OPM'S 700 Flashcards
Sunrise Fire Rescue will achieve higher staffing levels for company operations by
Assuring adequate personnel are dispatched
Assembling engine, ladder, and rescue crews together to form working companies
Who is responsible for ensuring that companies are assembled into working companies
Incident Commander
What is the minimum crew staffing on an engine?
3
What is the minimum crew staffing on the ladder?
2
What is the minimum crew staffing on a rescue?
2
What are the basic engine company responsibilities and operations?
Fire ground operations
Medical rescue
Hazard abatement
Non-emergency incident abatement
Equipment and station maintenance
Methodology for specific tasks performed by engines are described in SFRD’s:
Competency Based Driver Operator Performance Objectives
What is part of the Basic Offensive Plan for structure fires?
Size up and establish command
Determine victim rescue
Attack line for interior attack
Primary search
RIT
Additional support activities
What is the Basic Defensive Plan for structure fires?
Size up and command
Determine stopping point
Prioritize fire streams (2 1/2 and larger)
Maintain sufficient resources to control spread
Responses of an ALS engine, for medical purposes, will be dictated by what?
Response Assignment Strategy
Who initiates ALS treatment on the engine and advises Dispatch as for the need for a transport unit?
ALS engine paramedic
How does the transport unit respond to the scene when requested by the ALS engine?
Emergency
Who is responsible for transferring the “Primary Evaluation” form to the transport unit?
ALS engine paramedic
Who is responsible for contacting the appropriate medical facility on the engine company?
ALS engine paramedic
Who is the first choice in shutting down a unit to assist in transportation?
EMS Captain
Who is the first choice in engine personnel to supplement rescue staffing during transport?
Jumpseat firefighter
If the jumpseat firefighter is making a transport with the rescue unit, what happens with the engine?
Does not mandate removal from service
Advise dispatch of reduced staffing, on limited call basis
Does the engine follow the rescue to the hospital for the sole purpose of picking up the jumpseat firefighter?
Requires permission from the Shift Commander
Failure to immediately and willingly obey the orders of a supervisor represents what?
Insubordination
If an employee deviates from the medical protocols, what happens?
Employee must be prepared to document why it was necessary
While at an emergency scene or when dealing with the public in any situation, the greatest degree of _____ will be required.
Silence compatible with an efficient discharge of duty
What are specific tasks typically assigned to aerial companies?
Elevated master streams
Laddering a building beyond ground ladders
What are primary aerial company responsibilities and functions?
Elevated water streams
Salvage and overhaul
Secondary means of egress
Victim rescue
Ventilation
Laddering
Forcible entry
What are secondary functions of the aerial company?
Utility control
RIT
Engine company operations
Initial concerns for the aerial company on fire ground operations pertain to:
Apparatus positioning to perform aerial functions or
Staging out of vehicular travel lanes
Aerial company response are covered by:
Response Assignment Strategy and Basic Fire Attack
What is the rescue company composed of?
Firefighter/paramedics
Officers
What are basic rescue company responsibilities and operations?
BLS and ALS
Establish communications with medical facilities
Transport to hospital
Vehicle Extrication
Fire ground operations
Rescue company responses are covered by:
Response Assignment Strategy
As the first arriving unit at a non-medical scene, the following guidelines are in effect for the rescue company:
Size up
Prepare to perform all engine company functions
Advise via radio initial actions
Report availability to command
Establishing command is not recommended
As part of a multi-unit response to structure fire, what does the rescue do?
Prepare to perform all engine company functions
Report to command for orders
Who is considered first responders to a hazmat incident?
SFRD units, aside from Hazmat Team
What do operational concerns of the first responders deal with primarily?
Scene safety
Product identification
While en route to a hazmat incident, first responders should check with dispatch for additional information, particularly:
Material involved
Size of leak or spill
Possibility of immediate live endangerment
After the first responders at a hazmat incident identify situations that present immediate danger to life and isolate appropriately, what do they do next?
Evacuate all people (civilians, PD, FD)
First responders should attempt immediate rescue at a hazmat incident when the rescuers are:
Fully aware of the risk posed to them
Wearing full PPE and SCBA
Utilizing a bare minimum number of personnel
lf hazard is unknown or exceptionally life-threatening, wait for Hazmat team
First responders should identify the hazardous material by:
Consulting witnesses or facility personnel
DOT ERG as initial guide
Identifying type and size of container
Container lettering or markings
Shipping papers
When is a first responder able to mitigate the situation with units on scene of the hazmat incident?
Minor category I spills
What is used to report all hazardous material incidents to dispatch?
Uniform Classification System for Categorizing Hazardous Material Incidents
The cleanup and recovery of all spilled and leaked materials is the responsibility of whom?
Property/vehicle owner
What does SFRD do with spilled or leaked materials?
Will not take possession
Will not remove from scene
Will not take to City facility
What type of dive operations fall within the jurisdiction of the SFRD as stipulated in City Code?
Emergency victim rescue
Body recoveries
Personal property recoveries
Etc.
Assigned divers must have completed what courses?
Public Safety Diver
Dive Rescue I
Who assigns members to the dive team?
Fire Chief
When is the Dive Rescue component of the Special Response Team considered “in-service”?
When staffed with at least 2 divers
Preferably stationed with the apparatus
Dive team members who are physically or otherwise unable to perform dive duties shall report their status to whom?
Station commander
Who will inform the Shift Commander
What is checked out daily in regards to the dive team?
Mechanical operation of the dive response unit
Inventory of the dive response unit
Auxiliary equipment located on various apparatus
The documentation of all maintenance and check-outs of the dive equipment/unit shall be forwarded to whom?
Shift Commander
Who is able to drive the dive vehicle?
Dive team personnel or support personnel
Additional dive team personnel may be assigned from other units to support dive team operations at the direction of whom?
Battalion Chief
Who shall render a decision directing a recall of off-duty Dive Team personnel to assist in dive operations?
Battalion Chief
In consultation with Dive Rescue Coordinator or Dive Team members
What are the minimum personnel for dive operations?
