Medical Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

A severe infection that spreads throughout the body:

A

Sepsis

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2
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Elevated body temperature:

A

Fever

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3
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Low blood sugar:

A

Hypoglycemia

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4
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Brain damage due to lack of oxygen:

A

Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy

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5
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Imbalances in body chemistry:

A

Metabolic Disturbances

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6
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Infection of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord:

A

Meningitis

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7
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Issues in brain development:

A

Developmental Abnormalities

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8
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Symptoms occurring after stopping drug use:

A

Drug withdrawal

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9
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Often leading to febrile seizures:

A

Fever

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10
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Lack of oxygen:

A

Hypoxia

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11
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Various infections can trigger seizures:

A

Infections

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12
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Seizures with no known cause:

A

Idiopathic Epilepsy

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13
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Imbalances in mineral in the body:

A

Electrolyte disturbances

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14
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Injury to the head:

A

Head Trauma

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15
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Low Blood Sugar:

A

Hypoglycemia

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16
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediactic

Poisoning or exposure to harmful substances:

A

Toxic Ingestions or Exposure

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17
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Growths in the brain:

A

Tumors

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18
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Structural abnormalities in the central nervous system:

A

CNS Malformations

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19
Q

Causes of Seizures: General

Lack of oxygen:

A

Hypoxia

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20
Q

Causes of Seizures: General

Sudden drop in blood sugar levels:

A

Rapid Lowering of Blood Sugar

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21
Q

Causes of Seizures: General

Tumors, head trauma, toxic eclampsia, and vascular disorders:

A

Structural Brain Diseases

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22
Q

Causes of Seizures: General

Seizures without a known cause:

A

Idiopathic Epilepsy

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23
Q

What is the most common TYPE of seizure?

A

Grand Mal Seizure

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24
Q

_____ Phase: initial phase involves continuous muscle tension and contraction, leading to rigidity.

A

Tonic Phase

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25
Q

_____ phase: follows tonic phase and marked by rhythmic jerking movement of the extremities.

A

Clonic Phase

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26
Q

_____ seizure typically starts without warning phase (aura) and progresses through tonic and clonic phases, ending with period of recovery.

A

General Tonic - Clonic (Grand Mal)

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27
Q

2 types of Procedures to treat Hemorrhagic Stroke:

A

Endovascular Procedure
Neurosurgical Prodedures

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28
Q

Hemorrhagic Stroke Treatment: Endovascular Procedure

_____ Interventions: Catheter is inserted through an artery in the leg or arm and advanced to the hemorrhage site. Mechanical agents like coils can be placed to prevent further bleeding.

A

Catheter Based Interventions

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29
Q

Hemorrhagic Stroke Treatment: Neurosurgical Procedures

_____ Interventions: Severe cases, or when endovascular therapy is not feasible, neurosurgery may be necessary to remove the blood and repair the damaged vessels

A

Surgical Interventions

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30
Q

2 Types of Treatment for Ischemic Stroke:

A

Fibrinolytic Therapy
Mechanical Clot Removal

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31
Q

Treatment for Ischemic Stroke: Fibrinolytic Therapy

Goal:
Common Drug:
Other Drugs:
Timing:

A

Goal: Restore blood flow by dissolving the clot
Common Drug: Recombinant Tissue Plasminogen Activator (r-tPA)
Other Drugs: Tenecteplase, Retaplase, Streptokinase, Anistreplase
Timing: Most effective with first 4.5 hours after symptom onset.

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32
Q

Treatment for Ischemic Stroke: Mechanical Clot Removal (Mechanical Thrombectomy)

Procedure:
Timing:
Combination:

A

Procedure: Wire-Cage device is threaded through catheter to the blocked artery in the brain to remove the clot.
Timing: Ideally within 6 hours of symptom onset, but can be beneficial up to 24 hours in select pt.
Combination: Can be used alongside r-tPA in eligible patients

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33
Q

Treatment for Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): Immediate Care

Early Recognition:
Airway Management:
Stroke Assessment:
Transport

A

Early recognition - rapid identification & supportive measures are crucial
Airway Management - ensure an adequate airway and provide oxygen if needed
Stroke Assessment - perform a stroke assessment and establish the time when the pt was last seen normal
Transport - NEarest stroke center & alert stroke team

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34
Q

_____ Strokes: due to blood flow to an artery in the brain is interrupted by a narrowing or blockage. Often due to a clot.

A

Ischemic Stroke

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35
Q

_____ Strokes: Occur when an artery in the brain leaks blood or ruptures. Due to high blood pressure, aneurysms or arteriovenous malformations.

A

Hemorrhagic Stroke

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36
Q

_____ : Temporary Sudden interruption of blood flow to the brain. SS identical to stroke. Typically resolves within 24 hours and DO NOT cause permanent damage. Can be a warning sign of future stroke.

A

Transient Ischemic Attack

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37
Q

8 D’s of Stroke Care:

A

Detection
Dispatch
Delivery
Door
Data
Decision
Drug
Disposition

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38
Q

_____: Conditions where the thyroid gland insufficient thyroid hormones.
SS-Decreased metabolic rate, weight gain, fatigue, bradycardia, myxedema (puffy face)

A

Hypothyroidism

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39
Q

_____: condition where the thyroid gland produces excessive thyroid hormones.
SS- Tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, nervousness, insomnia, increased metabolic rate, weight loss and severe cases of exophthalmus (protrusion of the eyeballs).

