OPS Flashcards

1
Q

START Triage: _____
Patients needing urgent medical attention.

A

Immediate - Red

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2
Q

Start Triage: _____
Patients whose treatment can be safely delayed.

A

Delayed - Yellow

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3
Q

START Triage: _____
Patients with minor injuries.

A

Minimal - Green

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4
Q

START Triage: _____
Patients expected to die or already deceased.

A

Expectant - Black

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5
Q

START Triage Assessment: 4 Steps

A

Ability to Walk - PT that can walk = GREEN. PT cannot walk check Breathing.
Breathing - If not breathing, open airway, if not breathing = BLACK. RR >30 = RED; RR <30 check Perfusion.
Perfusion - No pulse = RED. Pulse move to Mental Status.
Mental Status - Follow simple tasks = RED
Can’t follow simple tasks = Yellow

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6
Q

_____ Blast Injuries: Heat of explosion & overpressure wave.
Damage to air filled body spaces like middle ear, sinuses, bowel, and lungs. These injuries are often the most serious and life threatening.

A

Primary / Phase 1

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7
Q

_____ Blast Injuries: Blast projectiles.
Trauma from projectiles such as bomb fragments. These can cause severe bleeding and extend the range of injury beyond the blast wave.

A

Secondary / Phase 2

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8
Q

_____ Blast Injuries: Personnel displacement and structural collapse.
Victims can be thrown against surfaces, causing blunt or penetrating trauma. Structural collapse can lead to extensive crush injuries.

A

Tertiary / Phase 3

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9
Q

_____ Blast Injuries: Other injuries associated with the explosion.
Includes burns, asphyxia, toxic exposures, and exacerbations of preexisting conditions.

A

Quarternary / Phase 4

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10
Q

_____: Death caused by suffocation within 24 hours after submersion in a liquid medium
Outcomes is Fatal

A

Drowning

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11
Q

_____: refers to an event where a person has survived the initial submersion period through resuscitative effort
Non-fatal, but can lead to serious health complication

A

Near Drowning

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12
Q

The main difference between saltwater and freshwater drowning involves _____ during freshwater drownings.

A

osmosis occurring between the surface of the lung and the blood stream.

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13
Q

Is salt water or fresh water drowning more deadly? Why?

A

Fresh water. It leads to pneumonia

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14
Q

_____: Helps conserve oxygen and prioritize its use for vital organs such as the brain and heart. Response is more pronounced in children than adults.
Triggers when face is submerged in cold water.

A

Mammalian Divers Reflex

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15
Q

What mix of water/bleach should be used for decontaminating equipment?

A

1 cup of bleach to 1 gallon of water

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16
Q

_____ Radiation: Consists of neutrons and protons released by the nucleus of a radioactive substance.
Penetration Power: Very weak; travels only a few inches in the air.
Protection: Stopped by paper, clothing, and intact skin.
Dangerous if inhaled or ingested, as it can damage sensitive tissues in the respiratory and digestive tracts.

A

Alpha

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17
Q

_____ Radiation: Electrons released w/great energy by a radioactive substance.
Penetration Power: More powerful than alpha particles; travels 6 to 10 ft in the air & can penetrate a few millimeters of skin.
Protection: Requires a full protective suit & SCBA (Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus) to stop.
Can cause both external and internal injuries.

A

Beta

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18
Q

_____ Radiation: High-energy photons, similar to X-rays.
Penetration Power: The most powerful ionizing radiation; can penetrate most substances and damage any cells within the body.
Protection: Requires heavy shielding, such as concrete, several feet of earth, or several inches of lead.
Evokes the greatest concern for external exposure due to its high penetration power.

A

Gamma

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19
Q

______: Lowest concentration of a chemical vapor in the air that can ignite and cause an explosion; lower than this is considered too ‘lean to burn’.
There is not enough chemical vapor to support combustion, making it non-explosive.

A

Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)

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20
Q

_____: Collapse of a trench or excavation site. These incidents are particularly dramatic & dangerous, often requiring specialized rescue efforts.

