Public lodging establishments (e.g. hotels, motels)

__________ means any unit, group of units, dwelling, building, or group of buildings within a single complex of buildings which is rented to guests for periods of at least 30 days or 1 calendar month, whichever is less, or which is advertised or held out to the public as a place regularly rented to guests for periods of at least 30 days or 1 calendar month

Answer 88

Non-transient public lodging establishment

Question 89

Order 210 Patrol Function: Calls involving Right-of-way solicitation

All charitable organizations wishing to solicit from any roadway or right-of-way must first obtain a permit from the ________

Answer 89

Division of Consumer Affairs.

Question 90

Order 210 Patrol Function: Calls involving Right-of-way solicitation

Solicitation is permitted during daylight hours only, and organizations must comply with the following conditions:

Answer 90

a. Solicitors must have a copy of the permit and a certificate of insurance (at least, $1 million policy) at each location;
b. Solicitors must be at least 21 years of age; and
c. Each solicitor must have identification with a picture.

First offense is a $50 fine and tan NTA (if eligible) “Roadway/Right-of-Way Solicitation without a Permit.”

Question 91

Order 210 Patrol Function: COJ Entities

Officers of the JSO have been authorized to issue trespass warnings and make arrests for trespassing by:

Answer 91

(a) The Director of the Jacksonville Housing Authority (JHA) for JHA properties;
(b) The Director of Public Works for COJ rights-of-way and any COJ Properties; and
(c) The Jacksonville Transportation Authority (JTA) for JTA structures, properties, and conveyances.

Question 92

Order 211 Alarm Calls: If the location is not secure, or if the officer requests to check the building:

Answer 92

a. The officer shall notify the PECO to advise the alarm company and request the agent or owner to respond;

b. If a location is not secure, do not assume that it is a false alarm; and

c. If the owner or agent does not arrive within 30 minutes after notification or attempted notification by the alarm company, officers shall enter Jacksonville Municipal Ordinances (MO) 168.105 (c) “Failure of Representative to Respond within 30 Minutes” in the comments section of the MCAD screen.

Question 93

Order 211 Alarm Calls: Alarm companies are required to notify the Communications Center (with information about the person responding to the location) within _______ of the alarm

Answer 93

Ten minutes

Question 94

Order 212 Animal Complaints: If a dead animal is found on the public right of way and the right of way is adjacent to an interstate or a state numbered roadway, officers shall contact the ___________ at (904) 360-5200, from 0800-1700 hours, Monday-Friday (excluding holidays) giving the location and type of animal to be picked up.

Answer 94

Department of Transportation (DOT)

Question 95

Order 212 Animal Complaints: If a dead animal is located on the public right of way of any local street or road, officers can either contact ______ at (904) 630-CITY (2489), Monday-Friday from 0800-1700 hours, Saturday from 0800-1200 hours, or enter the issue via the COJ website after hours (1700-0800), giving the location and type of animal to be picked up.

Answer 95

ACPS

Question 96

Order 212 Animal Complaints: After hours, ACPS officers will respond only under the following circumstances:

Answer 96

a. Arrest – officers will first attempt to locate a relative, friend or neighbor to care for the animal(s). If the officers are unable to locate someone to care for the animal, ACPS shall be notified.
b. When conducting special operations (i.e., high risk search warrants, etc.), ACPS shall be notified in advance through NCIC if their service is needed;
c. Death or injured person investigations where the responders are unable to access the body due to aggressive or protective animal(s);
d. Injured animals in need of immediate ambulatory service (the animal is completely immobile due to injuries) and the owner, relative, friend, or neighbor cannot be located to care for the animal;
e. An individual is bitten by a dog and the victim is not a family member of the dog owner.
f. Vehicle Crash where the owner of an animal(s) is transported to the hospital and no relative/friend is available to immediately care for the animal.

Question 97

Order 212 Animal Complaints: As a last resort, officers may kill a seriously injured animal only if a _________ has approved such action. The ________ shall respond to the scene and complete a Response to Resistance Report (RTR) in ARMS in accordance with Order 551 (Response to Resistance).

Answer 97

commanding officer

Question 98

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons: Persons may be taken to a receiving facility for involuntary examination if there is reason to believe the person has a mental illness and because of his/her mental illness (analysis requires (1) or (2), and (3) or (4))

Answer 98

(1) The person has refused a voluntary examination after conscientious explanation and disclosure of the purpose of the examination; OR

(2) The person is unable to determine for themselves whether examination is necessary;

AND

(3) Without care or treatment, the person is likely to suffer from neglect or refuse to care for themselves; such neglect or refusal poses a real and present threat of substantialharm to his/her well-being; and it is not apparent that such harm may be avoided through the help of willing family members or friends or the provision of other services; OR

(4) There is a substantial likelihood that without care or treatment the person will cause serious bodily harm to himself/herself or others in the near future, as evidenced by recent behavior.

Question 99

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons: Court Orders

The order is valid only until executed or, if not executed, for the period specified in the order. If no time limit is specified in the order, the order is valid for _______ after the order is signed.

Answer 99

seven days

Question 100

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons: Professional Certificates

A physician, physician assistant, psychiatrist, clinical psychologist, psychiatric nurse, advanced practice registered nurse under s 464.0123, mental health counselor, marriage and family therapist, or clinical social worker may execute a certificate stating they have examined a person within the preceding _____ and find the person appears to meet the criteria for involuntary examination while stating the observations upon which that conclusion is based.

Answer 100

48 hours

Question 101

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons: Officers are to treat juvenile involuntary mental examinations the same as adults but with the following exceptions:

When law enforcement is called to a school to Baker Act a juvenile, law enforcement must:

Answer 101

(a) Seek assistance from a co-responder unit, if available;

(b) Require the school contact a mental health provider from the Rapid Response Team (Duval County Public Schools Child Crisis Hotline) to assess the juvenile;

(c) Attempt to locate a parent or guardian and allow them to take the child to involuntary examination, if they agree.

(d) If not released to a parent or legal guardian, transport the Baker Acted juvenile to the Mental Health Center of Jacksonville (3333 West 20th Street), River Point Behavioral Health (6300 Beach Boulevard), Wolfson Children’s Hospital Emergency Room (800 Prudential Drive), or to the nearest receiving facility for juveniles.

Question 102

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons: Criminal Charges

Officers called to assist the mental health facilities during a crisis situation shall provide assistance until the crisis has subsided. Only those patients who meet the criteria above shall be taken from the facility, with the approval of a _______, and booked into the Pretrial Detention Facility (PDF).

Answer 102

commanding officer

Question 103

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons:

One who is under the influence of alcohol, chemical, or controlled substances to the point at which it interferes with his/her power of self-control.

Answer 103

Intoxicated person

Question 104

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons:

One who appears to be in immediate need of emergency medical attention or is unable to make a rational decision about his/her need for care.