A

Hyperthyroidism

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40
Q

Key Differences in Hypo VS Hyper Thyroidism:
Hormones Levels:
Metabolic Rate:
Common Cause:

A

Hormones:
Hypo- Low levels of thyroid hormones
Hyper- High levels

Metabolic Rate:
Hypo- Decreases
Hyper- Increases

Common Causes:
Hypo- Hashimotos disease
Hyper- Graves’ disease

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41
Q

SS of Opiate OD

A

Classic Triad of Opioid Toxicity
- Respiratory Depression, Miosis, Bradycardia
Hypothermia

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42
Q

What is the treatment for Opiate OD?

A

Naloxone (Narcan) = Opioid Antagonist
-Dose: .4-2mg every 2-3 minutes MAX 2mg

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43
Q

Disorder caused by high levels of cortisol in the blood.
Can result form long-term use of Glucocorticoid medication (prednisone) or from tumors on the pituitary gland.
Typically affects middle-aged individuals with women affected more than them.

A

Cushing Syndrome

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44
Q

SS of _____ include:
Weight gain (especially around trunk, face and neck)
Moon face
Buffalo hump
Skin changes
Emotional instability
Cardiovascular issues (hypertension and cardiac hypertrophy)
Metabolic changes (diabetes, osteoporosis and muscle wasting.

A

Cushing Syndrome

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45
Q

Most Likely treatment for Cushing’s Syndrome:

A

Surgical Treatment - Tumor Removal

Pharmacological Treatment - Antihypertensives and anti-adrenal mediations.

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46
Q

Patient with _____ require careful monitoring due to their increased risk of cardiovascular disease, skin fragility and susceptibility to infections.

A

Cushing’s Syndrome

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47
Q

_____: Predictable and often minor reactions that occur in addition to the desired therapeutic effect of medication. eg. Nausea, headache, dizziness, mild gastrointestinal discomfort.

A

Common Drug Side Effects

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48
Q

_____: Unintended and harmful reactions that occur at normal doses used for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy. e.g. allergic reactions, gastrointestinal bleeding, significant increases in blood glucose levels.

A

Adverse Effects

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49
Q

_____ pain: originates from the internal organs, specifically the walls of hollow organs.

A

Visceral Pain

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50
Q

_____ Pain: Sharp, well-defined pain that travels along specific neural routes, known as dermatology, to the spinal column.

Solid Organ

A

Somatic Pain

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51
Q

_____ Pain: Pain that is felt in a location different from its site of origin.

A

Referred Pain

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52
Q

Pain from an MI often referred to _____, _____, _____ or _____. (Locations)

A

Left arm, neck, jaw or back.

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53
Q

Visceral pain = _____

A

Hollow Organ Pain

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54
Q

Somatic Pain = _____

A

Pain from Solid Organs

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55
Q

Why do we use Inhaler with Patients?
Metered Dose Inhalers

A

Used to deliver medication directly to lungs.
Delivers a specific amount.
MDI’s are portable and easy to use.
Spacers can be added to accommodate pt who may have difficulty timing coordinating.

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56
Q

SS of Diverticulitis:

A

LLQ Pain
Fever
Elevated WBC
Nausea/Vomiting
Tenderness on palpation
Colicky Pain
Hematochezia (bright red bloody feces)
Perception of Incomplete Defecation

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57
Q

Complications of Diverticulitis:

A

Hemorrhage
Peritonitis

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58
Q

Prevention of Diverticulitis:

A

High Fibre Diet
Stay Hydrated
Regular Exercise
Avoid Straining
Avoid seeds/nuts

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59
Q

Pre-hospital care for diverticulitis:

A

Primarily supportive care; Monitor airway; IV fluids

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60
Q

SS of TIA:
Fuck With Shit, Via Con Dios

A

Facial Drooping
Weakness or numbness
Speech difficulties
Vision problems
Confusion
Dizziness

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61
Q

_____ Coronary Artery: supplies blood to a portion of the Right Atrium, Right ventricle and upper portion of the heart’s conduction system.

A

Right Coronary Artery

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62
Q

_____ Coronary Artery: Supplies the Left ventricle, interventricular septum, part of the right ventricle and lower conduction system.

A

Left Coronary Artery

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63
Q

_____ Bundle Branch Block can result from acute MI, medication use, electrolyte abnormalities and age related deterioration of the cardiac conduction system.

A

Right Bundle Branch Block

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64
Q

When _____ Bundle Branch is blocked, impulse travels down the LBB and spread through the interventricular septum to the RV, causing a delay in the right ventricle depolarization.