2 dive team members
2 support personnel
When do personnel have to wear a personal flotation device?
When operating near water
Where are the specific guidelines for Dive Rescue team operations located?
SFRD Special Operations Manual
What is documented for all dive recovery activities?
Vehicle and owner information
This assists the Billing Department
When providing mutual aid for dive incidents, it is not the department’s normal practice to recover what?
Vehicles and other objects
Recovery operations can be:
Hazardous to SFRD divers 701.02
Time consuming
Tax SFRD equipment
Recovery operations can be:
Hazardous to SFRD divers
Time consuming
Tax SFRD equipment
Fees for recovery operations outside the City are:
Not recoverable
What stations have rapid entry dive gear assigned?
39, 59, 72 and 83
Remainder of dive cache on Dive 92
What is the Rapid Entry Dive Gear made up of?
Dive Tank
BC with built in weight and knife
Divator MKII dive Mask 1st stage regulator
2nd stage regulator
Dive light
Throw bag
What is the minimum capacity of the dive tank?
63 cu feet
What is included in the throw bag?
3 PFDs
Dive Rope
Center Punch
Secondary cutting device
What unit is the rapid dive entry dive gear stored?
Suppression unit
Moved back to Suppression unit at end of the shift
Where should the diver of the station be assigned?
Suppression unit
If assigned to Rescue, move gear to Rescue
Who is able to check out the dive gear?
Only department divers
What is the minimum pressure of the dive tank?
Not less than 2800 psi
How should the BC be checked for readiness?
Adjusted for individual diver size and weight added
Who is informed of a piece of dive equipment that is damaged or defective?
Station Captain
Along with Shift BC and Logistics Division
What is included in the department issued dive gear?
Wet suit
Fins
Gloves
Booties
Snorkel and mask
If a diver has a medical contraindication, who is notified?
Their supervisor immediately
Supervisor will notify the Shift BC
What does the diver conducted at the start of the shift?
Pre-dive neurological exam
On the Rapid Entry Dive Daily Checkout sheet, the divers at station 92 are to complete which part?
Personal Check only
What is critical during dive incidents?
Size up and information gathering
The first arriving officer is responsible for what?
Scene management
Last scene point
Witness interview
Overall safety of the operation
Where should the search pattern begin?
Where the witness last saw the person or object go in the water
How is the dive site prepared for entry?
Roof ladder placement into water
What is the bottom time for the diver
5 minuts
The Rapid Entry Diver shall be responsible for all:
Dive decisions
Dive safety
Confirming last scene point
Point of entry for the dive
Who has the final dive/no dive call?
Diver
The diver shall properly prepare for the rapid entry dive by completing the following:
Pre-dive gear checkout
Pre-dive neurological exam
No medical contraindications
Diver to tender communication
General scene safety
Verifying entry/exit time and pressure with tender
During the dive, the diver shall be responsible for the following:
Monitor air pressure and dive depth
Underwater scene survey
Victim retrieval
Constant communication with tender
Calling off the dive
The diver shall be responsible for the following post dive:
Post-dive neurological exam
Debrief the IC
Debrief the Dive team if operation goes longer than 5 minutes
Post-dive gear checkout
When the Dive Unit Rescue Divers arrive on scene, they shall be fully dressed and perform what?
Safety Diver and 90% diver
What are the possible weather conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?
Sunny
Cloudy
Overcast
Stormy
What are the possible surface conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?
Calm
Choppy
Rough
Stormy
What are the possible current conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?
None
Light
Medium
Heavy
What are the possible visibility conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?
Excellent
Good
Moderate
Poor
What is the visibility if the conditions are Excellent?
> 20 feet
What is the visibility if the conditions are Good?
10-20 feet
What is the visibility if the conditions are Moderate?
3-10 feet
What is the visibility if the conditions are Poor?
< 3 Feet
What is the PSI when the diver should be recalled to the surface?
1000 psi
What is the maximum dive time when the diver should be recalled to the surface?
20 minutes
Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 1 pull =
Ok or Nothing
Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 2 pulls =
Change direction
Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 3 pulls =
Surface
Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 4 pulls =
Stop don’t surface
Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 1 pull =
Ok or nothing
Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 2 pulls =
Need more line
Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 3 pulls =
Found object
Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 4 pulls =
Trouble
What does an USAR activation mean?
Formal request to mobilize and respond
During an activation, members are to arrive at a designated point-of-departure within _____ of being activated.
6 hours
What does an USAR alert mean?
Formal notification that an event has occurred and activation may be pending
Who is the sponsoring jurisdiction of the South Florida USAR Task Force?
City of Miami Fire Department
Who determines membership into the USAR Task Force?
Sole discretion of sponsoring jurisdiction, City of Miami
SFRD personnel who are active members of the Task Force must do what to be considered for activation status?
Request and receive permission in writing from the Fire Chief
When is USAR training done?
Off-duty time
In the event of a USAR alert, who and how are they notified?
Responsibility of the team member to notify the Shift Commander without delay
In the event of a USAR activation, who and how are they notified?
Responsibility of the team member to notify Shift Commander immediately
If USAR is activated what happens with the on-duty members?
Remain on operational duty until relieved by the shift commander
Alterations of hours of duty of personnel and overtime hours are to be reported to the _____ by the shift commander.
Administrative officer
Upon the deactivation of USAR, team members shall do what?
Immediately advise Shift Commander of their ability to return to duty
Who is notified of all USAR activations?
Fire Chief notified by the Shift Commander
Engine and Rescue company involvement in technical rescue incidents is limited to what?
Recognition and specialty team support roles
What is of paramount importance on technical rescue incidents?
Recognition of the potentially dangerous situations
What leads to injury or death to rescuers on technical rescue incidents?
Actions taken by improperly trained and under equipped rescuers
What is a priority for a technical rescue incident?
Early recognition for the need of Specialty Teams
What additional resources should respond to a technical rescue incident?