Answer 104

Incapacitated person

Question 105

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons:

Any public or private facility, service, or program providing treatment of rehabilitation services for the abuse of drugs or alcohol, including but not limited to, detoxification centers, licensed hospitals, community mental health centers, clinics or programs, halfway houses, and rehabilitation centers.

Answer 105

Treatment resource facility

Question 106

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons:

_________ provides for the placement and treatment of persons who need substance abuse services. Adults who are intoxicated (by drugs or alcohol) in a public place or are brought to an officer’s attention and may be taken into protective custody and transported to the Gateway Community Services (Gateway) located at 555 Stockton Street, unless they appear to need emergency medical attention.

Answer 106

The Marchman Act (F.S.S. 397)

Question 107

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons: If space is unavailable at Gateway, officers shall transport the individual to

Answer 107

Orange Park Medical Center, or to Wekiva Springs Center

Question 108

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons: Officers shall, if possible, notify the nearest relative of the intoxicated person that he/she has been placed in protective custody, unless

Answer 108

the person requests that there be no notification.

Question 109

Order 213 Mentally Ill and Intoxicated Persons: Disposition of Intoxicated Juveniles

Upon encountering in a public place or having brought to their attention an intoxicated juvenile officers shall:

(1) Prior to placing the juvenile in the police vehicle, follow proper search techniques; and

(2) Notify a parent, guardian, legal custodian, or responsible adult who is personally known to the juvenile or family unit, if possible. Officers shall make every reasonable effort to contact a suitable person to whom the juvenile can be released. If an officer is unable to locate a suitable person, the juvenile shall be transported to either ______

Answer 109

Gateway Community Services, 555 Stockton Street, or the Wolfson Children’s Hospital Emergency Room.

Juveniles who are intoxicated and whose conduct meets the criteria of F.S.S. 856.011 may be detained and charged with the appropriate offense. Officers shall note in the Juvenile Arrest & Booking Report their efforts to contact a responsible person for the child.

Question 110

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

Major railroad crashes and derailments which involve fire, the release of hazardous materials, a serious injury or death, significant property damage, credible evidence of malfunction or failure of an active warning device, evacuations, or receives media attention (Class “A” accidents) will be investigated by

Answer 110

the FDOT, the FRA, and/or the NTSB.

If negligence or criminal activity occur the JSO will conduct a criminal investigation

Question 111

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents: The FDOT investigator will respond to any

Answer 111

derailment involving 10 or more cars, any crash at a crossing involving three or more fatalities, or
any incident which appears to be part of a pattern or trend.

Question 112

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

Unless relieved by a higher authority or advised that it is no longer necessary, maintain site security and coordinate with the investigators at the scene:

Answer 112

(1) The local FDOT investigator will respond as soon as possible within two hours and will provide an estimated time of arrival. He/she may represent the FRA and the
NTSB at the scene;

Question 113

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

The responding supervisor shall:

Answer 113

a. For any crash involving serious injury, death, or release of hazardous materials, notify
the watch commander;

b. Summon other resources as needed for site security, crowd control, and traffic control;

c. Coordinate with JFRD and FDOT personnel in the establishment of a command post and an inner and outer
perimeter, ensuring that endangered or non-essential persons are evacuated from within;
(1) The supervisor will notify the PECO of the location of the command post; and
(2) Responding units will be instructed to report to the command post for assignments
and briefing, unless directed to do otherwise.

d. Ensure that the railroad has been notified by a member of the train crew or, if they are
unable, advise the Investigative PECO; and

e. Ensure that the FDOT Rail Operations Administrator and the FRA have been notified by
the PECO as soon as possible so they may respond to the scene. Either they or the
railroad will contact the NTSB, as indicated.

Question 114

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

Railroad crashes other than those outlined above, such as those involving motor vehicles, pedestrians, and other conveyances, will normally be investigated solely by the ___

Answer 114

the JSO

Question 115

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

Railroad crashes will be reported as follows

Answer 115

a. If a train collides with a motor vehicle and the motor vehicle is being operated on a roadway at the time of the collision, a Long Form Crash Report will be completed in SmartCop;

b. If a train collides with a motor vehicle on private property not open to the public (i.e., Blount Island, Talleyrand Ave. terminal area, or on a private rail spur inside a fenced warehouse compound), an Incident Report will be completed entitled “Accidental Death”, “Accidental Injury”, or “Damage to Property”, as appropriate;

c. If a train collides with an all-terrain vehicle, a Long Form Crash Report will be completed in SmartCop regardless of the location if a fatality or an injury requiring medical treatment is involved;

d. If a train collides with a bicyclist or pedestrian, or other non-motorized conveyance resulting in injury or death, an Incident Report will be completed, regardless of the location; and

e. If a train collides with another train and there are no injuries, fatalities, or damage to property other than that owned or operated by the railroad, the NTSB, FRA, and FDOT
will be called by the railroad. A JSO investigation is not required unless the engineer is impaired, in which case the FDOT Rail Operations Administrator will notify JSO to
respond.

Question 116

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

In the case of fatalities or life-threatening injuries, the following investigative units will be
notified:

Answer 116

a. In cases involving motor vehicles, pedestrians, and other conveyances that require the completion of a Long Form Crash Report in SmartCop, Traffic Homicide will respond; and

b. In all other cases, Homicide will respond.

Question 117

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) 860.03, Intoxicated Servant of a Common Carrier makes it unlawful and a _____ for any person to operate a train, railroad switch, or signal while intoxicated.

Answer 117

second-degree misdemeanor

Question 118

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

A supervisor shall be notified any time an arrest of a train engineer or crewmember is indicated. The supervisor will decide whether a Notice to Appear Citation (NTA) shall be
issued or if the subject is to be physically arrested.

Answer 118

Train engineers and crew members who commit minor violations of the law will not be taken into custody, but will be issued an NTA. A physical arrest is only indicated for “serious” misdemeanors or felonies.

Question 119

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

Except at official crossings, railroad tracks are private property and, where properly posted, persons fishing from trestles, walking along railroad tracks, etc., are guilty of a ______ under F.S.S. 810.09, Trespass on Property other than Structure of
Conveyance.

Answer 119

first degree misdemeanor

Question 120

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

Any unauthorized person who intentionally interferes with any railroad train, track, switch, or signal is guilty of a ______ under F.S.S. 860.05- F.S.S. 860.09.

Answer 120

third degree felony

Question 121

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

Any person who rides or attempts to ride on a train without permission is guilty of a ________ under F.S.S. 860.04, Riding or Attempting to Ride on a Railroad Train with the Intent to Ride for Free, or F.S.S. 810.08, Trespass in Conveyance.

Answer 121

second degree misdemeanor

Question 122

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents:

No railroad locomotive, car, train, or other vehicle shall be operated so as to close or obstruct a street or crossing in the City for a longer time

Answer 122

than five minutes in a period of fifteen minutes.

NTAs will be issued for this offense and to the railroad company.