A

Right Bundle Branch

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65
Q

_____ Bundle Branch Block: Seen as Prolonged QRS in V1 upwards from the isometric line

A

Right Bundle Branch

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66
Q

_____ Bundle Branch Blocks: Significant myocardial disease, MI, medications, electrolyte abnormalities & degenerative disease of the conduction system

A

Left Bundle Branch Block

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67
Q

_____ Bundle Branch Block: Left Ventricle cannot depolarize normally. Impulse travels from the right ventricle through the interventricular septum to the left ventricle, causing a delay in the Left Ventricular Depolarization

A

Left Bundle Branch Block

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68
Q

_____ bundle branch block is seen as a prolonged QRS in V1 downwards from the Isometric line.

A

Left Bundle Branch Block

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69
Q

______: Severe & potentially fatal condition that begins with an infection in the bloodstream (septicemia)

A

Septic Shock

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70
Q

SS of Septic Shock: Increased Cardiac Output
Which One:

-Early Stages
-Progressive Symptoms
-Late Stages

A

Early Stages

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71
Q

SS of Septic Shock: Fever
Which One:

-Early Stages
-Progressive Symptoms
-Late Stages

A

Progressive Symptom

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72
Q

SS of Septic Shock: Skin Changes
Which One:

-Early Stages
-Progressive Symptoms
-Late Stages

A

Progressive Symptom

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73
Q

SS of Septic Shock: Respiratory Issues
Which One:

-Early Stages
-Progressive Symptoms
-Late Stages

A

Progressive Symptom

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74
Q

SS of Septic Shock: Altered Mental Status
Which One:

-Early Stages
-Progressive Symptoms
-Late Stages

A

Progressive Symptom

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75
Q

SS of Septic Shock: Severe Hypotension
Which One:

-Early Stages
-Progressive Symptoms
-Late Stages

A

Late Stages

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76
Q

SS of Septic Shock: Organ Dysfuncion
Which One:

-Early Stages
-Progressive Symptoms
-Late Stages

A

Late Stages

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77
Q

_____: Type of peptic ulcer that occurs in the proximal portion of the duodenum.

A

Duodenal Ulcer

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78
Q

Causes of Duodenal Ulcers:

_____ is found in over 80% of duodenal ulcers.

A

Helicobacter Pylori Bacteria

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79
Q

Causes of Duodenal Ulcers:

Medications like _____ can damage the mucosal lining.

A

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs: aspirin, ibuprofen and naproxen

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80
Q

Causes of Duodenal Ulcers:

Products like alcohol and nicotine.

A

Acid-Stimulating Products

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81
Q

Causes of Duodenal Ulcers:

_____ prevents neutralization of stomach acid in the duodenum.

A

Obstructed Pancreatic Duct

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82
Q

Causes of Duodenal Ulcers:

_____ a rare condition where an acid-secreting tumor causes ulcers.
So rare that in a list from A-Z its Z.

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

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83
Q

Pain from _____ often occurs at night or when the stomach is empty. May be relieved by drinking milk.

A

Duodenal Ulcers

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84
Q

Bleeding from _____ can cause anemia, hematemesis (vomiting blood) or melena (black, tarry stools).

A

Duodenal Ulcers

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85
Q

N/V caused by _____ is due to irritation of the mucosa.

A

Duodenal Ulcers

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86
Q

Medications for _____ include antacids, antibiotics, H2 histamine blockers, and proton-pump inhibitors.

A

Duodenal Ulcers

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87
Q

_____: progressive and debilitating condition characterized by chronic airflow obstruction. Included a combination of emphysema, chronic bronchitis and asthma.

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

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88
Q

Common Symptoms of _____:
Dyspnea, Cough, Increase Sputum Production, Wheezing, Tachypnea, Pleuritic Chest Pain, Accessory Muscle Use, Pursed Lip Breathing, Tripod Positioning.

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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89
Q

Severe Symptoms of _____:
Confusion and Agitation, Somnolence (excessive sleepiness), 1-2 word dyspnea

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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90
Q

Physical Exam Findings of _____:
Barrel Chest, Clubbing of Fingers, Jugular Vein Distention, Peripheral Edema

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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91
Q

SPO2 should be ___-___ % for COPD patients.

A

90-95%

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92
Q

COPD patients work on _____ drive.

A

Hypoxic drive.

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93
Q

Transport for COPD patient in what position?

A

Position of comfort and ensure airway stays patent.

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94
Q

2 things to not give too much of in COPD patients:

A

Oxygen - Hypoxic Drive
Fluids - Can cause flash pulmonary edema

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95
Q

_____ can prevent the need for intubation in COPD patients.

A

CPAP

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96
Q

CPAP should be ___-___cm H2O.

A

5-10

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97
Q

_____ and _____ can be used early in the management of COPD patients.

A

Albuterol and Corticosteroids

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98
Q

_____: Inflammation of the vermiform appendix, small tube like structure to the large intestine at the ileocecal junction.

A

Appendicitis

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99
Q

_____ is usually caused by an obstruction of the appendiceal lumen by fecal material, food particles or tumor.

A

Appendicitis

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100
Q

Symptoms of _____ include:
Diffuse, colicky pain; N/V with low grade fever; Pain often starts in the periumbilical region and later localizes to the RLQ (McBurney’s Point)

A

Appendicitis

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101
Q

Fever and stiff neck:

A

Meningitis

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102
Q

_____: Inflammation of the gallbladder, often caused by gallstones.

A

Cholecystitis

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103
Q

Primary cause of cholecystitis in 90% of cases is _____.