Battalion Chief
Safety Officer or Operations Division Chief
ALS rescue
Specialty Teams
Mutual aid
What is a confined space?
Area which is not intended for continual human occupancy
Have limited means of egress
Potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment
The effective rescuing of victims from these types of areas often requires the combination of _____ for mitigation.
Specialized tools and techniques
What is a trench rescue?
Narrow excavation made below the surface 701.04
Depth greater than width but no greater than 15 feet (measured at bottom)
What is required to effect victim rescue from a trench?
Specialized training and tools
What is considered a non-technical evacuation?
Less than 40 degrees inclination
What is considered a technical evacuation?
Greater than 40 degrees inclination
Rough terrain that requires specific technical training
How many phases are there in a technical rescue operation?
5
What is phase I of the technical rescue operation?
Scene preparation and reconnaissance
What is step 1 of Phase I of the technical rescue operation?
Assessment
Command will have to send a recon team to determine what at a technical rescue operation?
Exact location
Number of patients
Nature of injuries
How many personnel are on the recon team?
Minimum of two
What equipment should be carried by the recon team?
Medical equipment
The decision to wait for TRT to arrive to a technical incident should be based on what?
Risk/benefit factor
What can be used for aerial recon?
Helicopter
What is step 2 of Phase I of the technical rescue operation?
Manpower and Equipment
Information that will be helpful in determining the need for additional resources would be:
Number of victims
Location and conditions of victims
Estimated angle of terrain
Distance to victim
Estimated time of evacuation
Command shall designate a safety group to identify _____.
All potential hazards
The Safety Group usually consists of what?
One member of TRT
What is left in place if the operation will be conducted in the Recovery mode?
Leave victim and related equipment in place for investigation
What is Phase II of the Technical Rescue Operation?
Pre-Rescue Operations
What are the three steps of the Phase II Pre-Rescue Operations?
Make the general area safe 701.04
Make the rescue area safe
Pre-rescue/recovery
What is Phase III of the Technical Rescue Operation?
Rescue Operation
Rescue operations should be conducted from _____.
Low risk to high risk
How many attendants will be used to remove a victim in a stokes basket?
Minimum of 4
Face the direction of travel
Face direction of anchor for steep angle evacuation
What is considered a high angle operation?
60 degrees
What is the safety factor for the rope system?
15:1
What type of rope technique should be used?
Double rope technique
What is considered a high risk operation?
Helicopter operations
What factors must be decided prior to using a helicopter?
Time of day
Condition of victims
Difficult access to the victims
Qualifications of the pilot and rescuers
What is Phase IV of the Technical Rescue Operation?
Safety Considerations
What is the protective clothing that will be worn by all rescue personnel at a technical rescue operation?
Helmet
Gloves
Harnesses
Eye protection
When is the consideration for CISM debriefing done?
Phase IV: Safety Considerations
What is Phase V of the Technical Rescue Operation?
Termination
Where is a team briefing/post incident analysis conducted after a technical rescue operation?
On site or at station
As soon as possible
What will the rescuers of a technical rescue operation go through on scene or at the station?
Psychological “debriefing”
What are the reasons that a structural collapse or failure may happen?
Natural occurrences
Fire or explosion
Human factors
Engineering errors
What is an example of a natural occurrence that could cause a structural collapse or failure?
Hurricane
Tornado
High wind conditions
Earthquake
Floods, etc.
What is an example of a human factor that could cause a structural collapse or failure?
Accidental undersigned impact (airplane/vehicle)
Intentional malicious damage
What is an engineering error that could cause a structural collapse or failure?
Poor design
Poor connections
Poor construction or materials used
What is Phase I of the Structural Collapse incident?
Scene preparation and reconnaissance
The first due Technical Rescue Team Officer shall obtain information from who that is on scene?
Company Officer
Battalion Chief
Structural engineer
Job site foreman
What is Step 1 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Assessment
What is the size of the safety zone on a structural collapse incident?
Two times the height
If you cannot obtain blueprints or maps, what can be done?
On-site personnel draw a sketch
The first due engine companies shall stretch hose lines to the collapse site to protect what?
Exposures from fire or explosion
What is Step 2 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Manpower and equipment
Which department is FL Task Force 1?
Metro
Which department is FL Task Force 2?
Miami
Which type of engineers should respond to a structural collapse incident?
Structural
Water
Gas
Electrical
What units should respond to the structural collapse incident?
Full structural response
Multiple ALS rescue units and ambulances
Cascade truck
What is step 3 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Make the General Area Safe
Who is assigned as the access control person?
Not a technical rescue team member
How should the structural collapse area be ventilated?
Positive pressure
PPV may not work as needed
How do you assess the effectiveness of proper ventilation?
Atmospheric monitor reading
Type of configuration of the space, void, and crevice
Who is able to determine that the structure and/or atmospheric readings have become unsafe at a structural collapse?
Incident commander
Structural engineer
And/or Safety Officer
What is Step 4 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Structure/Hazard Evaluation Marking System
The structure/hazard evaluation markings should be performed prior to:
Rescue operations
How big is the square that the TRT personnel will mark on the entrance?
2’ x 2’
What color is the spray paint used in structural collapse?
Orange only
What does a blank box indicate?
Structure is accessible safe for search
Damage is minor or completely pancaked
What does a box with a single slash indicate?
Significantly damaged
Some areas safe, but other needs shoring
What does a box with a crossing slash indicate?
Not safe for search
Remote search can proceed at significant risk
What does an arrow next to a marking box indicate?
Direction of safe entrance
What does the symbol “HM” indicate near a marking box?
Hazardous material condition
What is step 5 in Phase 1 of the structural collapse incident?
Entry Preparation
Who should be a part of each entry and rescue team?
At least one paramedic
Structural collapse entry teams shall be equipped with:
1 member with portable radio
Explosion-proof lighting or cyalume
Atmospheric monitoring, personal units preferred
Proper protective gear
Coveralls
Nomex
Appropriate footwear
Hearing and eye protection
Helmet
Gloves
What is Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Exploration and Search
What is Step I of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Search Assessment Marking
How big is the ‘X’ drawn for the structural collapse incident?