A

Cave-In

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21
Q

_____: Involves the emergency response to a collapsed trench or cave-in

A

Trench Rescue

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22
Q

_____: Occur due to contractors’ disregard for safety regulations, water seepage, ground vibrations & improperly placed spoil piles.

A

Trench Collapses

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23
Q

Rescue Protocol for cave-in/trench rescue: Initial EMS actions should focus on _____, _____ and _____. Entry into the trench should only occur with proper shoring in place to prevent secondary collapses.

A

safety, securing the scene, and summoning specialized trench rescue teams.

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24
Q

3 Zones in HAZMAT Emergency:

A

Hot, Warm, Cold

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25
Q

_____ Zone: This is the area of contamination.
Only personnel w/appropriate high-level Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) are allowed.
Activities are limited to essential rescue and containment efforts.

A

Hot Zone (Red Zone)

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26
Q

_____ Zone: Also known as contamination reduction zone; surrounds hot zone.
Personnel must wear appropriate protective gear.
Decontamination of patients and EMS personnel occurs here. It acts as a buffer to prevent the spread of contamination.

A

Warm Zone (Yellow Zone)

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27
Q

_____ Zone: This is the safe zone where the incident operation takes place.
Free of contamination; no contaminated people or equipment are allowed until decontaminated.
Includes the command post, medical monitoring, rehabilitation facilities, treatment areas, and apparatus staging.

A

Cold Zone (Green Zone)

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28
Q

Incident command during a HAZMAT will be staged in what zone?

A

Cold Zone

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29
Q

_____: Occurs early in the incident upon first contact with patients. Involves quickly categorizing pt based on severity of injuries to determine immediate care needs.

A

Primary Triage

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30
Q

_____: Conducted after initial triage, often at treatment areas, to reassess and prioritize patients for further care and transport.

A

Secondary Triage

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31
Q

_____ are set up based on the triage categories (immediate, delayed, minimal, and expectant). These areas are typically located in a safe zone away from the immediate hazards of the incident.

A

Treatment areas

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32
Q

_____: Established by the first-arriving public safety unit. The IC is responsible for scene size-up, resource management, and coordination of all response activities.
Positioned in a safe location, often referred to as the Cold Zone, where they can effectively manage the incident without being exposed to hazards.

A

Incident Command

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33
Q

_____ Command: Involves single person who is highest-ranking official & has full authority over incident.
Typically used in small-scale incidents with limited jurisdictional issues.
Example: A traffic collision where the local fire department assumes overall command, coordinating with EMS and police.

A

Singular Command

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34
Q

_____ Command: Involves managers from multiple agencies & jurisdictions sharing command responsibilities.
Necessary for complex incidents with overlapping responsibilities or jurisdictions.
Example: Large-scale incidents like terrorist attacks, natural disasters, or hostage situations where law enforcement, fire, and EMS coordinate together.

A

Unified Command

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35
Q

Ideal Dimensions for helicopter landing zone:

A

100 ft by 100 ft

60x60 minimum day
Double measurements for night
LZ should be 150 ft away form incident

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36
Q

HOTSAW for Helicopter Landing Zone:

A

Hazards
Obstructions
Terrain
Surface
Animals
Wind/Weather

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37
Q

_____: Is any event that places excessive demand on personnel and equipment &/or depletes the available on-scene resources at any given time - typically involving 3+ pt

A

Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)

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38
Q

_____: any Incident that depletes the available on-scene resources. The threshold for what constitutes an MCI can vary by agency and jurisdiction.

A

Multiple-Casualty Incident (MCI)

39
Q

_____: Used to emphasize the scale of incident, often involving numerous patients.

A

Mass-Casualty Incident

40
Q

_____: MCI that local emergency personnel can manage w/o being overwhelmed

A

Low-Impact Incident

41
Q

_____: MCI that stresses local emergency resources, including fire, police, and EMS, as well as local hospitals

A

High-Impact Incident

42
Q

_____: MCI that overwhelms regional emergency response resources and may damage the emergency response system’s infrastructure.

