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Dentistry Human Disease > Opthalmology And ENT > Flashcards

Opthalmology And ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What type of neck lump is usually indicative of inflammatory/infective process?

A

A neck lump that has come about suddenly over hours

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2
Q

What type of neck lump is usually indicative of malignancy?

A

Neck lump that has been present for many weeks/months

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3
Q

Name the 5 sets of superficial lymph nodes that receive lymph from the scalp, face and neck?

A
  1. Post-auricular
  2. Pre-auricular
  3. Parotid
  4. Submental
  5. Submandibular
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4
Q

What features would be suggestive of head and neck cancer?

A
  • oral lump/erythroplakia
  • unexplained oral ulceration lasting >3 weeks
  • persistent or unexplained neck lump
  • persistent hoarseness
  • persistent throat pain or painful swallow
  • stridor
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5
Q

What is the reason for increasing incidence of oropharnygeal malignancies?

A

HPV-related tumours

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6
Q

What is odynophagia?

A

Pain when swallowing

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7
Q

What are the three main features of orophyarngeal malignancy presentation?

A
  1. Odynophagia
  2. Throat pain often unilateral
  3. Unilateral ear pain without ear symptoms
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8
Q

Define, inflammation of the salivary gland.

A

Sialadenitis

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9
Q

What are the common causes of sialadenitis?

A
  • obstruction
  • infection
  • poor OH
  • auto-immune
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10
Q

A patient presents to you with sudden swelling and pain in their salivary glands. They also complain of feeling generally unwell. What might be the diagnosis?

A

Acute infective sialadenitis

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11
Q

What might suggest that sialadenitis is caused by obstruction (e.g. sialolith, tumour)?

A

Episodic swelling at mealtimes

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12
Q

What childhood disease is associated with bilateral sialadenitis?

A

Mumps

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13
Q

What is the conservative management of salivary gland pathology?

A
  • oral hydration
  • analgesia
  • oral antibiotics
  • sour sweets/drink
  • warm/cold compress
  • gland massage
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14
Q

What are the complications of salivary gland pathology?

A
  • sepsis
  • abscess
  • deep neck space infection
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15
Q

If facial palsy occurs alongside salivary gland swelling what does this indicate?

A

A malignant tumour

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16
Q

What are the diagnostic features of TMJ disorder?

A
  • pain around TMJ and MOM
  • pain provoked by palpation or jaw movement
  • reproducible joint noises (e.g. clicking)
  • jaw locking or limited opening
  • temporal headache
  • otalgia/tinnitus without ear disease
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17
Q

What ear disorders can mimic TMD?

A
  1. Acute otitis media
  2. Otitis media with effusion
  3. Otitis externa (swimmers ear)
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18
Q

Symptoms of what ear disorder are described:

  • systemically unwell
  • increasing pain over 2-3 days followed by resolution/discharge
A

Acute otitis media

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19
Q

Symptoms of what ear disorder are described:

  • fluid in the middle ear
  • not acutely infected
A

Otitis media with effusion

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20
Q

Symptoms of what ear disorder are described?

  • ear discharge/pain
  • reduced hearing
A

Otitis externa (swimmers ear)

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21
Q

What are casues of otitis externa?

A
  • swimming
  • wearing ear phones/hearing aids
  • eczema
  • trauma (e.g. cotton buds)
  • narrow ear canals
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22
Q

What is the treatment of Otis externa?

A
  • topical antibiotics +/- steroid
  • keep ears dry and don’t use headphone/aids
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23
Q

What are the four paired paransal sinuses?

A
  1. Maxillary
  2. Ethmoid
  3. Sphenoid
  4. Frontal
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24
Q

What are the symptoms of acute sinusitis?

A
  • nasal blockage
  • mucopurulent discharge
  • pain/pressure around cheek and peri-orbital region
  • smell loss
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25
Q

When is acute sinusitis considered chronic?

A

If it lasts >12 weeks

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26
Q

What is chronic unilateral maxillary sinusitis commonly secondary to?

A

Dental pathology (dental pain absent)

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27
Q

What radiograph is best taken to view sinuses?

A

CT scan

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28
Q

What are the three features of sinonasal + nasopharyngeal cancer?