2’ x 2’
The ‘X’ will be constructed in two operations. The single slash will be drawn when?
Upon entry 701.04
Means search in progress
The ‘X’ will be constructed in two operations. The crossing slash will be drawn when?
Upon completing the search and exit of structure
When will the markings inside the ‘X’ be written?
At the time of this assessment
What is written in the left quadrant of the ‘X’?
Rescue team completing search
What is written in the top quadrant of the ‘X’?
Time and date members left structure
What is written in the right quadrant of the ‘X’?
Personnel hazards
What is written in the bottom quadrant of the ‘X’?
Number of live and dead victims removed
How are the locations of where the victims were found noted?
Orange spray paint to make exact location
What is Step II of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Entry
Entry decisions shall be made based on what?
Known locations of victims
Safety of the opening
Atmospheric readings
Ease of recovery points
If the location of the victim is known or suspected, how many entry points should be attempted
Two separate points
Prior to entry of a structural collapse, each member shall be logged on to what?
Technical Rescue Documentation sheet
Teams shall be rotated frequently depending on what?
Physical activity
Stress
Fatigue
Weather conditions
Each technical team shall be assigned to rehab upon removal from the space until what?
Rehydration and vital signs are within normal limits
What should be done once inside the void or space of a structural collapse incident?
Interior team communication
Communications with operations exterior
Make entry points or patterns with chalk, spray paint, lumber crayons to egress
Move as a team
Beware of elevation and unstable footing
Before deciding which victims should be rescued first, what should be considered?
Victim condition
Position
Difficulty extricating
How should debris be removed when working close to a victim?
By hand
When a buried victim is discovered alive in a collapse after house of work, what is done with the body?
Do not remove unless secondary collapse, fire, electrocution, or drowning is imminent
What is Part III of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Search and Rescue of Surface Victims
What percentage of victims are found on top of debris or lightly buried?
50%
What is Step 4 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Locating Casualties using the Hailing system
How are rescuers positioned when using the hailing system?
In calling and listening positions
Once a sound is picked up using the hailing system, what else should be attempted?
One additional fix from another angle
What is the signal for cease operation/All quiet?
1 long blast (3 seconds)
What is the signal for evacuate the area?
3 short blasts (one second each)
What is the signal for resume operations?
1 long and 1 short blast
What is Step 5 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Void Searches
Where are voids located inside a collapsed structure?
Strong or sheltered parts of a structure
What can be considered as survivable voids?
Normal transportation corridors
How do personnel progress into voids?
Least damaged into the most damaged
What is Step 6 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Breaching
Where are reinforced concrete columns or filled cells typically found in homes?
Corners and adjacent to window and door openings
What is Step 7 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Emergency Shoring
The size and type of shoring will be dependent on what?
Weight to be supported 701.04
Condition of element to be supported
How much does concrete/masonry weigh?
125-150 lbs per cubic foot
How much does normal concrete floor weigh?
100-150 lbs per square foot
What should be checked prior to shoring?
Base
Foundation
Ground conditions
Shoring systems should act like what?
Double funnel
What is the maximum length of a shore?
No more than 50 times its width
Cribbing limitations are based on _____ cross grain bearing.
500 psi
Failure due to crushing of cross grain wood is:
Slow and noisy
Gives warning to rescuers
Cribbing’s lateral stability is dependent on what?
Width to height ratio
What is the rule of thumb for building crib boxes?
3 times as high as width
What is the capacity of 4x4 crib (2 layer):
24,000 lbs
What is the capacity of 4x4 crib (3 layer):
48,000 lbs
What is the capacity of 6x6 crib (2 layer):
60,000 lbs
What is the capacity of 6x6 crib (3 layer):
135,000 lbs
What are the two types of wood used for cribbing?
Douglas Fir
Southern Pine
What is the safety factor for wood cribbing?
2 to 1
What is Phase III of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Patient Removal
What are the preferred methods of victim removal from a collapse?
Mechanical advantage systems
Manual winches
What is Phase IV of the Structural Collapse Incident?
General Debris Removal
How is general debris removed?
Heavy machinery
What is Phase V of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Safety Considerations
What is the proper protective clothing for a structural collapse?
turnout clothing or flame retardant jumpsuit
Gloves
Helmet
Safety glasses or goggles
Hearing protection
Mask
When are lock out/tag out procedures done?
Phase V Safety Considerations of the Structural Collapse Incident
When is a safety analysis performed on a structural collapse incident?
Every 30 minutes
When is CISM considered in a structural collapse incident?
Phase V Safety Considerations
What is Phase VI of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Termination
Who is responsible for sealing entry points to ensure no additional entries are made?
Contractor or responsible party
When will the workers of a structural collapse go through a psychological debriefing?
After each work period or shift
What is the definition of a structural collapse?
Loss of structure’s integrity causing the collapse
Specific operational guidelines for the Specialty Team members specific to the type of emergency are provided in detail in the _____.
SFR Special Operations Manual
To be a member of any specialty team, all personnel must:
Complete recognized course
Request in writing for admittance
Receive approval from Fire Chief
Remain in good standing through drills and training
Who has overall responsibility on all Technical Rescue Operations?
Battalion Chief
What is a high-rise defined as?
Cannot reach fire via normal pre-connected lines
Cannot reach via hoisting
Where standpipes must be used
Building with internal hallways over two stories
The construction of most high-rise buildings effectively shields what?
Interior from the outside
What is secondary in urgency in most high-rise situations?
Establishing command outside the structure
What is the most prudent command option at a high-rise situation?
Passing of command by first arriving officer to next arriving officer
How large is the hazard zone at a high-rise incident?
200 feet
Who is supposed to remain clear of the hazard zone?
Civilians
Police
Non-essential firefighting personnel
All personnel, civilians, and FD personnel must remain at least _____ away from hose lines supplying the building Siamese.
50 feet
Who should be assigned as quickly as possible to the firefighting level of a confirmed fire?