43
Q

_____ Ambulances: Typically stationed at fixed locations, such as fire stations or hospitals,
Deployment is based on historical data & anticipated call volumes, ensuring coverage across the community.

A

Regular Ambulance

44
Q

_____ Ambulances: These are additional ambulances deployed during times of high call volume, known as peak load times.
They are part of dynamic deployment strategies, which involve relocating ambulances to different locations throughout the day based on real-time data and projected needs.

A

Peak Demand Ambulances

45
Q

Who is in charge when using the two person technique to lift PT on backboard?

A

The person at the head

46
Q

What causes most emergency crashes?

A

“Always excessive speed”

47
Q

Most vehicles after 1970 have catalytic converters. What happens with that in a wreck?

A

It could come into contact with gasoline or weeds and catch fire.

48
Q

Placards & Classifications: Colors
Explosives -
Gases -
Liquids -
Solids -
Oxidizers & Organic Peroxides -
Poisonous & Etiologic Agents -
Radioactive Materials -
Corrosives -
Miscellaneous -

A

Orange
Red or Green
Red
Red & White
White
White
Yellow & White
Black & White
Black & White

49
Q

Hazard Class Number:
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9

A

1 - Explosives
2 - Gases
3 - Liquids
4 - Solids
5 - Oxidizers & Organic Peroxides
6 - Poisonous & Etiologic Agents
7 - Radioactive Materials
8 - Corrosives
9 - Miscellaneous

50
Q

_____ Officer: Sort PT based on the severity of their injuries & ensure the most critical pt receive immediate care to maximise survival

51
Q

_____ Officer: Manage the treatment area where pt receive medical care before transport & provide appropriate medical care to stabilize pt & prepare for transport

52
Q

_____ Officer: Coordinate the transportation of PT to hospitals & efficiently route pt to hospitals based on their condition & hospital capacity

53
Q

7 Phases of a Rescue: (A,H,P,M,D,P,R)

A

Arrival & Size Up
Hazard Control
Patient Access
Medical Treatment
Disentanglement
PT Packaging
Removal/Transport

54
Q

What company do we call of we identify a HAZMAT?

55
Q

Who do we call if we have an unknown HAZMAT on the ambulance?

A

Fire Department (911?)

56
Q

_____: Weight of a volume of liquid compared w/an equal volume of water.

A

Specific Gravity

57
Q

If a liquid has a specific gravity >1, it will _____ in water.
IF a liquid has a specific gravity <1, it will _____ in water.

58
Q

_____: weight of an equal volume of air

A

Vapor Density

59
Q

If a vapor has a vapor density >1, it will _____.
If a vapor has a vapor density of <1, it will _____.

A

Fall to the lowest point
Rise to the highest point

60
Q

_____ is used to compared liquids to water

A

Specific Gravity

61
Q

_____ is used to compare gases to air

A

Vapor Density

62
Q

_____ is the pin that keeps the door from flying open when you’re driving down the road.

63
Q

_____ Officer: Coordinates all incident operations involving outside agencies
Connects external agencies (Emergency services, government agencies & private industry) w/appropriate functional areas w/in the IMS
Ensure specialized resources are deployed effectively based on ICs request & reports

A

Liaison Officer

64
Q

_____ Officer: Support Incident Operations
Manages the medical supply unit, coordinates procurement & distribution of equipment & supplies & oversees other unit like facilities & field communications
Ensure that all necessary resources (food, water, restrooms, lighting, power etc) are available to support operations

A

Logistics Officer

65
Q

_____ Officer: Manage communications during an incident
Ensures effective communication channels are established & maintained among all responders & agencies involved
Facilitates clear & efficient information flow to support coordinated incident response

A

Communication Officer

66
Q

_____ Officer: Collects & shares information about the incident
Releases data to the press & other agencies, ensuring the public receives timely & accurate information
Maintains the departments image, & enures public safety & reassurance through effective communication

A

Public Information Officer

67
Q

_____: Used when SS or the need for rapid transport to a Trauma center precludes spending time on SMR

A

Rapid Extrication

68
Q

_____: Used when immediate danger to the pt or rescuers necessitates moving the pt quickly w/o regard for spinal precautions

A

Emergency Move

69
Q

When on scene where explosive device has gone off, what should we consider?