A

Gallstones

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104
Q

Symptoms of _____ include:
Severe pain in RUQ radiating to the right shoulder; pain occurs after a high-fat meal; N/V and tenderness in the right subcoastal region.

A

Cholecystitis

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105
Q

_____ forms when bile, produced by the liver to remove cholesterol, becomes super saturated and forms stone like masses; stones can obstruct the cystic duct; leading to inflammation.

A

Gallstones (Cholecystitis)

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106
Q

Risk Factors for _____:
Obese middle-aged women with multiple children as well as Pima Indians and Scandinavian.

A

Cholecystitis.

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107
Q

_____: inflammation of the exocrine Pancreas.

A

Pancreatitis

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108
Q

Causes of Pancreatitis:

Metabolic: _____ is a major cause, accounting for about 80% of cases in the US.

A

Alcoholism

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109
Q

_____ Phase: After seizures; PT may experience confusion drowsiness or coma.

110
Q

Causes of Pancreatitis:

Mechanical: _____ or elevated serum lipids can obstruct the pancreatic duct.

A

Gallstones

111
Q

Causes of Pancreatitis:

Vascular: _____ or shock can lead to vascular injuries.

A

Thromboemboliss

112
Q

Causes of Pancreatitis:

_____: Certain infections can cause pancreatitis.

A

Infectious

113
Q

_____: Often caused by gallstones blocking pancreatic duct, leading to enzyme backup and inflammation.
SS: Severe abdominal pain (LUQ/Radiating back/Epigastric region), NV, Ecchymosis and swelling.
High Mortality Rate 30-40% due to sepsis and shock.

A

Acute Pancreatitis

114
Q

_____: Chronic alcohol intake can leak to acinar tissue destruction, causing enzyme backup and autodigestion of the pancreas.
SS: intense abdominal pain, NV and SS of hemorrhage (ecchymosis).

A

Chronic Pancreatitis

115
Q

_____: Inflammation of the liver.

116
Q

Most common cause of Hepatitis:

A

Viral Infection

117
Q

SS of _____: Headache, fever, weakness, joint pain, anorexia, NV & RUQ pain.
Prolonged Sympoms: Jaundice, darkened urine & gray colored stools.

118
Q

Hepatitis ___:
Fecal-Oral Route; often through contaminated food or water.
Fatigue, nausea, stomach pain & jaundice.
Does not cause chronic illness.
Vaccines are available and effective.

A

Hepatitis A

119
Q

Hepatitis ___:
Bloodborne; through blood, semen, or other body fluids
Fatigue, poor appetite, stomach pain, N & jaundice
Can become chronic, leading to cirrhosis or liver cancer
Vaccines are available & effective

A

Hepatitis B

120
Q

Hepatitis ___:
Bloodborne, primarily through sharing needles
Asymptomatic, can lead to serious live disease
More than half of infection become chronic
No vaccines available, but curative treatments exist

A

Hepatitis C

121
Q

Hepatitis ___:
Bloodborne, requires co-infection w/HBV
Severe, can lead to lifelong liver damage
Can be chronic
No specific vaccine, but HBV vaccine provides protection

A

Hepatitis D

122
Q

Hepatitis ___:
Fecal-Oral Route, often through contaminated Water
Fatigue, poor appetite, stomach pain, nausea & jaundice
Does not cause Chronic Illness
No vaccines available in the USA

A

Hepatitis E

123
Q

Pre-Hospital Treatment of Patient with Hepatitis: (4)

A

Position of comfort
Manage Airway
Avoid giving anything by mouth in case immediate surgery
Analgesic and antibiotics may be required

124
Q

What should you expect if the patient has fever, headache, stiff neck and blurred vision?

A

Meningitis

125
Q

_____: infection of the meninges (protective coverings membranes of the brain and spinal cord).

A

Meningitis

126
Q

_____ Gland: Small organ located in the mediastinum; behind the sternum.
Plays a crucial role in the immune system, especially during childhood
Larger in children & shrinks with age; becoming mostly fat & fibrous tissue in adults
Promotes maturation of the T lymphocytes essential for cell-mediated immunity

127
Q

_____: can lead to SS like cough, chest pain and difficulty breathing.

128
Q

_____ Gland: located in the neck
Regulates metabolism by secreting thyroxine (T4) & triiodothyronine (T3); influences growth & development
Secretes Calcitonin; which lowers blood calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption

A

Thyroid Gland

129
Q

_____: excess thyroid hormones in the blood.

A

Hyperthyroidism

130
Q

_____: Inadequate thyroid hormones in the blood

A

Hypothyroidism

131
Q

_____: Autoimmune disorder caused by hyperthyroidism.

A

Graves Disease

132
Q

_____ Glands: Posterior lateral surfaces of the Thyroid
Regulates calcium levels in the blood
Secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH) which increases blood calcium levels
Bone: Releases calcium into the blood
Intestines: Converts Vitamin D to its active form, increasing calcium absorption
Kidneys: Increase calcium reabsorption