Question 123

Order 215 Observer Program:

An individual convicted of a felony crime against property, misdemeanor drug charges, morals charge, or persons with any pending criminal charges will not be permitted to ride for a period of ______ from the last conviction.

Exceptions may be permitted with the approval of the zone commander or higher authority.

Answer 123

five years

Question 124

Order 215 Observer Program:

Observers wanting to ride with a CSO will submit the Observer Program Request/Release Form (P-0596) to the ______

Answer 124

Commanding Officer of Recruitment & Selection at the Academy.

Question 125

Order 215 Observer Program:

Observers must submit their completed Observer Program Request/Release Form (P-0596) to the appropriate substation _____ prior to the date on which they wish to ride

Answer 125

three days

Question 126

Order 215 Observer Program:

Individual officers initiating requests for observers shall submit a completed Observer Program Request/Release Form (P-0596) to their sergeant for approval at least _____ prior to the requested ride-along date.

Answer 126

24 hours

Question 127

Order 215 Observer Program:

Observers requesting to ride with less than 24 hour notice require the approval of the _______

Answer 127

commanding officer.

Question 128

Order 215 Observer Program:

The Observer Program Request/Release Forms (P-0596) generated from the substation personnel as well as those initiated by the individual officers will be maintained _______ after ride-along.

Answer 128

four anniversary years

Question 129

Order 220 Traffic Function:

When the violator stops his vehicle in a safe location, the officer shall position his vehicle approximately _____ behind and slightly offset to the left of the violator’s vehicle.

Answer 129

20 feet

Question 130

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Traffic Warnings shall always be given for:

Answer 130

a. A tag being expired for 30 days or less;
b. A violator not having his/her vehicle registration paperwork; and
c. Exceeding the posted speed limit by five miles per hour (mph) or less (this does not apply to school zones or other areas in which speeding fines are doubled).

Question 131

Order 220 Traffic Function:

When a violator refuses to accept a UTC, officers shall:

Answer 131

a. Read all of the options out loud to the violator to successfully address the citation;

b. Record the interaction with the violator using a body worn camera and appropriately tag as instructed in Order 574 (Body Worn Camera);

c. Retain the violator’s copy, placing it in the Property & Evidence Facility; and

d. Certify that the citation was issued to the violator by checking the appropriate box under the officer signature line.

Question 132

Order 220 Traffic Function:

When a violator refuses to sign a UTC that requires his signature, the officer shall explain that refusal to sign and accept the UTC constitutes a crime and will result in physical arrest as stated in F.S.S. 318.14(3). If the violator still refuses to sign the UTC, the officer shall:

Answer 132

(1) Have a supervisor respond to the scene, who shall also attempt to gain the violator’s compliance; and

(2) If the violator still refuses to sign and accept the UTC after speaking to a supervisor, physically arrest the violator for refusing to sign a summons and transport him to the Pretrial Detention Facility (PDF).

Question 133

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Officers must place the violator’s fingerprint on the reverse side of the UTC complaint copy when the violator:

Answer 133

(1) Has no valid form of identification, such as a driver’s license, state-issued identification card, or military-issued identification card;

(2) Has a suspended, revoked, or altered driver’s license;

(3) Is the driver, but is not in possession of his/her valid driver’s license; and

(4) Is the driver and is in violation of the “Business Purposes Only” restriction that was imposed due to a DUI conviction.

Question 134

Order 220 Traffic Function:

To properly obtain a violator’s fingerprint, an officer should roll the right thumb, or left thumb if the right one is missing or injured, from nail to nail using a JSO-issued fingerprint pad. If neither of a violator’s thumbs is available, the officer shall use the violator’s right index finger. Officers shall indicate when any finger other than the right thumb was used; and

Answer 134

Forward the original citation containing the fingerprint to the Citation Accountability Unit within 24 hours.

Question 135

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Officers are required to obtain a __________ prior to physically arresting a violator for a misdemeanor traffic infraction.

Answer 135

supervisor’s approval

Question 136

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Each radar device shall be serviced and calibrated every ______ by a JSO-designated qualified service technician

Answer 136

six months

Question 137

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Officers shall maintain written records of all radar maintenance and radar calibration actions. These records are submitted to the Commanding Officer of whichever Traffic Enforcement Unit they are assigned, East or West, and are maintained for _______________.

Answer 137

90 days past the device’s working life.

Question 138

Order 220 Traffic Function:

How many violations can be selected on each parking citation?

Answer 138

Only One

Question 139

Order 220 Traffic Function:

FHP only handles traffic crashes and hazards that occur on, underneath the overpass of, at the intersection of, on any on-ramp of, and on any off-ramp of the following highways:

Answer 139

(1) Interstate 10;
(2) Interstate 95;
(3) Interstate 295;
(4) State Road 9B; and
(5) State Road 202 (J. Turner Butler Boulevard).

Question 140

Order 220 Traffic Function:

JSO personnel shall respond to the scene of a crash and conduct an investigation when the crash involves any of the following:

Answer 140

a. Death or injury;
b. Hit and run;
c. Impairment of the operator due to alcohol or drugs;
d. Damage to public vehicles or property;
e. Hazardous materials;
f. Disturbances between the drivers;
g. Major traffic congestion as a result of the crash; or
h. Damage to the vehicles in excess of $500.

Question 141

Order 220 Traffic Function:

(Officers arriving to a crash should) Evaluate the scene, examining and recording the effects of the crash on the roadway for potential hazards, and taking corrective measures to eliminate those hazards. Some examples are:

Answer 141

(1) A fire or fire hazard, which would require the use of a fire extinguisher or a call for JFRD;

(2) A “live” wire down, which would require a call for Jacksonville Electric Authority (JEA);

(3) A hazardous materials spill or leak, which would require notification of JFRD Hazardous Materials Team refer to Order 365 (Hazardous Devices); and

(4) Other road hazards, which would require calling out Streets and Highways or the Florida Department of Transportation (FDOT).

Notify the appropriate agencies of damage or other hazards. Examples of these agencies include:
(1) JEA;
(2) COJ Traffic Engineering Division;
(3) Streets and Highways for local streets;
(4) FDOT for state roads;
(5) The telephone company; and
(6) Public Works for broken water mains.

Question 142

Order 220 Traffic Function:

In order to use the Traffic Crash Report in SmartCop, the location of the crash must be known. In the event that a crash is reported and the location is unknown, the information shall be recorded on a

Answer 142

Field Investigation Report (FIR) via ARMS, and forwarded to the Traffic Homicide Unit.

Question 143

Order 220 Traffic Function:

If the person provides the law enforcement agency, within ______ of the crash, proof of insurance that was valid at the time of the crash, the law enforcement agency may dismiss the citation. The updated info needs to be forwarded to the citation accountability unit

Answer 143

24 hours

Question 144

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Supervisors shall ensure Form P-0759 (Summary of Reports Sent to Data Input), the Traffic Crash Report, and the matching citations are submitted before the end of the supervisor’s _____

Answer 144

tour of duty.