Chief Fire Officer 701.05
Division XX
Once attack companies have confirmed an actual fire on an upper floor, Command must be concerned with what?
Additional resources
Provide life safety
Provide water supply
Size up conditions
Assign RIT
Provide support systems
Who is responsible for establishing lobby control?
Driver of the first arriving engine
What is Lobby Control equipped with?
Full bunker gear with SCBA
Portable radio
Knox box key
Who is responsible for maintaining elevator control?
Lobby control?
Who is responsible to record names and passports of firefighting personnel going up into the building?
Lobby Control
The National Elevator Code calls for elevators to _____ upon activation of fire detection system components.
Automatically return to building lobby
What can quickly disable elevators?
Water from sprinkler systems and firefighting streams
When should a firefighter not take an elevator to a floor?
Reported fire
Smoke odor
Alarm activation
The elevator can be used in what mode?
Fireman Service mode
How are firefighters supposed to be equipped when utilizing elevators during an emergency?
Fully bunkered out
SCBA tank on
Prepared to don SCBA face piece
Where should the elevator be stopped at an emergency?
2 floors below
All crews riding in elevator during fire emergencies shall be equipped with:
ull bunker gear/SCBA
Forcible entry equipment
Radio
During the initial fire attack, who should proceed to the fire area?
At least two companies
Where will companies set up for operation at a high rise?
Floor below the incident
Where are firefighting hose lines connected in a stairwell?
Not on the same floor or above
Except in a true smoke tower stairwell
Pump operators shall delivery _____ fire flow to the attack line.
Minimum of 150 gpm
If fire has already extended into an interior hallway, fire officers should what?
Seriously consider the deployment of a backup line prior to fire attack
Fire attack in a high-rise should never begin until what is verified?
A sustained water supply
When will firefighters use the hose in the hose cabinets?
Extreme circumstances
What should be deployed when it is obvious that the fire has gained considerable headway?
2.5” attack line to the fire area
Who will determine the urgency of supplementing a building’s water supply?
Command
Dry standpipe systems require what?
Urgent and immediate supplementation
Which buildings require less urgency in supplying the system with a water supply?
Wet standpipes and internal pumps
What is not used to supply the standpipe/sprinkler system?
Large diameter (4” & 5”)
The driver operator shall deliver a minimum of _____ operating from standpipes.
150 gpm to all 1.75”
Driver operators conducting pump evolutions within _____ of a building with a confirmed fire must wear helmet and bunker coat.
100 feet
The ladder company should ascend to the top of the stairwell:
Looking for and opening any roof hatches for vertical ventilation
Personnel assigned to stairwell support should station themselves:
On every other floor
Remove bunker gear to reduce heat stress
Should not travel more than 2 flights
When is a Base Staging Area required?
Extended firefighting operation above a third floor
What is the radio designation for the Base Staging Area?
Base
Where is the base staging area established?
Two floors below the fire floor
Where is the RIT deployed to for staging?
Stairwell of the floor immediately below fire floor
Unless otherwise directed by Command, who assumes the role of RIT?
Third arriving engine
A RIT crew shall remain operational at a high-rise until the environment in the building has been:
Reduced to no longer dangerous to life and health
When shielding from a building does not allow for units to communicate with the outside command, communications should be relayed to the outside via:
Lobby Control or operate on a separate channel
What is the mission of the first arriving engine and rescue?
Assess conditions on fire floor and prepare for fire attack
What does the Officer of the first arriving engine bring on a high rise?
Hand light
Elevator keys
Utility line
What does the driver of the first arriving engine do?
Report to Lobby with knox box keys
What does the firefighter of the first arriving engine bring?
High rise kit
What do the firefighters of the first arriving Rescue bring?
Extend-A-bag
Hand light
Rabbit tool
Irons
What does the officer of the first arriving ladder bring?
Hand light
Elevator keys
Irons
What does the driver of the first arriving ladder bring?
Pike pole
Utility line
What does the firefighter of the first arriving ladder bring?
Rabbit tool
2 spare SCBA bottles
What is the mission of the second arriving engine and rescue?
Report to floor below fire and prepare to support attack crew
What does the officer of the second arriving engine bring?
Hand light
Elevator keys
Spare SCBA bottle
What does the driver of the second engine do?
Drop off crew, proceed to support standpipes
What does the firefighter of the second arriving engine bring?
High rise kit
What do the firefighters on the second arriving rescue bring?
Extend-A-bag 701.05
Hand light
2 spare SCBA bottles
What is the mission of the third arriving engine?
Report to command, obtain TIC, prepare to serve as RIT floor below
What does the officer of the third arriving engine bring?
Thermal imager
Search rope
Hand light
Elevator keys
What does the firefighter of the third arriving engine bring?
Irons
Spare SCBA bottle
High-rise property can be exposed to extraordinary property loss due to:
Water and smoke damage
What is used to repack the high-rise pack?
Return to station and utilize dry hose
How is the used high-rise pack hose dried?
Accordion folded on bay floor
Hung in hose tower
What does the metro load high rise kit consist of:
100ft of 1 3/4” attack line
1 TFT breakaway nozzle
Gated wye
t did the 50ft extend-a-bag replace?
Short section of 2 1/2
Who are viable targets for terrorism?
Emergency response personnel
Who may advise public safety agencies to be on a heightened state of alert?
Local, state, federal agencies
Who may wish to place the SFRD on a heightened state of alert?
Fire Chief or designee
During a heightened state of alert, what happens with the bay doors?
Closed at all times unless crew in bay
If the ownership of a vehicle in the parking lot cannot be ascertained with the assistance of the police department, who will be notified?
Duty shift commander
Where are training WMD kits located?
Training division
Which units will have WMD kits issued?
In service rescue and engine companies
How many WMD kits does the rescue unit have?
2 sets of PPE
How many WMD kits does the engine have?
3 sets of PPE
What does each WMD PPE kit contain?
