Opthamology:Glaucoma Flashcards

1
Q

What are risk factors for glaucoma

A

increased IOP, central corneal thickness (thinner), optic nerve damage, age, race, gender, family history

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2
Q

What drugs are most likely to cause open-angle glaucoma

A

Opthalmci corticosteriods, systemic/nasal/inhaled corticosteroids, opthalmic anticholinergics

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3
Q

Which glaucoma is considered a medical emergency, what side effects are seen

A

Angle closure (IOP greater than 40 and sudden), nausea/vomiting, orbital pain, halos

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4
Q

What are high risk meds that can cause angle closure glaucoma

A

Topical anticholinergics and sympathomimetics, systemic anticholinergics, anti-depressants, antihistamines

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5
Q

What is the pathophysiology of closed angle gluacoma

A

Iris bends inward to hit the cornea to cause a physical blockage that doesn’t leave the posterior chamber

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6
Q

What is the determining factor to diagnose glaucoma

A

If cup-disc ratio is GREATER than 0.5 (sign of optic nerve damage)

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7
Q

T/F: Patients who are starting to get glaucoma will have tunnel vision (no periphery/only central)

A

True

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8
Q

What is the goal change in IOP for treating glaucoma, what value is related to reduction in visual field defects

A

30% decrease from baseline, less than 18 mmHg

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9
Q

What are the targets of glaucoma treatment

A

Inflow (ciliary body), Trabecular outflow (conventional passage 85%), Uveoscleral outlfow (unconventional passage 15%)

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10
Q

What are the beta- blockers used in glaucoma, what is the MOA

A

timolol, betaxolol, carteolol, leveunolol, metipranolol/ Reduce the aqueous humor production of the ciliary body

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11
Q

What is the only beta-blocker that is selective, selective for what, when would it be preferred

A

Betaxolol Beta-1 selective, pulmonary disorder

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12
Q

How often are the beta-blockers dosed, what is the exception

A

1 gtt BID,

istalol timoptic XE (1 gtt every day)

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13
Q

T/F: Timolol has the best efficacy

A

False: All the beta-blockers are equally efficacious

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14
Q

What are the AE of beta blockers for glaucoma

A

blurred vision, stinging, dry eyes, corneal anesthesia, eyelid inflammation

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15
Q

What patients should have caution when taking beta blockers

A

Pulmonary disorders, cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, concurrent use of oral beta-blockers

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16
Q

What are the prostaglandin analogs, prostamide analog

A

Latanoprost, latanoprostene bunod, travaprost, tafluprost/ Bimatoprost

17
Q

What is the MOA prostaglandin/prostamide analog

A

INCREASE UVEOSCLERAL OUTFLOW of the aqueous humor and to a lesser extent tradecular outflow

18
Q

What is special about latanoprostene bunod

A

Releases nitric oxide which can relax the trabecular meshwork increasing drainage of aqueous humor

19
Q

How are the prostaglandin and prostamide analogs dosed, stored

A

1 gtt qhs, In refrigerator until opened (latanoprost, latanoprostene bunod, taflupost) then stable for 6 weeks at room temperature

20
Q

Which prostaglandin and prostamide analogs have benzalkonium chloride

A

Latanoprost, latanoprostene bunod and bimatoprost

21
Q

Which prostaglandin analog is preservative free, contains sofzia

A

Tafluprost, travoprost

22
Q

What are the three unique side effects of prostaglandin and prostamide analogs

A

Altered iris pigmentation (permenant), hypertrichosis (increasing eyelashes/temporary), hyperpigmentation around lids (reversible)

23
Q

What are the alpha-2 adrenergic agonists, which increases uveoscleral outflow, dosing

A

Birmonidine and apraclonidine, brimonidine, 1 gtt BID to TID

24
Q

What are the adverse effects related to alpha-2 adrenergic agonists

A

Allergic type reaction: lid edema, eye discomfort, foreign body-sensation, itching, hyperemia (DISCONTINUE IMMEDIATELY)

25
Q

When should alpha-2 adrenergic agonists be used with caution

A

Cardiovascular disease, cerebrovascular disease, antihypertensives, MAO-Is, TCAs

26
Q

What is the MOA of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (CAIs),

A

Block active secretion of the sodium and bicarbonate ions from the ciliary body to the aqueous humor

27
Q

What are the topical (eye drop) CAIs, oral

A

Brinzolamide and dorzolamide/ acetazolamide and methazolamide

28
Q

How are the CAIs dosed topically, oral

A

1 gtt BID to TID, 1 tab BID to QID

29
Q

T/F: Brinzolamide is associated with stinging while dorzolamide is associated with blurry vision

A

False: Brinzolamide is associated with blurry vision while dorzolamide is associated with stinging

30
Q

T/F: Topical and oral solutions of CAIs should not be taken at the same time

A

True

31
Q

What is the adverse effect seen whether using oral or topical CAIs, others

A

Metallic taste, NVD, less eating, renal stones, metabolic acidosis, malaise fatigue

32
Q

What patients cannot take CAIs, what patients should be cautioned

A

Patient’s with gout/ sulfa allergies, pulmonary disorders, hepatic and/or renal disease, history of renal calculi

33
Q

What are the parasympathetic agents, dosing, changes to dosing

A

Carbachol and pilocarpine, 1 gtt BID to TID, higher concentrations used for darker pigmented eyes

34
Q

What is the Rho Kinase inhibitor, dose

A

Netarsudil, 1 gtt daily in evening

35
Q

How should treatment be monitored

A

Start with one medication, follow up in 2-4 weeks, once target IOP reached then follow up every 3-6 months

36
Q

What is ocular hypertension

A

Elevated IOP greater than 22 mmHg but no disk changes or visual field loss