A

A secondary device.

70
Q

Level ___ Protection: Provides the highest level of protection against hazardous materials. Includes a full encapsulating suit that offer maximum respiratory & splash protection
This suit completely covers the rescuer, including the SCBA
Designed to prevent chemical breakthrough, making it suitable for unknown substances w/significant respiratory & dermal hazards

A

Level A Protection

71
Q

Level ___ Protection: Offer full respiratory protection but is non-encapsulating

A

Level B Protection

72
Q

Level ___ Protection: Uses an air-purifying respiratory (APR) & is less protective

A

Level C Protection

73
Q

Level ___ Protection: Consists of basic turnout gear, NOT suitable for hazmat incidents

A

Level D Protection

74
Q

What must a PT be in order to be dead after drowning?

A

Warm and Dead

75
Q

When to call for helicopter?

A

When transport of PT will be delayed in normal routes. Or when transport will be faster via helicopter.

76
Q

What is the highest scene size up priority?

77
Q

Ambulance Type ___:Conventional cab and chassis - no compartment between drivers and PT compartment.

78
Q

Ambulance Type ___: Standard van, body and cab form an integral unit.

79
Q

Ambulance Type ___: Forward cab and integral body - has passageway from driver to PT compartment.

80
Q

_____ Post: First support post, located at the front of the vehicle supporting the roof at the windshield.
Provides structural integrity to the front part of the vehicle & supports the windshield.
If you’re driving the car:
It would be the front windshield.

81
Q

_____ Post: 2nd support post, located between the front & rear doors of the vehicle.
Provides structural support to the middle section of the vehicle & crucial for the integrity of the passenger compartment.
If you’re driving the car:
It would be on the left where your seat belt attaches.

82
Q

_____ Post: 3rd support, post, found in sedans or station wagons, locates towards the rear of the vehicle.
Supports the rear section of the ro & provides structural integrity to the rear passenger area.
If you are driving the car the:
It would be behind the passengers

83
Q

_____ Post: Some station wagon shave an additional rear post; provides further support to the rear structure.

84
Q

_____ is the use of wooden slate to shore heavy equipment during rescue operations.
Technique is essential for stabilizing vehicles or other heavy objects to prevent movement, ensuring the safety of both the rescuers & the individuals being extricated.

85
Q

5 Steps to Containing HAZMAT:

A

Identify the Hazard
Establish a Danger Zone
Positioning
Seek Expert Advice
Use Proper Equipment

86
Q

What is the difference between the warm and hot zone?

A

Hot: Exclusionary; only “appropriate personnel”
Warm: Contamination reduction zone; Life saving emergency care is performed here.

87
Q

Where to park for HAZMAT?

A

Uphill, upwind, 2000 feet away.

88
Q

_____: Federal agency responsible for ensuring safe & healthy working conditions for workers by setting and enforcing standard and providing training , outreach education & assistance
Regulations & Standards
Collaborations w/Other Agencies
Workplace Safety

89
Q

5 Parts to NIMS:

A

Incident Management System
Training
Qualification & Certification System
Publications Management
Supporting Technologies

90
Q

Who regulates HAZMAT on the highway?

A

US Department of Transportation (US DOT)

91
Q

What do you need to perform on scene of MVC?

92
Q

If you arrive first on MVC, where do you park your ambulance? (According to book)

A

Park 100 ft from wreckage, upwind/uphill if possible; if no hazards, park at least 50 ft away.
Assign crew member to manage traffic.
Park in front of the wreck to alert approaching motorists.

93
Q

If PD/Fire has arrived first on MVC, where do you park?

A

Park beyond the wreck

94
Q

If someone is exposed to a powder/physical substance, how do we treat them?

A

Brush off excess powder/substance before flushing.