Question 145

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Officers shall ensure that every driver, pedal cyclist, or pedestrian has a completed Driver Exchange of Information Form in crashes that have ________ vehicles, bicycles, pedestrians or motorcycles.

Answer 145

three or fewer

4 or more vehicles, bicycles, pedestrians, or motorcycles a case card with the CCR # will be provided.

Question 146

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Cases not involving life-threatening injuries or fatalities shall be followed up as a Category B Case and Traffic Homicide can assist with the investigation. The follow-up of these cases, which are not solved by the __________, shall be conducted by a Traffic Homicide Unit detective.

Answer 146

initial investigation.

In all hit-and-run cases, the investigating officer shall record the number of hours and minutes that he spent investigating this case in the narrative.

Question 147

Order 220 Traffic Function:

If a hit-and-run suspect vehicle is located and the investigating officer is unable to determine the driver’s identity, and the owner cannot be located, he shall:

Answer 147

Upon supervisor approval, Place a hold on the vehicle for the Traffic Homicide Unit when the investigation meets the criteria for follow-up by a Traffic Homicide Unit detective. No hold for hit-and-run is necessary if the vehicle was reported stolen prior to the time which the hit-and-run occurred.

Question 148

Order 220 Traffic Function:

There are certain legitimate reasons for a person to leave the scene of a crash. Under the following circumstances a Traffic Crash Report shall be completed instead of an FIR:

Answer 148

(1) Anytime a driver has valid, usable suspect information;
(2) The driver left the scene to pursue a hit-and-run vehicle;
(3) The driver left the scene for his own safety;
(4) The driver left the scene to seek immediate medical attention; or
(5) The driver left the scene to report the crash and is a reasonable distance away from the scene of the crash.

Question 149

Order 220 Traffic Function: COJ-Vehicle (Non-JSO) Traffic Crashes

Answer 149

Officers investigating a traffic crash involving a non-JSO COJ vehicle shall complete a Traffic Crash Report (or ARMS Report if the location of the crash is unknown) regardless of the value of the damage caused by the crash.

2. Officers shall request a COJ Risk Management Public Liability Adjustor via NCIC if the crash resulted in any injury that necessitated transportation to a hospital

Question 150

Order 220 Traffic Function: JSO-Related Vehicle Crashes and Incidents

Supervisors shall

Answer 150

a. Notify the Traffic Homicide Unit if the crash meets the callout criteria outlined in Order 337 (Traffic Homicide);

b. Notify the Integrity & Special Investigations Unit if there is any evidence of criminal conduct by a JSO employee;

c. Request a COJ Risk Management Public Liability Adjustor via NCIC if the crash resulted in any injury that necessitated transportation to a hospital;

d. Ensure a standard traffic crash investigation and a FLHSMV Traffic Crash Report are completed, if the crash involved any injuries or any damage to non-JSO property;

e. Ensure a criminal investigation and an Incident Report are completed if the JSO damage resulted from a non-driving criminal act such as criminal mischief; and

f. Ensure an administrative investigation and a Blue Team Vehicle Accident/Incident Report is completed, in accordance with Order 572 (Professional Oversight).

Question 151

Order 220 Traffic Function: JSO-Related Vehicle Crashes and Incidents (OUT OF COUNTY)

Answer 151

If the incident occurred in any of the four surrounding counties (Baker, Clay, Nassau, or St. Johns), the involved member shall immediately notify an on-duty supervisor, whoshall respond to the scene and conduct an administrative investigation in accordance with Order 572 (Professional Oversight).

b. If the incident did not occur in any of the four surrounding counties (Baker, Clay, Nassau, or St. Johns), the involved member shall notify his supervisor upon returning to work.

Question 152

Order 220 Traffic Function:

The following conditions make a crash ineligible for a driver’s self-report:

Answer 152

a. Injuries or fatalities;
b. An occupied vehicle impacted by a hit-and-run vehicle;
c. Any vehicle towed from the scene;
d. Involves an intoxicated driver; and
e. Any commercial vehicle involved.
f. Any crash where apparent damage is at least $500 or greater; and
g. The driver involved in the crash does not accept the self-report option. Refer to the procedure for such refusals as outlined in this order.

• A UTC shall not be issued when a drivers self report is given.
• All self reporting must be done within 10 days, or have the forms mailed within 10 days

Question 153

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Officers are required to report any crash involving an all-terrain vehicle which results in the death of any person or injury to any person which results in the treatment of that person by a physician (reference F.S.S. Chapter 316). All Traffic Homicide procedures shall be followed.

Answer 153

Other vehicular crashes on private property not open to the public do not require a traffic report.

Question 154

Order 220 Traffic Function:

A Traffic Crash Report is not required when a vehicle catches on fire unless

Answer 154

the vehicle is involved in a collision.

Question 155

Order 220 Traffic Function:

______________ shall determine the number of CSOs that will be assigned to each zone and shall determine the most appropriate shift and working hours for each CSO.

Answer 155

The Chief of Patrol Support

Question 156

Order 220 Traffic Function:

CSOs may only be used to assist on the perimeter of a crime scene if there is

Answer 156

no potential for violence and a supervisor has given them approval to do so.

Question 157

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

Qualified Juvenile Offender (QJO)

Answer 157

a. Has two or fewer prior citations;
b. Does not have a pending citation or outstanding warrant/custody order;
c. Has never been adjudicated delinquent for a felony or been convicted as an adult;
d. Is not a gang member as defined in F.S.S. 874.03(3); and
e. Lives in the state of Florida.

Question 158

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

Qualifying Offense

Answer 158

Any misdemeanor or City of Jacksonville (COJ) Municipal Ordinance
(MO) violation except any that involve the use/possession of any firearm or deadly weapon,
or any traffic offense prescribed by Chapters 316, 320, or 322, F.S.S.

Question 159

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

A program within the state of Florida designed to provide necessary intervention services as an alternative disposition to arrest and prosecution.

Answer 159

Teen Court

Question 160

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

Prolific Juvenile Offender (PJO) – Pursuant to F.S.S. 985.255 (1)(f) 1-3, a juvenile is a prolific

Answer 160

a. Is charged with a delinquent act that would be a felony if committed by an adult;

b. Has been adjudicated or had adjudication withheld for a felony offense, or delinquent act that would be a felony if committed by an adult, before the charge; and

c. Has five or more of any of the following, at least three of which must have been for felony offenses or delinquent acts that would have been felonies if committed by an adult:

(1) An arrest event for which a disposition, as defined in F.S.S. 985.26, has not been entered;
(2) An adjudication; or
(3) An adjudication withheld.