A

Parathyroid Glands

133
Q

_____: High levels of calcium, often due to tumors.

A

Hyperparathyroidism

134
Q

_____: Decreased level of calcium and vitamin D.

A

Hypoparathyroidism

135
Q

_____ Gland: Center of the lower forehead.
Regulates sleep-wake cycles
Secretes melatonin

A

Pineal gland

136
Q

How to manage and actively seizing patient:

A

Do not restrain them; protect them form objects within the environment.
Attempt to maintain the airway.
Stop the seizure
Give Meds

137
Q

3 Drugs to give for seizure and dosages:

A

Diazepam (Valium): 5-10mg

Lorazepam (Activan): .1mg/kg (mag 4m) q 4 mins

Midazolam (Versed): 10mg IM

138
Q

5 things to do for patient in Postictal state:

A

Manage Airway
Position in Left Lateral Recumbant
Monitor Continuously
Monitor/Maintain Temp if needed
Communicate with PT if you can to ensure they’re recovering. Be aware of things around them that could hurt them.

139
Q

What part of the distal end of the gastrointestinal system is voluntary control?

140
Q

_____: Severe elevation in blood pressure (>180/120) that is accompanied by evidence of impending progressive target organ dysfunction.

A

Hypertensive Emergencies

141
Q

_____: Acute or subacute consequence of severe hypertension. Characterized by a sudden & severe increase in blood pressure that leads to changes in brain functions. Requires immediate treatment to lower the BP.

A

Hypertensive Encephalopathy

142
Q

How to manage hypertensive seizures:

A

Look for headaches, N/V, blurred vision, SOB, chest pain, dizziness.
Pregnant PT: check for edema of hands/face, headache, preeclampsia. Place PT on left side to prevent supine hypotension.

143
Q

_____: Initial phase after infection where the host cannot transmit the infectious agents to others.

A

Latent Period

144
Q

_____: Period when host can exhibit signs of clinical disease and can transmit the infectious agent to other host.

A

Communicable Period

145
Q

_____: Time between exposure to an infectious disease & appearance of symptoms. Can vary greatly, from a few days to months or years.

A

Incubation Period

146
Q

_____: Period between exposure to the disease & seroconversion (when antibodies become detectable). Person can test negative even though they are infected.

A

Window Phase

147
Q

_____: Duration from the onset of SS until the resolution of symptoms or death. Resolution of symptoms does not necessarily mean the infectious agent has been eradicated.

A

Disease Phase

148
Q

Most common causes of rectal foreign body obstruction: (2)

A

Intentional Insertion: sexual gratification or psychosis.

Swallowed Objects: Some objects get stuck in rectum.

149
Q

_____: Abnormally low sodium level in the blood, affects water balance and nerve function.
Can lead to headache, confusion & seizures.

A

Hyponatremia

150
Q

Treatment for Hyponatremia: (2)

A

Hypotonic Solution

Isotonic Solution

151
Q

_____: Abnormally high calcium levels in the blood, impacts muscle & nerve function.
Can cause muscle weakness, kidney stones & abnormal heart rhythms.

A

Hypercalcemia

152
Q

Treatment for Hypercalcemia: (4)

A

Hydration: IV Fluids
Medications: Calcitonin & Glucocorticoids
Monitor ECG
Definitive Care: Severe cases dialysis

153
Q

_____: Abnormally low potassium levels in the blood, affects heart rhythms.
Can cause muscle weakness, cramps, ECG changes like flattened T waves & prominent U waves.

A

Hypokalemia

154
Q

Treatment for Hypokalemia: (2)

A

Oral Supplements: Potassium Chloride
IV Potassium: Must be done cautiously to avoid complications.

155
Q

_____ Poisoning:
Low - Intermediate Exposure: Headache, Vertigo, N/V
High Exposure: AMS, seizures, increased respirations.
Very High Exposure: Abrupt loss of consciousness, respiratory depression, cardiac arrest.

A

Hydrogen Cyanide Poisoning

156
Q

Treatment for Hydrogen cyanide Poisoning: (think fire victims)

A

Hydroxocobalamin (cynokit)
Antidote binds cyanid, forms cyanocobalamin which is secreted by the kidneys.

157
Q

_____ Poisoning: Odorless, tasteless & colorless gas produced from the incomplete burning of fossil fuels & other carbon containing compounds.
It combines to hemoglobin with an affinity rate of 200-500 greater that O2.
Prevents hemoglobin from transporting O2 leading to cellular hypoxia and metabolic acidosis.

A

Carbon Monoxide

158
Q

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning:
(COHb <15-20%) - Headache, N/V, dizziness & blurred vision. Which of the following:

Mild
Moderate
Severe
Fatal

159
Q

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning: (COHb 21-40%) - Confusion, syncope, CP dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea & weakness. Which of the following:

Mild
Moderate
Severe
Fatal

160
Q

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning: (COHb 41-59%) - Dysrhythmias, hypotension cardiac ischemia, palpitations, respiratory arrest, pulmonary edema, seizures, coma, cardiac arrest. Which of the following:

Mild
Moderate
Severe
Fatal

161
Q

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning: (COHb >60%) - Death. Which of the following:

Mild
Moderate
Severe
Fatal

162
Q

Treatment for Carbon Monoxide Poisoning:

A

Remove patient from environment, maintain the airway, administer high flow O2.