1 Scott cartridge adapter
1 NBC air purifying cartridge
1 pair of silvershield gloves
Hood saramex splash resistant coverall
What boots are to be used with the EMD PPE kit?
Structural firefighting boots
What level of protection does the WMD PPE kit and structural firefighting boots provide?
Level C
Protection against solids, particulates, mists, and light splashes
What level of protection does the WMD PPE, structural boots, and an SCBA provide?
Level B
When higher levels of respiratory protection are needed
The WMD kits are designed to protect rescuers who operate in the:
Warm zone only
The WMD kits are designed to protect rescuers who operate in the:
Warm zone only
The WMD kit was never designed to permit entry into a Hot Zone without stringent:
Monitoring and positive identification and confirmation of substance
The WMD kits are designed to protect the rescuer against what type of contamination?
Residual on victims who are being:
Decontaminated
Triaged
Treated in warm zone
The NBC cartridge is very effective against what contaminants?
Nuclear and biological
The NBC cartridge has a particulate matter efficiency of _____.
99.997%
The NBC cartridge filters out particles greater than _____.
0.3 microns
How big are Anthrax spores?
From 3 to 10 microns
The NBC cartridge is effective against a variety of _____ compounds.
Organic and inorganic chemical
The NBC cartridge is effective against Ammonia at:
500ppm
The NBC cartridge is effective against Nerve Gases at:
1000 ppm
The NBC cartridge is effective against hydrogen cyanide at:
4000 ppm
The NBC cartridge is effective against Benzene at:
50 ppm
What are considered nerve gases?
Sarin
Tabun
VX
The NBC cartridge is effective against Chlorine at:
5000 ppm
The NBC cartridge is effective against Hydrogen Chloride at:
1000 ppm
The NBC cartridge is effective against Sulfur Dioxide at:
300 ppm
The NBC cartridge is effective against Phosgene at
2000mg/m3
The NBC cartridge is effective against Hydrogen Sulfide at:
5000 ppm
The NBC cartridge is effective against Chloropicrin at:
5000 ppm
The NBC cartridge is effective against what type of gas?
Tear gases/riot control agents
The duration of the NBC cartridge effectiveness for particulate screening:
Several days
The duration of the NBC cartridge effectiveness for chemical exposure:
Varies widely
What are factors affecting the useful life of the NBC cartridge?
Temperature
Humidity
Concentration of the challenge chemical
NBC cartridges are expected to provide a minimum of _____ protection against _____ chemical exposure.
6-8 hours
Secondary (residual)
What is not single use/disposable in the WMD kit?
Mask
Cartridge adapter
Boots
Under normal situations, decontamination is performed and/or directed by:
Hazardous materials teams
During WMD events, decontamination may be performed by:
Engine/rescue companies
What type of gloves should be used by the engine company when performing decon?
Butyl gloves
How are the casualties separated during decon?
Asymptomatic
Symptomatic
Non-ambulatory
Which casualties will be immediately decontaminated?
Casualties who have liquid agent on skin and/or clothing
What is the decontamination mixture?
1 part household bleach to 9 parts water = 0.5% solution 701.06
Full strength household bleach = 5% solution
What is the 0.5% solution used on?
Skin decon
What is the 5% solution used on?
Clothing and equipment decon
What is the chemical for “dry chlorine” granules?
Calcium hypochlorite
What is the concentration for the dry chlorine mixture?
1 ounce of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 0.5% solution
10 ounces of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 5% solution
What is the water temperature for decontamination?
Between 60 and 70F
Between 16 and 21C
What is the method of water/solution application for decontamination?
Portable sprayers
Portable showers
Hose streams (small diameter at low pressure)
What are the types of decontamination?
Passive (removal of clothing)
Dry
Wet
Cross Ventilation (electric fans preferred)
Combination of the above
What is the engine company assigned at each decon site?
Water supply
What is the truck company assigned at each decon site?
Cross ventilation, etc.
What is the PD assigned at each decon site?
Security and control
Decontamination crews should be rotated at no more than _____ intervals.
1 hour
What is critical to the success of the decontamination operation if lives are to be saved?
Speed and thoroughness (whole body decon)
During a heightened state of alert, station commanders shall ensure that all units in their quarters have the issued copy of _____ on board.
Jane’s Bio/Chem handbook
Upon recognizing that a situation is a WMD incident, the incident commander shall make sure that dispatch notifies whom?
County warning point
What is the county wide warning point’s number?
954-320-0520
What unit number is the aerial platform unit?
387
Known as the Platform
No one shall operate the platform vehicle unless they have been properly trained in _____.
Advanced Platform Operations
Driver operators that have not been trained in Advanced Platform Operations can and are expected to assist in what?
Operating the pump panel
When are firefighters allowed to operate the basket controls of the platform?
When supervised by a trained operator at the pedestal
Who is able to operate the turntable aerial controls?
Only trained driver and officers
No one shall operate the basket aerial controls during training or during an actual incident without what?
A trained operator positioned at the turntable control station
What must be worn when personnel are operating or climbing on the aerial?
Helmet and gloves
Including the turntable operator
Anyone climbing or operating in the basket shall wear what?
Safety belt
All personnel operating in the basket or operating from a fixed position on the aerial, must wear what?
Ladder belt
Whenever personnel are climbing the aerial or transferring in or out of the platform basket, what shall be activated?
Emergency stop button
Under normal conditions, the aerial shall not be operated any closer than _____ of distribution power lines.
25 feet
In exigent (life threatening) circumstances the aerial may operate within _____ but no closer than _____ to distribution power lines.
Within 25 feet, no closer than 10 feet
Whenever the aerial is operated less than 25 feet from distribution power lines, what must be in place?
Safety officer
Ensures no one approaches or touches apparatus
What wheels are chocked on the Platform?
Front wheels (front and rear of wheel)
When will the ladder company conduct a Pierce 50-hour Inspection?
First Sunday of each month
Any items requiring the checking of torque shall:
Not be conducted by SFRD personnel
Under normal situations, the basket may not be placed within _____ of a structure without what?