Question 161

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

Officers shall consider the following factors in making diversion decisions regarding juvenile offenders:

Answer 161

a. The nature of the alleged offense;

b. The circumstances and age of the alleged offender;
(1) Under most circumstances, only juveniles 10 years of age and older may be arrested. A juvenile nine years of age or younger should be released to his/her parents or guardian, or if appropriate, the Department of Children and Families
(DCF). If probable cause exists, but the juvenile is not on the scene to arrest, the officer must go to the SAO to seek an arrest warrant.
(2) If an officer believes the arrest of a juvenile under 10 is necessary, a supervisor shall be requested to respond to the scene prior to the arrest. The responding supervisor
shall consult with the Juvenile Division of the SAO during office hours or the on-call Assistant State Attorney (ASA) after hours.

c. The alleged offender’s record, if any; and

d. The availability of community-based rehabilitation programs.

Question 162

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs: Truant Juveniles

An Officer should do the following in an Truancy investigation

Answer 162

Write a Truancy report in ARMS via an information Report

If the officer is unable to drop the Juvenile off at school (e.g. the school refuses to accept the juvenile due to behavorial problems or other reasons)

1) the officer shall release the juvenile to a parent, legal guardian, etc, if possible, or;

2) transport the juvenile to YCC. If YCC cant refer to order 325 Special Assault procedures on DCF placement.

Question 163

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs: Truant Juveniles

All Duval County public middle schools and high schools, or other designated sites, are

Answer 163

designated as drop-off sites for truants.

Question 164

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

If the truant is detained one hour after school begins up to one hour before school ends without a justifiable reason, he/she is to be considered truant. Officers shall transport them to their assigned school

Answer 164

Truants detained who live and attend school outside Duval County and their parent or legal guardian cannot be located shall be transported to YCC. Officers shall also ensure an ARMS Information Report is completed for these truants. If the truant is uncooperative and refuses to give accurate information, he/she may be arrested and charged with “Resisting an officer without violence” per F.S.S. 843.02

Question 165

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

In the event the parent(s) or legal guardian(s) are unable to be contacted or refuse to cooperate (e.g., will not leave work, no transportation, etc.) the officer may resolve the incident in one
of the following ways:

Answer 165

(1) By transporting and releasing the truant to the parent(s) or legal guardian at their place of employment or residence;

(2) By contacting the truancy center for truant pick up and transportation; or

(3) By placing the truant in YCC after 1700 hours.

b. All action taken shall be documented on the ARMS Information Report.

c. Release of a juvenile may be appropriate if:
(1) The juvenile is 16 years of age or older and has officially withdrawn from school (reference F.S.S. 1003.21); or
(2) The juvenile has a valid explanation for being absent from school, (i.e., doctor’s appointment, family emergency, working off campus, etc.).

Question 166

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

Juvenile Curfew violations hours are:

Answer 166

Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday: 2300-0500

Friday, Saturday, & legal holidays: 0100-0600

Question 167

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

_________ is the point of contact for requests for follow up on electronic monitor alerts in accordance with the Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) between the Department of Juvenile Justice (DJJ) and JSO

Answer 167

The Commanding Officer of Citywide Community Problem Response Unit

Question 168

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

A physical arrest shall be made in lieu of a Juvenile Civil Citation with supervisor approval and when:

Answer 168

If the juvenile is charged with three or more offenses, a physical arrest shall be made.

c. If the juvenile offender has any outstanding warrants/custody orders, is a documented gang member, or an associate gang member, the officer shall proceed with a physical arrest.

d. If the juvenile refuses to admit guilt or does not agree to participate in the program, the juvenile may be arrested for the offense(s).

e. If the juvenile refuses to participate in the program, or if the officer believes the release of the juvenile constitutes a public danger, a Juvenile Civil Citation (P-0524) shall not be issued and a physical arrest shall be initiated.

f. If placement of juvenile domestic violence suspects at YCC, Juvenile Assessment Center (JAC), or with a family member or responsible adult, who is personally known to the juvenile or family unit, is not available, make a physical arrest.

Question 169

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

Officers must include a three-digit acronym in the narrative of all juvenile misdemeanor Arrest & Booking Reports. The acronyms will be used as a means of tracking the reason a
Juvenile Civil Citation form (P-0524) was not issued in lieu of an arrest and placed on the first line of the narrative. The three-digit acronym must be written as the only item on the
first line of the narrative.

Answer 169

(1) Domestic Battery - DMB
(2) Live Outside of the state of Florida - OJC
(3) Gang Member - GNG
(4) Warrant Served - WSV
(5) Refuse to Admit Guilty - RFG
(6) Juvenile Citation Declined-Other - JDO

Question 170

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

If the juvenile offender has any outstanding warrants/custody orders, is a documented gang member, or an associate gang member, the officer shall proceed with

Answer 170

a physical arrest.

Question 171

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

The officer shall advise the victim or the parent/guardian of the victim that the juvenile offender will be issued a citation in lieu of an arrest. If the victim or parent/guardian of the
victim does not agree with the issuance of the citation, the officer shall advise the victim or parent/guardian of the victim that an appeal to Teen Court may be submitted within _________ of the issuance of the citation

Answer 171

three business days

Question 172

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

If restitution cannot be immediately determined, the officer shall include on the Citation that payment is ______ next to the “$______” block in the Acknowledgement of Juvenile Offender Section. The final restitution amount will be determined by Teen Court.

Answer 172

“due and owing”

Question 173

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

Up to ____ qualifying offenses may be placed on each citation.

If an officer responds to a call where a qualifying offense has occurred and the officer has probable cause to issue a citation, but the juvenile offender is not on scene, the officer has up to ______ to locate the juvenile and issue the citation. If the officer is unable to locate the juvenile, the investigating officer shall confer with the SAO to determine if a warrant is appropriate.

Answer 173

two

36 hours

Question 174

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

For a Juvenile Citation: The juvenile must be a _____________.

If a qualified juvenile receives a citation, but is still in need of a “cooling off” period, that juvenile may be transported to ____.

Answer 174

resident of the state of Florida

YCC

Question 175

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

The issuing officer’s supervisor shall ensure a copy of the Juvenile Civil Citation form (P-0524) is routed via Summary of Reports form (P-0759) to the _______

Answer 175

Records Unit by the end of their shift

Question 176

Order 231 Juvenile Enforcement Programs:

________, or his designee, shall conduct an annual review and written report to the Undersheriff with recommendations regarding whether each program should function as is, be modified, or be discontinued.

Answer 176

The Chief of Patrol Support

Question 177

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

____________ shall have final authority and approval concerning the assignment of job schedulers.

Answer 177

The Commanding Officer of Secondary Employment Unit

Question 178

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

Cancellations may be made at any time. However, if the cancellation is made with less than a _____ notice to the officer, scheduler, or the Secondary Employment Unit, a minimum of _____ pay to the officer shall be incurred by the client.

Answer 178

48 hour

three hours

Question 179

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

Employees desiring to volunteer or donate their time to charitable organizations for enforcement related secondary employment shall complete and submit the electronic Secondary Employment Authorization Form through the employee’s chain of command. Additionally, the ________ must approve any waiver of administrative fees or use of JSO equipment for volunteer enforcement related secondary employment. The __________ shall forward these requests via the chain of command to the Director of Patrol & Enforcement.