163
Q

_____ Poisoning: chemicals found in insectisides, herbicides & chemical weapons. They exhibit acetylcholinesterase (AChE); enzyme responsible for breaking down acetylcholine.

A

Organophosphate Poisoning

164
Q

SS of Organophosphate Poisoning:

A

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
Gastric Motility
Emesis

165
Q

Treatment for Organophosphate Poisoning:

A

Atropine
Pralidoxime

166
Q

SS of Renal Calculi (Kidney Stone):

A

Pain: Visceral pain in one flank
Bladder Symptoms: Increased need to urinate
Hematuria: Blood in urine.
Physical Exam Findings: Uncomfortable, pain, cool, pale, clammy.

167
Q

How to treat Altered Mental Status: (3)

A

Manage ABC’s
IV & Blood Glucose
Medications

168
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____: for suspected Narcotic OD

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

169
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____: for suspected Bensodiazepine OD

A

Flumazenil

170
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____: for suspected Barbituates OD

A

Benzodiazepines

171
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____: for suspected tricyclic antidepressants OD

A

Sodium Bicarb

172
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____: for suspected Beta Blocker OD

173
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____: for suspected alcoholic PT to prevent complications of Thiamine deficiency.

174
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____, _____, _____: for active seizures or status epilepticus.

A

Versed, Valium, Ativan

175
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____: for kidney failure, trauma & infection.

176
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____/____: for sepsis.

A

Levophed/Vasopressors

177
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____/_____ for Neurogenic/Cardiogenic.

A

Dopamine/Vasopressors

178
Q

Medications for AMS:

_____: for poison.

A

Activated Charcoal

179
Q

AEIOUTIPS:

A

Alcohol; Epilepsy; Insulin; Overdose; Uremia; Trauma; Infection; Psychiatric; Stroke

180
Q

What medication can be used for hyperthyroidism? (3)

A

Radioactive Iodine Therapy

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

Surgery

181
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves Disease

182
Q

_____: bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also impact other body parts.
Transmitted through airborne droplets from coughing or sneezing.
SS- Chills, fever, fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, chronic cough, hemoptysis.

A

Tuberculosis

183
Q

_____: infection of the lungs that can present with a variety of SS.
SS include chills, fever, fatigue, malaise, cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, crackles, wheezing or rhonchi, decreased air movement in infected area.
Physical Examination: fluid in the lungs

184
Q

_____: Often from hyperextension injuries, causing motor weakness more in the upper extremities & loss of bladder control

A

Central Cord Syndrome

185
Q

_____: Hemitransection causing motor & sensory loss on the same side as the injury & pain/temperature loss on the opposite side

A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

186
Q

_____: Compression of nerve roots at the lower end of the spinal cord, leading to bowel/bladder incontinence & lower extremity weakness

A

Cause Equina Syndrome

187
Q

_____: Temporary loss of all spinal cord functions below the injury, including paralysis, loss of sensation & bowel/bladder control

A

Spinal Shock

188
Q

_____: Total severing of the Spinal Cord leading to quadriplegia or paraplegia, loss of reflexes & autonomic dysfunction

A

Complete Cord Transection

189
Q

_____ is widespread blunt trauma to the head; high chance of death; damages entire axons in the brain

A

Diffuse Axon

190
Q

How to handle sexual assault victim: (8)

A

Listen don’t judge.
Consider the victim a crime scene.
Do not allow victim to change clothes.
Carefully explain the process to the PT.
Assess the physical injuries, not the actual event.
Provide a safe environment.
Nonjudgemental.
Preserve physical evidence.

191
Q

Universal Blood Recipient:

A

Type AB (Specifically AB+)

192
Q

Universal Blood Donor:

193
Q

_____ Aneurysm: Occurs below the diaphragm. Affects the abdomen, femoral & distal pulses. Often the PT feels a sudden & urgent need to defecate.

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

194
Q

_____ Aneurysm: Occurs above the diaphragm. Affects the thoracic cavity, upper arms & typically shows a difference BP’s left from right.

A

Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm

195
Q

For any internal hemorrhage, control the BP to a systolic of ___:

196
Q

SS of _____ OD: N/V, Diarrhea (sometimes with blood), liver necrosis, pain on swallowing, unusual breath odors, excessive salivation.

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

197
Q

How to treat Acetaminophen (Tylenol) OD:

A

Primary: Acetylcysteine (mucomyst)
If identified early, activated charcoal.

198
Q

SS of _____ OD: CNS depression; profound drowsiness; stupor or coma; respiratory depression; hypotension; ataxia.

A

Benzodiazepines OD

199
Q

How to treat benzodiazepines OD:

A

Flumazenil. Benzodiazepine antagonist can reverse CNS & respiratory depression.

200
Q

_____ should be used with caution with patient with chronic benzodiazapene due to risk of seizures.

A

Flumazenil

201
Q

_____: small masses of swollen veins located in the anus or rectum.

A

Hemorrhoids

202
Q

_____: An abnormal connection between the epithelialized surface of the anal canal & the perianal skin

203
Q

_____ result from pregnancy, portal hypertension, lifting heavy objects, straining during defecation low-fiber diet

A

Hehorrhoids

204
Q

_____ often result from an abscess in anal glands that fails to heal properly, leading to a persistent, abnormal connection

205
Q

What 2 OD’s is Sodium Bicarb used for?