4 feet without an operator/spotter in the basket
The platform should operate at _____ when the basket is at close proximity to a structure.
Low idle
What are the movement capabilities of the platform?
Extension
Rotation
Elevation
Only one movement should be performed at a time except when?
Emergency situations
Who adds hydraulic fluid to the reservoir on the platform?
City garage
When can the ladder be retracted with water in the waterway?
If a discharge is opened at the tip or base of the ladder
If the platform is short jacked, the aerial should not be operated past what?
Longitudinal axis on the side that is short jacked
The platform will rarely do what?
Exceed posted speed limits, even when Code 3
What does Extend Ladder mean?
Reach out with ladder
What does Retract Ladder mean?
Return outstretched ladder
What does Raise Ladder mean?
Increase angle of elevation
What does Lower Ladder mean?
Decrease angle of elevation
What does Ladder Left mean?
Rotate ladder to pedestal operator’s left
What does Ladder Right mean?
Rotate ladder to pedestal operator’s right
When is the intercom system on the platform tested?
During daily check out
Initial stages of placing aerial into operation
If the intercom system test results are negative, what will be done?
Rely on portable radios for pedestal and basket communication
The aerial platform shall not be used to:
Force timbers or cornices
Pull or push objects
The use of forced entry into a structure or vehicle should only occur if:
Exigent circumstances exist
Law enforcement shall not be notified to assist with forcible entry unless what?
Potential scene safety hazard is present or other circumstance
What causes a poor public perception in regards to forcible entry?
Excessive damage
When are companies permitted to force entry at a medical emergency or medical alarm
Patient is visualized and incapacitated or unable to open door
Reasonable suspicion that a patient is incapacitated or unconscious
Neighbor has reason to believe occupant is having medical emergency
If forcible entry occurs and no patient or dangerous situation is found at a medical alarm or medical emergency, what happens?
Police department contacted for assessment and report
If forcible entry occurs and no patient or dangerous situation is found at a medical alarm or medical emergency, what happens?
Police department contacted for assessment and report
If forcible entry occurs and no hazardous situation is present at fire alarm or water alarm calls, who is notified?
Dispatch center
Who established the tactical paramedic program?
SFRD and SPD
What is the purpose of the tactical paramedic program?
Immediate EMS in potential hostile environment
The SWAT Medics will accompany the SPD SWAT team during:
Scheduled
Unscheduled
Training activities
Who determines when the SWAT medics will accompany the SWAT team?
SWAT team commander
The SWAT Medics will render medical care to whom?
Officers
Fire personnel
Victims
Civilians
The SWAT medic team members will operate under whom?
Law enforcement direction/command of SPD
The number of personnel assigned to the SWAT medic team will be determined by whom?
Fire Chief in conjunction with the Police Chief
Who is able to suspend or remove personnel from the SWAT medic team?
SWAT Team (commander) and/or Fire Chief
The activation of the SWAT Medic team will be the result of:
Unscheduled event/incident
Scheduled event
What is an example of an unscheduled event?
Hostage situation
What is an example of a scheduled event?
High risk warrant
When can SWAT Medic members be activated?
On-duty
Off-duty
Combination
The notification of activation for SWAT medic team members shall be done in accordance with the notification process of what?
SPD Policy and Procedures for the SPD SWAT Team
Upon being notified/activated, the SWAT medic Team Leader (or designee) will make contact with whom?
Deputy Chief of Operations (primary) 701.09
Duty Chief (secondary)
Who will the Deputy Chief of Operations (or Duty Chief) notify of the activation?
Battalion Chief
What is the utmost consideration of the SWAT team operation?
Safety of the team
Who may request a rescue unit to be staged for the duration or part of the SWAT operation?
SWAT Medic team
Who has the final say on the use of on-duty resources?
Deputy Chief of Operations (or Duty Chief)
Once assembled, the SWAT Medic team leader will make contact with FIRECOM to notify them:
That they are in-service
May request a tactical channel
Out of service when operation is completed
Fire rescue units will be dispatched to activated fire alarms based on what?
Type of alarm
Occupancy of the structure
Who responds Code 3 to multi-unit response to an activated fire alarm?
First-due fire unit
All others Code 1
Who is responsible for maintenance of the fire alarm/suppression system?
Owner
Per the Florida Fire Prevention Code
Who is responsible for resetting the activation of the fire alarm?
Owner
Who is responsible for proper functioning of the system?
Building management
Who is permitted to make repairs on fire alarm systems?
Fire alarm specialty electrical contractor
Electrical contractor
Fire sprinkler contractor
Others properly certified
Fire alarm systems are designed to function in what mode?
Trouble
Failure to achieve a reset of a trouble mode:
Does not require immediate repair
Notify FLS via fax or voice mail before shift is over
If a fire alarm is unable to reset in a multiple residential building and a repair cannot be effected, what happens?
Building management will be advised by the IC to provide a fire watch
IC shall contact FLS and advise Fire Marshal
Next business day if on weekend or holiday
Supplementing of private protection systems with fire department engine operations has proven imperative in:
Gaining control of fires
Reducing property damage
Area familiarization through _____ will allow personnel to be familiar with all structures that have private fire protection systems.
In-service inspections
Target hazard book use
The second arriving engine has the responsibility to supplement the standpipe/sprinkler system with what?
Additional water flow
Increase water pressure
The connection to the FDC should be made with:
dual 2 1/2” hose
Why are 2 1/2 hose used to connect to the FDC?
Increased pressures
Pre-fire planning is meant to reduce the loss of life and property as well as increase firefighter safety through:
Analysis of date
Construction features
Resource needs
Tactical applications
Who performs pre-fire plans?
Company officer and crew
Who assigns pre-fire plans?
Fire Marshal’s office
The structures and/or properties for Pre-fire planning shall be those which, in the event of fire:
Present large loss of life
Present large dollar loss
Present unusual or severe hazards
Contain complex layouts or obstacles
Require special tactical approach
Fire operations are influenced by factors such as:
Occupancy
Building construction
Location and size of fire
What is consistent with almost every structure fire?