A
  • unilateral nasal discharge
  • unilateral middle ear effusion
  • orbital complications (e.g. proptosis)
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29
Q

What are the three phases of swallowing?

A
  1. Voluntary
  2. Pharyngeal
  3. Oesophageal
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30
Q

What are the main considerations a dentist has to make for a patient with dysphagia?

A
  • essential to maintain good OH to prevent oral bacteria aspiration
  • risk during dental procedures, may not produce cough/ gag
  • limit chair tilt
  • use of hand instruments so to avoid use of water/suction
  • well fitted denture plates essential to prevent aspiration
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31
Q

Name 4 mild eye conditions that cause red/sore eye?

A
  1. Conjunctivitis
  2. Subconjuctival haemorrhage
  3. Dry eyes
  4. Episcleritis
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32
Q

Name 5 moderate eye conditions that cause red/sore eye?

A
  1. Corneal abrasion
  2. Corneal foreign body
  3. Iritis
  4. Scleritis
  5. Facial nerve palsy
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33
Q

Name 5 severe eye conditions that cause red/sore eye?

A
  1. Corneal ulcer (keratitis)
  2. Penetrating injury
  3. Chemical injury
  4. Acute glaucoma
  5. Orbital cellulitis
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34
Q

What are the common signs/symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A
  • sticky, purulent discharge
  • bilateral, sequential
  • gritty, uncomfortable
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35
Q

What are the common signs/symptoms of viral conjunctivitis?

A
  • watery, “streaming”
  • bilateral
  • pre-auricular lymphadenopathy
36
Q

What is conjunctiva?

A

Thin translucent layer of skin that covers the white of the eye (sclera)

37
Q

What eye condition, is effectively a bruise, that looks bad (blood in sclera of eye) but is asymptomatic and will have no effect on vision?

A

Subconjuctival haemorrhage

38
Q

What factors put you at higher risk of Subconjuctival haemorrhage?

A
  • high blood pressure
  • taking anticoagulants
39
Q

What hallmark feature identifies an eye condition involving the cornea?

A

Light sensitivity (severe eye pain from bright light)

40
Q

What is a common cause of corneal ulcer?

A

Contact lenses

41
Q

What is another word for corneal ulcer?

A

Keratitis

42
Q

What is the term used to describe light sensitivity of the eye?

A

Photophobia

43
Q

What eye condition is urgent and requires treatment in less than 24 hours, if left to get worse the patient may be left with a scar to the cornea that affects vision. Common symptom: photophobia.

A

Corneal ulcer (keratitis)

44
Q

What is bells phenomenon?

A

A medical sign that allows observers to notice a defensive movement of the eye from damage (upward movement), when an attempt is made to close the eye.

45
Q

What is the first aid management of an individual with facula nerve palsy who cannot close their eye on affected side of face?

A
  • tape eye closed
  • generous lubrication (eye drops)
  • optometrist
  • safety net advice
46
Q

What anatomical feature of the eye is the most useful and important barrier to intra-orbital infection?

A

Orbital septum

47
Q

When does the orbital septum form in young children?

A

5-6years old

48
Q

What eye condition should we be aware of in children, especially as their orbital septum doesn’t fully from till 5-6years old?

A

Peri orbital cellulitis

49
Q

What is one of the most severe eye conditions that is characterised by the pupil being fixed and unable to dilate or restrict?

A

Acute glaucoma

50
Q

If the pupil of an eye is of irregular shape what would this indicate?

A

Infection

51
Q

What eye conditions cause pain?

A
  1. Corneal abrasion
  2. Corneal foreign body
  3. Iritis
  4. Scleritis
  5. Corneal ulcer (keratitis)
  6. Penetrating injury
  7. Chemical injury
  8. Acute glaucoma
  9. Orbital cellulitis
52
Q

What eye conditions cause vision to be affected?

A
  1. Conjunctivitis
  2. Dry eyes
  3. Corneal abrasion
  4. Iritis
  5. Facial nerve palsy
  6. Coronal ulcer
  7. Penetrating injury
  8. Chemical injury
  9. acute glaucoma
  10. Orbital cellultis
53
Q

What eye conditions affect the pupil of the eye?