A

Tricyclic Antidepressant; Salicylate

206
Q

_____: life-threatening medical condition; usually bacterial that leads to a whole-body inflammatory state called systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS).
SS: Fever, chills, tachycardia, RD, AMS, hypoperfusion & increased or decrease BGL

A

Septicemia (sepsis BB)

207
Q

_____: condition where the body’s core temperature drops below 95F (35C); can result from inadequate heat production, excessive cold exposure or both

A

Hypothermia

208
Q

_____ Hypothermia: 90-95*F
Shivering, tachycardia, vasoconstriction, tachypnea, fatigue, impaired judgment.

A

Mild Hypothermia

209
Q

_____ Hypothermia: 82-90F
Condition where the body’s core temperature drops below 95
F; can result from inadequate heat production, excessive cold exposure or both.

A

Moderate Hypothermia

210
Q

_____ Hypothermia: <82*F
Coma, apnea, ventricular arrhythmia or asystole, loss of voluntary muscle control, hypotension, undetectable pulse & respirations.

A

Severe Hypothermia

211
Q

_____: abnormally low concentration of glucose in the blood.
BGL <70

A

Hypoglycemia

212
Q

_____: Condition characterized by an abnormally high concentration of glucose.
Typically >200 mg/dL

A

Hyperglycemia

213
Q

SS of _____: AMS; seizures, lethargy, RD, out of character behavior, confusion & outburst of anger.

A

Hypoglycemia

214
Q

SS of _____: Early- Increased thirst, urination and weight loss.
Late- Weakness, abdominal pain, generalized pain, generalized aches, loss of appetite, N/V, dehydration, fruity breath, tachypnea, hyperventilation, tachycardia.

A

Hyperglycemia

215
Q

What is the number 1 SS associated with endocrinological emergencies?

A

Altered Mental Status

216
Q

Which endocrinological emergency would we want to give fluids to?

A

DKA and HHNS

217
Q

3 Main Causes of Physiological Seizures:

A

Metabolic
Drug Related Causes
Trauma/Injury/Vascular Issues/Infectious Causes

218
Q

4 Main Types of Idiopathic Seizures:

A

Genetic Predisposition
Primary Epilepsy Syndroms
Development Abnormalities
Unknown Causes

219
Q

Textbook says the most common cause of Seizure is _____:

A

Idiopathic Epilepsy

220
Q

_____: serious condition where the intestines are blocked, preventing normal movement of content through the digestive tract. Can be acute or chronic.
SS: Diffuse abdominal pain; bloating and tenderness; N/V; Distended abdomen; signs of shock.

A

Bowel Obstruction

221
Q

_____: serious condition that involves bleeding in the Upper Part of the digestive tract; including the esophagus, stomach & duodenum.
SS: Abdominal discomfort; N/V; Hematemesis & Melena; Signs of Shock; Orthostatic Hypotension.

A

Upper GI Bleed

222
Q

_____: occur in the GI tract distal to the Ligament of Treitz; including small intestine, colon, rectum & anus & often associated w/chronic conditions.
SS: Cramping Pain; N/V; Changes in stools; abdominal findings; signs of shock; hemodynamic instability.

A

Lower GI Bleed

223
Q

_____: Indicates a slow GI bleed

A

Melanotic Stool

224
Q

_____: (Hematochezia) Suggest a large hemorrhage or bleeding in the distal colon; possible due to hemorrhoids or rectal fissures.

A

Bright Red Blood in Stool

225
Q

_____ Abdomen: May indicate significant hemorrhage

226
Q

_____: Bruising on the abdomen can be a signs of severe bleeding

A

Ecchymosis

227
Q

_____: Feeling of incomplete evacuation/urge to defecate (seen in rectal or colonic lesions).

228
Q

_____: Condition often awakens the pt from sleep & is typically associated w/heart conditions like CHF.
Sudden SOB at night & often causes the patient to wake up from sleep.

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND)

229
Q

_____: Difficulty breathing while lying flat; patient typically sleep with pillows.

230
Q

_____: Condition where the heart’s reduced stroke volume leads to fluid overload in the body’s tissues.

A

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

231
Q

Treatment for Congestive Heart Failure is:

A

CPAP, Nitro, Morphine, Lasix

If BP is <90, treat right sided first with fluids to get pressure above 90. Then treat the left sided failure with drugs.

232
Q

Right sided Heart Failure gets _____.

Left sided Heart Failure gets _____.

A

Fluids

Nitro (drugs)

233
Q

In the field, what is the least useful technique for inspecting the abdomen?

A

Percussion.

234
Q

Which type of Diabetes accounts for 90% of of diabetic patient?

235
Q

_____ Diabetes Mellitus
Autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas, leading to little or no insulin production.
Typically diagnosed in children & young adults; also called “juvenile onset” diabetes.
Patients require regular insulin injections to manage blood glucose levels.
Accounts for approx 5% of diabetes cases
DKA: Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Higher chance of becoming hypoglycemic

A

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

236
Q

_____ Diabetes Mellitus:
Decreased responsiveness to insulin and insufficient insulin production.
Typically begins after 40 & often associated with obesity.
Patients usually do not depend on insulin replacement initially, managed with lifestyle changes & oral medications.
Often less S/S of Type 1 with lower levels of hyperglycemia & fewer major signs of metabolic disruption.
Accounts for over 90% of diabetes cases.