Answer 179

Director of Patrol & Enforcement or higher authority

Commanding Officer of Secondary Employment Unit

Question 180

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

Personnel may work secondary employment for funeral homes after attending the _________

No police officer shall work a private funeral escort alone. There must be _____ JSO police officers who have completed the JSO eight-hour escort instructional class

Answer 180

eight-hour escort instructional class provided by JSO.

two JSO Police Officers

Question 181

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

CSOs who have completed their probationary period are eligible to work ____________at select locations after approval is granted by the __________.

Answer 181

non-enforcement secondary employment

Commanding Officer of Special Events Unit.

Question 182

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

Probationary CSOs are permitted to work ________ that have been approved for work by probationary officers by the _______.

Answer 182

COJ overtime special events

Commanding Officer of Secondary Employment Unit.

Question 183

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

A scheduler may request to schedule for more than one client. If scheduling for more than one client, the total number of jobsite locations for all clients scheduled cannot exceed __ and total officer hours scheduled for all clients cannot exceed ____ each month.

Answer 183

16 Clients

and

2000 Officer’s hours scheduled

Question 184

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

The electronic Form SP-0052 (Secondary Employment Authorization Form) is required for:

Answer 184

a. Rent free, reduced rent, or other forms of compensation in exchange for courtesy officer services;
b. Non-paid volunteer enforcement related secondary employment;
c. Providing teaching outside of JSO;
d. All enforcement and non-enforcement related secondary employment;
e. Employees starting and/or owning their own business;
f. Consulting services; and
g. All schedulers of secondary employment.

Question 185

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

The Secondary Employment Unit shall approve jobs in which it is agreed that police officers receive a minimum of ______ pay for enforcement related secondary employment performed. An exception is permitted when the client and an employee expressly agree to a minimum of less than three hours.

Answer 185

three hours pay

Question 186

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

For every ____ police officers required at a specific time and location, at least one supervisor holding the rank of sergeant or above is required

If an appropriate ranking officer is not available, a ________ shall be designated by the Commanding Officer of Secondary Employment Unit. In incidents where no PIC has been designated, the senior officer working the job shall assume the responsibility of PIC; and

___________ shall not work at the same job site and at the same time unless they are supervised by a sergeant or higher ranking supervisor

Answer 186

Five

The Commanding Officer of Secondary Employment Unit shall add additional supervisors and officers as needed;

Police Officer-In-Charge (PIC)

Spouses or relatives (by blood or marriage)

Question 187

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

The complete patrol uniform, including body armor, shall be worn during all enforcement related secondary employment jobs. The _________ may grant exceptions to the uniform and body armor requirement on an event-by-event basis.

Answer 187

The Chief of Special Events or designee

Question 188

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

No officer shall engage in secondary employment involving the potential for domestic disputes, unless a minimum of ___ police officers are assigned, and the client is approved to hire secondary employment.

Answer 188

two

Question 189

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

Enforcement related secondary employment, which requires leaving the confines of Duval County, requires the approval of the

Answer 189

Director of Patrol & Enforcement.

Question 190

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

Entry level probationary police officers may engage in secondary employment when approved by the

Officers on probation who have a ________ experience with another agency prior to being employed by JSO and who have completed the JSO Field Training Officer (FTO) program shall be able to work secondary employment

Answer 190

Director of Patrol & Enforcement

minimum of four years

Question 191

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

Employees are required to adhere to the _____ Rest Rule and the ______ Monthly Limit for secondary employment and scheduled overtime, as outlined in Order 513 (Compensation and Leave).

Answer 191

Eight-Hour

120-Hour

Question 192

Order 282 Secondary Employment:

The _________ has the authority to suspend an employee from working secondary employment if it is determined to be in the best interest of JSO.

The __________ shall ensure that the employee’s division chief, assistant chief, and commanding officer are notified of the suspension of secondary employment privileges.

Answer 192

Commanding Officer of Secondary Employment Unit

Assistant Chief of Special Events

Question 193

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP) emphasizes action within the five pillars of Emergency Management:

Answer 193

a. Prevention;
b. Preparedness;
c. Response;
d. Recovery; and
e. Mitigation.

Question 194

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

The ______________ is the principal planner and advisor to the Sheriff on critical incidents involving the JSO.

Answer 194

Chief of Special Events

Question 195

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

During hazardous weather conditions, temporary shelter at a safe location for on-duty personnel may be authorized if, in the opinion of the ____________, refusal to grant refuge would place the employee(s) in danger.

Answer 195

Sheriff or his designee

Question 196

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

Any JSO employee who wishes to instruct an ICS course while on-duty, wishes to take ICS courses that require compensation during off-duty hours, or any FEMA/ICS courses that necessitate a travel request shall contact the _______________ for approval prior to teaching the class.

Answer 196

Commanding Officer of Emergency Preparedness Unit

Once approved by the Commanding Officer of Emergency Preparedness Unit to teach or enroll in an FEMA/ICS related course, the employee must still seek approval from their own chain of command for any travel request or time away from the employee’s regular assignment.

Question 197

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

NIMS classifies incident(s)/event(s) by type:

A Type 1 incident/event is

Answer 197

the most complex, requiring national resources to safely and effectively manage and operate. This type of incident/event will be run by the EOC following the guidelines established in the COJ’s Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan.

Question 198

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

NIMS classifies incident(s)/event(s) by type:

A Type 2 incident/event

Answer 198

extends beyond the capabilities for local control and is expected to go into multiple operational periods. This incident/event may require the response of resources out of the area, including regional and/or national resources to manage effectively the operations, command, and general staffing. This type of incident/event will be run by the EOC following the guidelines established in the COJ’s Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan.

Question 199

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

NIMS classifies incident(s)/event(s) by type:

c. A Type 3 incident/event

Answer 199

extends beyond the capabilities of the initial response and the incident may extend into multiple operational periods. This incident/event would typically involve the call up of additional departmental or COJ resources. At this level, the incident may be managed by one of the COJ’s Type 3 All Hazard Incident Management teams or, depending on the complexity of the situation, it may be run by the EOC. On a Type 3 incident/event, the following will be documented:

Initial response activities will be documented on an Incident Briefing form (ICS Form 201). This form will be used in real-time to assist in activating the ICS. It will serve as foundation for the development of a formal Incident Action Plan for the next operational period and for the transfer of command.

Question 200

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

NIMS classifies incident(s)/event(s) by type:

A Type 4 incident/event

A Type 5 incident/event

Answer 200

A Type 4 Incident is when several resources are required to mitigate the incident and the incident is usually limited to one operational period. Type 4 incidents that require a watch commander’s response will be documented using the ICS 201 Form in accordance with Order 210 (Patrol Function).

Type 5 can be handled with one or two resources and does not extend into any additional operational periods.