A
  • iritis
  • penetrating injury
  • acute glaucoma
  • orbital cellulitis
54
Q

What part of the eye has highest concentration of retinal cells and is the most important part for vision?

A

Macula

55
Q

What is cataract?

A

When the lens, a small transparent disc in your eye starts to develop cloudy/hazy patches

56
Q

What is the treatment for cataracts?

A

Phacoemulsification surgery

57
Q

What does the eye condition ARMD stand for?

A

Age-related macular degeneration

58
Q

What part of your vision is affected by ARMD?

A

Central vision

59
Q

What are the two types of ARMD?

A
  1. Dry type
  2. Wet type
60
Q

What type of ARMD is described?

  • gradual, slowly progressive over many years
  • no specific treatment
A

Dry type

61
Q

What type of ARMD is described?

  • Faster onset and progression
  • treatable with anti-VEGF injections
A

Wet type

62
Q

What does VEGF stand for?

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor

63
Q

What is a condition of the optic nerve which is characterised by gradual, progressive loss of axons from the nerve inside the eye?

A

Glaucoma

64
Q

What are the two types of glaucoma?

A
  • chronic open angle glaucoma
  • acute closed angle glaucoma
65
Q

What type of glaucoma is described?

  • peripheral vision affected first
  • central vision lost very late
  • mostly asymptomatic
A

Chronic open angle glaucoma

66
Q

What type of glaucoma is described?
- red
- painful
- unreactive pupil
- severe headache

A

Acute closed angle glaucoma

67
Q

What symptoms would indicate retinal detachment?

A
  • flashing lights
  • floaters
  • shadow in the corner of vision
68
Q

Is retinal detachment treatment urgent?

A

Yes, must be treated in less than 2 days to salvage vision

69
Q

Why can inhalation sedation never be used on a patient who has had surgery for retinal detachment?

A

Acute eye pressure would rise and permanent site loss can occur

70
Q

What eye condition is a medical emergency, and is a result of inflammatory problem with arteries around the eye?

A

Giant cell arteritis

71
Q

What are the consequences of giant cell arteritis if not spotted and treated quickly?

A

Complete blindness can occur due to necrosis of the retina

72
Q

What are the common signs/symptoms of giant cell arteritis to look out for?

A
  • individuals >50 years
  • jaw/tongue claudication
  • tender scalp skin
  • headache
  • feeling rotten
  • losing weight
  • transient vision disturbance
73
Q

What is treatment for giant cell arteritis?

A

High dose steroid

74
Q

What two eye probelms are associated with diabetes?

A
  1. Retinopathy
  2. Maculopathy
75
Q

How does diabetic retinopathy cause clouding of vision?

A

The vessels that form are faulty and substandard due to sugary blood damage. This damage causes a vitreous haemorrhage which causes clouding of vision.

76
Q

How would you treat diabetic retinopathy?

A

Laser treatment

77
Q

What are two cause of vision loss from diabetic retinopathy?

A
  1. Vitreous haemorrhage (bleeding)
  2. Retinal detachment (scarring)
78
Q

What is orbital compartment syndrome?

A

High pressure in eye socket

79
Q

What radiograph is best at conforming orbital fractures?

A

CT scan

80
Q

What are signs of orbital floor fracture?

A
  • bruising
  • peri-orbital oedema
  • pain
  • double vision
  • numbness in upper cheek
  • sunken eye
81
Q

What is a specific type of orbital fracture that tends to occur in children as their bones are more flexible so when they break the can spring back?

A

Orbital entrapment

82
Q

What can be the consequence of undetected orbital entrapment in a child?

A

Long term double vision

83
Q

What are symptoms of orbital entrapment?

A

Little outward evidence
Bradycardia
Nausea
Syncope

84
Q

What condition can develop from orbital compartment syndrome due to an increase in pressure and sudden bleeding behind the eye?

A

Retrobulbar haemorrhage

85
Q

What is the site saving procedure for orbital compartment syndrome?

A

Lateral canthotomy and cantholysis

86
Q

What is a hyphema?

A

Where blood collects at the bottom of the eye (meniscus of blood)

87
Q

What type of chemical injury is worse for the eye? Alkali or acid?

A

Alkali

Dentistry Human Disease (29 decks)

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