A

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

237
Q

Treatment of right sided MI:

A

Maintain preload; Dobutamine; reduce afterload; early re-perfusion.

238
Q

SS of Right sided MI: (3)

A

Distended Neck Veins
Clear Lung Fields
Hypotension

*Elevation in Leads II, III and avF

239
Q

How many times does carbon monoxide bind to hemoglobin compared to oxygen?

A

200-250 x more

240
Q

Elderly female having upper abdominal pain and what to do for her?

A

Silent MI - Run 12 Lead
Any form of chest pain, run 12 Lead.

241
Q

_____:
Atrial Rate: 350-370 (cannot be counted)
Ventricular Rate: Varies greatly
Rhythm: Irregularly irregular
No PRI and the QRS is normal

242
Q

Parasite

_____: contracted from undercooked pork, causing GI disturbances and potentially severe complications.

A

Trichinosis

243
Q

Parasite:

_____: causes epigastric pains and anemia.

244
Q

Parasite:

_____: common in children, causing anal itching.

245
Q

Parasite:

_____: causes abdominal cramping, fever and cough.

A

Roundworms

246
Q

_____ Degree AV Block: Delay in impulse transmission from atria to ventricles.
ECG Indicator: PR interval longer than 0.20 seconds.
Impact: No complete blockage, just a slowing of the impulse.

247
Q

_____ Degree AV Block (Mobitz __): Progressive delay of impulses until one is completely blocked.
Cycle: After a dropped beat, the cycle repeats.
Impact: Can cause syncope and angina if frequent.

A

Second Degree AV Block Mobitz I

248
Q

_____ Degree AV Block (Mobitz ___): Intermittent block where some impulses are conducted and others are not.
Pattern: Often a recognized pattern.
Impact: More serious than Mobitz I, can lead to full AV block.

A

Second-Degree AV Block (Mobitz II)

249
Q

_____ Degree AV Block: No impulses from atria are conducted to ventricles.
Impact: Severe bradycardia, heart failure, and potential cardiac arrest.

A

Third Degree AV Block

250
Q

How do you position a stroke patient? (4)

A

Supine
Recovery position
Opposite side of stroke signs
If PT has medical history, transport in semi fowlers

251
Q

Low amplitude, bradycardia, thin hair and doughy skin, is it a thyroid disorder or adrenal gland disorder?

A

Thyroid - Hypothyroidism

252
Q

If a patient is taking atrovent, metaproterenol and betamethasone, what underlying disease or disorder would you expect them to have?

A

Asthma or COPD

253
Q

COPD PT have a tendency to produce polycythemia. What is this? And why?

A

Abnormally high heatocrit due to excess production of RBC’s.
Chronic Hypoxia leads to decreased O2 - body then produces more red blood cells.

254
Q

Rhonchi - Upper or Lower? Fluid or Congestion?
Snoring - Upper of Lower? Fluid or Congestion?
Strider - Upper or Lower? Fluid or Congestion?
Crackles - Upper or Lower? Fluid or Congestion?

A

Rhonchi - Lower / Fluid
Snoring - Upper / Congestion
Stridor - Upper / Obstruction
Crackles - Lower / Fluid

255
Q

Ketones are a bybroduct of _____.

A

Fat metabolism (considered a form of catabolism)

256
Q

What is the number 1 cause of coronary artery disease (CAD) or Angina?

A

Atherosclerosis

257
Q

What happens when the external pacemaker fails?

A

The underlying rhythm returns.

258
Q

What body part separates a lower and upper GI tract bleed?

A

Ligament of Treitz

259
Q

Which is more common, Stroke, Epilepsy or Parkinson’s?

A

Stroke
Parkinson’s
Epilepsy

260
Q

_____: inflammation of the stomach and intestines.

A

Gastroenteritis

261
Q

_____: inflammation of the stomach.

262
Q

_____: Chroninc inflammatory disease affecting any part of the GI tract.

263
Q

What percentage of the population has appendicitis?

264
Q

What is a substance that induces an immune response?

A

Immunogenicity

265
Q

Pt complaining of severe headache; what do we watch them for? And prevent aspiration.

A

Intracranial pressure

266
Q

What is ST Elevation?

267
Q

What is Tall Peaked T-Waves?

A

Hyperkalemia
MI
Early indication of Torsades

268
Q

Number 1 Cause of Hemorrhoids:

A

Idiopathic
Straining in Defecation
Low Fiber
Pregnancy
Heavy Lifting
Portal Hypertension

269
Q

_____: known as adrenal insufficiency, occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones.
SS - Progressive weakness/fatigue, hypotension, most likely in AFIB w/ RVR.

A

Addison’s Disease

270
Q

_____: genetic disorder affecting red blood cells.
SS - Chronic anemia, vasooclussive crisis, hematologic crisis, infectious crisis.

A

Sickle Cell