Question 201

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

When a supervisor has verified that an incident/event meets the definition of a Type 1 – 4 incident/event, they will notify the _____________ via the PECO Supervisor to request available resources (e.g., mobile command vehicle, generators, fuel truck, tents, tarps, shovels, traffic cones, barricades, etc.);

Answer 201

Commanding Officer of Emergency Preparedness Unit

Question 202

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

ICS Command Staff Section:

Answer 202

The Incident Commander’s responsibility is the overall management of the incident. Another basic principle of NIMS/ICS is that the first individual on scene is the Incident Commander until he is relieved by a more qualified or credentialed person. In most incidents, the Incident Commander will quickly transfer from officer, to sergeant, and then to lieutenant.

(a) Safety Officer – Ensure adequate safety measures are in place;
(b) Liaison Officer – Coordinate with key people, officials, and outside agencies; and
(c) Public Information Officer (PIO) – Provide public information (approved by the Incident Commander); establish a Joint Information Center (if needed) to maintain media relations

Question 203

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

ICS Operations Section:

Answer 203

The Operations Section is responsible for managing tactical operations at the incident site to reduce immediate hazards, save lives and property, establish situation control, and restore normal conditions. The Operations function will address the following, although not limited to:

(1) Establishing perimeters;
(2) Conducting evacuations;
(3) Maintaining the incident scene security;
(4) Providing for detainee transportation, processing, and confinement;
(5) Directing and controlling traffic;
(6) Establishing a staging area for resources; and
(7) Conducting post-incident investigations.

Question 204

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

ICS Planning Section:

Answer 204

The Planning Section is responsible for collecting, evaluating, disseminating, and using information about the incident and the status of incident assigned resources. Information is needed to:

(1) Understand the current situation and prepare an Incident Status Summary Form (ICS-209), or suitable situation report based on the nature of the incident;
(2) Prepare a documented Incident Action Plan in conjunction with the Operation Section and Logistics Section;
(3) Predict probable course of incident events;
(4) Prepare alternative strategies for the incident;
(5) Consult with the Operations Section Chief and prepare recommendations for the release of resources;
(6) Prepare the Demobilization Plan; and
(7) Prepare a documented After Action Report.

Question 205

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

ICS Logistics Section:

Answer 205

The Logistics Section is responsible for providing manpower, facilities, services, and materials in support of the incident response. The Logistics Section Chief participates in developing and implementing the Incident Action Plan, determines anticipated equipment and manpower needs, and activates and supervises branches and units within the Logistics Section.

Question 206

Order 284 All Hazards Plan:

ICS Finance Section:

Answer 206

The Finance and Administration Section is responsible for all financial and cost analysis aspects of the incident and for supervising members of the Finance/Administration Section. These include recording personnel time, procuring additional resources, recording expenses, and documenting injuries and liability issues.

Question 207

Order 285 Honor Guard:

The width of the black mourning band should not exceed

Black mourning bands shall be worn on a law enforcement badge only in the following circumstances:

Answer 207

3/4 inch.

a. Upon the line of duty death of a law enforcement officer within JSO. The mourning band shall be worn for a period of 30 days from the date of death to honor their sacrifice.

b. Upon the line of duty death of a law enforcement officer within the State of Florida, the mourning band shall be worn from the date of death and removed at the completion of the funeral services.

c. For an active duty death of an officer within JSO, the mourning band shall be worn from the date of death and removed after the completion of the funeral services.

d. While attending a funeral for a law enforcement officer or attending a police memorial event honoring officers killed in the line of duty.

e. National Peace Officers Memorial Day (every year on May 15th).

f. Annual JSO Police Memorial Day.

Question 208

Order 286 Safe School Officers:

SSOs shall be visible at the school facility entrance _____ prior to the student start time and ______ following the school dismissal.

Answer 208

30 Minutes

Question 209

Order 287 Protest Activity:

If the situation dictates, the appropriate watch commander or designee shall meet with representatives of the parties involved and shall inform them of their legal rights and responsibilities, such as:

Answer 209

a. Neither force, threats, intimidation, nor violence shall be tolerated and the law shall be enforced with impartiality;

b. Conditions or acts that may lead to disorder are prohibited;

c. Rights of protesters to conduct lawful protest shall be protected; and

d. Rights of persons and property owners to continue normal operations and activities shall be protected.

Question 210

Order 287 Protest Activity:

The watch commander or designee shall further emphasize that the following rights must be preserved, and that violations shall result in prompt and impartial police action:

Answer 210

a. Free use of public sidewalks and roadways;
b. Free access to public places; and
c. The rights of persons to enter and leave private property.

Question 211

Order 287 Protest Activity:

An assembly may be declared unlawful by the Patrol watch commander or designee, in accordance with Florida State Statute (F.S.S.) 870.02, if

Answer 211

the parties involved meet together with a common unlawful purpose to commit a breach of peace or to do any other unlawful act.

Question 212

Order 287 Protest Activity:

Before a crowd is dispersed, the unlawful assembly declaration and command to disperse (Appendix A) must be clearly communicated in person or by loudspeaker to the individuals so assembled in the assembly or as near as can be done safely. They must be given clear orders, expressed under authority of the state, to

Answer 212

immediately and peaceably disperse, the safest route to leave the area, and a reasonable amount of time to comply.

Question 213

Order 287 Protest Activity:

Unless exigent circumstances exist, chemical
weapons and specialty impact weapons may be deployed only upon those persons who

Answer 213

exhibit active physical resistance

Question 214

Order 287 Protest Activity:

Enforcement action for observed violations shall be discussed with a supervisor and/or watch commander or designee unless

Answer 214

violence is imminent or there is an emergency.

Question 215

Order 288 Mobile Field Force:

For unplanned incidents, an on-scene watch commander or higher authority can request the MFF by contacting the ____________, who will determine if the incident meets the criteria for a MFF response.

Answer 215

Assistant Chief of Special Events

Question 216

Order 288 Mobile Field Force:

For preplanned incidents or in preparation for an anticipated tactical situation, a ______________ can request the MFF by contacting the Assistant Chief of Special Events, who will determine if the incident meets the criteria for a MFF Force response.

Answer 216

zone commander

Question 217

Order 288 Mobile Field Force:

Once a MFF deployment has been approved, the on-scene commanding officer will:

Answer 217

a. Establish a command post and staging area, relaying those locations to all involved personnel;
b. Request additional resources for possible road closures, separation of potential counter-protestors, and the affecting of mass arrests;
c. Notify the zone commander of the affected zone;
d. Ensure a chronological log of actions and significant events is kept;
e. Request the use of a radio talk group, to be monitored by a Police Emergency Communications Officer (PECO);
f. Ensure the Mass Arrest Kit is brought from the zone substation to the command post;
g. Contact the Pre-Trial Detention Facility (PDF) for the availability of jail vans and drivers; and
h. Provide support to the MFF as determined by the MFF Commander.

Question 218

Order 291 Police Auxiliary:

The Police Auxiliary Unit is under the direction of the

Answer 218

Department of Patrol & Enforcement.

Question 219

Order 291 Police Auxiliary:

The Police Auxiliary Unit shall not conduct fundraising campaigns or projects without the written approval of the Sheriff. Requests for such approval shall be submitted to the

Answer 219

Director of Patrol & Enforcement via chain of command.

Question 220

Order 291 Police Auxiliary:

Police auxiliary officers may NOT, at any time, whether on or off duty:

Answer 220

a. Sign uniform traffic citations;

b. Initiate or participate in any vehicle pursuit while operating a JSO vehicle in a solo or Romeo Unit capacity;

c. Individually make application (or swear under oath) for an arrest warrant; or

d. Serve, individually, any arrest or search warrant.

Question 221

Order 291 Police Auxiliary:

Police auxiliary officers’ uniforms shall clearly distinguish them from certified full-time officers by displaying the

Answer 221

the “auxiliary” rocker patch on the right uniform sleeve.

Question 222

Order 210 Patrol Function:

Officers are required to complete an Information Report for non-criminal incidents involving:

Answer 222

Lost property unique and identifiable by distinct markings;
b. Lost property valued at $1,500 or more;
c. Lost property with serial number information available;
d. Natural deaths; and
e. Non-traffic accidents resulting in serious injury

Question 223

Order 210 Patrol Function:

Patrol Deployments shall be approved by

Answer 223

the watch commmander

Question 224

order 210 patrol function:

Detainee transport vans are available for use at the discretion of the

Answer 224

patrol supervisor

Question 225

order 210 patrol function:

An individual convicted of any other misdemeanor charge(s) will not be permitted to ride for a period of ______ from the last conviction. Convictions include adjudication which was withheld. Exceptions may be permitted with the approval of the zone commander or higher authority.

Answer 225

one year

Question 226

Order 201 Arrests:

During the search of an arrestee, when an officer locates a credit card, check,
identification card, or other item containing a serialized number that appears to belong
to another individual, the officer shall

Answer 226

conduct a search of the NCIC/FCIC and Master Name Index (MNI) databases to establish the identity of the owner and determine if the item has been reported lost or stolen.

Question 227

Order 210 Patrol Function:

A supervisor shall be notified on:

Answer 227

a. Arrest of a train engineer, United States (U.S.) Postal Service driver, bus driver, or foreign national;
b. Cannabis and/or legal hemp discovered at a commercial shipping facility;
c. Child abuse or child neglect (not resulting in serious injury);
d. Closure of any major roadway;
e. Death resulting from apparently natural causes;
f. Detention of any foreign government personnel, U.S. Senator, or U.S. Representative who may be entitled to immunity;
g. Escort of a civilian vehicle for directional purposes;
h. Gang-related activity;
i. Interference with custody;
j. Out-of-county law enforcement action being taken, including being dispatched to an out-of-county location to investigate an incident that occurred in Duval County;
k. Risk protection order (when one must be obtained or when one has been violated);
l. Sex crime (not resulting in serious injury);
m. Suicide attempt;
n. Three or more patrol officers; or
o. Violent calls for service where all efforts to contact the complainant(s)/victim(s) have failed.

Question 228

Order 210 Patrol Function:

A supervisor shall be respond to:

Answer 228

read page 11

Question 229

Order 210 Patrol Function:

When transporting an individual to a shelter or any other receiving facility, the transporting officer must ensure all the individual’s personal property (with the exception of items prohibited by the facility) is

Answer 229

also delivered to the facility.

Question 230

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Officers shall conduct validation tests on their radar devices prior to using the device during a shift and again at the conclusion of each shift. Officers shall ensure their radar devices pass every portion of the validation test prior to issuing any citation for a violation tracked by the device. The validation test includes a(n):

Answer 230

a. Stationary and moving mode test;
b. Light test;
c. Internal frequency test;
d. Test with tuning forks, using the tuning forks certified for that specific device; and
e. Speedometer test / patrol speed verification (for moving radar units only).

Question 231

Order 202 Detainee Transport:

Arresting officers shall transport detainees or cause them to be transported directly to the booking point without delay. Generally, detainees shall not be accompanied, transported, or allowed access to their residences, rooms, or elsewhere except with the consent of a supervisor. Exceptions to this general rule include:

Answer 231

a. Situations where there is a need to interview the detainee at the Police Memorial
Building (PMB) before booking;

b. Situations where the detainee is transported to a facility for medical or mental health
treatment before being admitted into the Pretrial Detention Facility (PDF);

c. A misdemeanant eligible to be issued a Notice to Appear (NTA) Citation; and

d. Juvenile detainees when a disposition other than physical arrest and booking at Intake is to be used.

Question 232

Order 202 Detainee Transport:

On commercial flights the officer shall ensure that:

Answer 232

Detainees wear a leg restraint device at all times while aboard the aircraft or in the
terminal building

Question 233

Order 220 Traffic Function:

Techniques Used for Traffic Control

a. Once an assessment of the traffic problem has been completed, officers shall devise a plan to ensure appropriate manpower, equipment, and safe routing of motorists and
pedestrians.
b. Officers shall use a stance for controlling traffic which offers clear visibility to
motorists/pedestrians and presents a good image (e.g., _____________).
c. Once properly positioned, officers shall execute distinct, complete hand and whistle
signals. Prior to instructing a motorist to move or turn, officers shall evaluate the traffic
flow to ensure that drivers can respond to the directions given without confusion or
danger.
d. When directing traffic which has more than one lane of moving traffic, the traffic flow
shall be stopped and/or started one lane at a time.

Answer 233

stand sideways to the traffic which is being directed

Question 234

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents

The wreckage, contents, and strewn items from the train must not be moved or
disturbed except to:

Answer 234

(a) Remove injured or trapped persons;
(b) Protect the wreckage from further damage; or
(c) Protect the public from injury.

Question 235

Order 214 Railroad Crashes and Incidents

In the case of a crash involving a passenger train, the passenger list will be maintained by ________, and a notation to that effect shall be made in the narrative section of the report.

Answer 235

the carrier

Question 236

Order 210 Patrol Function:

Assisting and providing protection for motorists includes actions such as:

Answer 236

a. Requesting fire suppression or medical assistance in a timely manner;
b. Giving directions;
c. Obtaining fuel;
d. Changing tires;
e. Making minor repairs;
f. Arranging for the towing of vehicles in need of major repair work;
g. Assisting non-residents in finding lodging; or
h. Providing transportation away from hazardous locations or environments.

Question 237

Order 210 Patrol Function:

When a domestic or dating violence incident involves a JSO member, the responding officer shall notify _____, who shall handle the incident in accordance with Order 130 (Integrity & Special Investigations)

Answer 237

his supervisor

Question 238

Order 261 Community Engagement:

Annually, the _______ shall conduct a review and written evaluation of all enforcement and prevention programs relating to juveniles. This evaluation shall be approved by the Sheriff.

Answer 238

Assistant Chief of Community Engagement

Question 239

Order 261 Community Engagment:

_______, the Assistant Chief of Community Engagement shall conduct a documented qualitative and quantitative evaluation of all JSO crime prevention programs.

Answer 239

Every two years