Benchmarks and tasks
All functions of basic fire attack are directed toward either:
Saving lives or property conservation
If the initial arriving company has determined that all occupants have safely exited the structure, what will the second unit become?
RIT
Which structures require a secondary means of egress?
Multi-story
What are secondary actions that can be assigned by IC?
Utilities
Water supply
Ventilation
Secondary search
Salvage and overhaul
Who has empowered individuals to properly handle, track, store, distribute, and dispose of controlled substances?
Fire Chief, through the Office of the Medical Director
The framework for the controlled substance policy was developed by:
Ft. Lauderdale FR
Who is responsible for maintaining accurate records and evidence of compliance with controlled substances?
Administrative Deputy Chief or designee
Controlled substances are those substances defined by whom?
Medical Director
US Department of Justice DEA
Section 304 and 1008 of Controlled Substance Act of 1970
Florida Administrative Code Chapter 64E-2.037
Security of Medications and State of Florida Board of Pharmacy
Department of Professional Regulation
What are the controlled substances designated by our department?
Morphine Sulfate
Diazepam (Valium)
Midazolam (Versed)
Nitrous Oxide (Nitronox)
What is the definition of a vial?
Glass bottle containing controlled substance
What is the definition of a pre-filled syringe?
Glass/plastic container containing controlled substance
What is the definition of a container?
Hard plastic tubular container with “plug” cap that houses vial or syringe
What is the definition of a seal?
Numbered plastic fastener that secures vial in the container
What is the definition of a controlled substance log?
Form utilized for tracking and replacement of controlled substances
What is the definition of a controlled substance box?
Plastic box for storage of sealed controlled substance containers
Where does SFRD obtain its controlled substances?
Medical Director
The Department shall maintain records on file on controlled substances at:
The main location where the Department maintains controlled substances
All inventories and records of controlled substances shall be maintained for:
At least 2 years
What controlled substance should be maintained separately from other controlled substances?
Schedule II
What is a schedule II controlled substance?
Morphine Sulfate
What is a schedule III and IV controlled substance?
Diazepam
Midazolam
Nitrous
Who is responsible for maintaining complete, accurate, and up-to-date records for controlled substances
Support Services Division
What are the only licensed areas that controlled substances stored?
Public Safety Complex
ALS units
Medical Supply kits
How are controlled substances stored in the storage space?
In a locked safe
How are controlled substances stored on vehicles?
In on-board cabinet that is secured by a lock
Who is approved to handle controlled substances?
On-duty, state certified paramedics
Employee designated and approved by Fire Chief or Medical Director
For damaged or expired controlled substances, how is it returned to the EMS Shift Supervisor for replacement?
Vial removed
Placed in clear bio-hazard bag with seal and security container
Which controlled substance seal will be a different color from other controlled substances?
Nitrous oxide
Who has access to the written controlled substance log?
Only Captain or Rescue Lieutenants
If there are any confirmed problems found in the controlled substance log, who will be notified?
Made immediately to EMS Shift Supervisor via chain of command
Shift Supervisor shall notify BC and Administrative Deputy Chief
What color ink will the entries into the controlled substance log be?
Blue or black only
If a correction needs to be made in the controlled substance log, how is it corrected?
Single straight line drawn
Initialed and dated
Who shall participate in the controlled substance custody change/inspection on the ALS engine?
Both Captain and Paramedic
If captain is the paramedic, then D/O shall participate
When is the drug inventory done each day with the off-going and on-coming paramedic?
0805
Done face to face
The controlled substance logs shall be reviewed daily for what?
Accuracy of entry
Completion of information
Legibility of entries
When is the weekly review of the controlled substance log performed?
Every Sunday
Who performs the weekly controlled substance review?
First Rescue Lieutenant 702.05
Then station captain
Then EMS Shift Supervisor
The completed controlled substance log will be forwarded to whom?
Administrative Deputy Chief or designee via chain of command
Any unused medication must be disposed of in the presence of:
At least 2 personnel
One must be the officer of the rescue truck
Who authorizes changes in the amount of controlled substances carried?
EMS Medical Director and Fire Chief
Who will know the code to the padlock on the controlled substance box?
Crew and EMS Captain
If a controlled substance is used, what is returned to the EMS Shift Supervisor for replacement?
Vial
Seal
Container
What happens if there is an unexplained discrepancy in the count of controlled substance logbook and/or the controlled substance presents with an unacceptable condition?
Notify BC and EMS Shift Supervisor
EMS Shift Supervisor will respond to location
BC and Administrative Deputy Chief will be notified
What is the procedure for a missing, damaged, or tampered controlled substance?
Station Captain or Rescue Lieutenant will instruct crew not to touch anything
BC and EMS Shift Supervisor notified immediately
Unit taken out of service
Determine need for PD by BC, EMS, and Admin Deputy Chief
If tampering is suspected who makes the determination to request PD?
Chief Officer
The Chief Officer investigating the controlled substance tampering will submit the report to whom?
Administrative Deputy Chief
Who orders controlled substances?
Administrative Deputy Chief
How many controlled substances are on the rescue unit?
Quantity, dosage, and medication are listed on vehicle checkout 702.05
Approved by medical director
How many controlled substances are on the suppression unit?
Quantity, dosage, and medication are listed on vehicle checkout
Approved by medical director
What calls will the Battalion Chief have to respond to?
Mutual aid response excluding medical rescue calls
Monitor the safety of SFRD personnel
If the Battalion Chief has to leave the city for mutual aid, who will be notified and take over the duties of the Battalion?
Duty Chief
In the event of a recall, the Battalion is expected to telephone whom?
Dispatch and report availability
What are the primary responsibilities of EMS Captain on medical calls?
Oversee ALS and BLS patient care
Assume command
Command of Medical Branch on MCIs
What are the primary responsibilities of EMS Captain on fire calls?
IC Aide
Accountability Officer
RIT
Liaison
IMS division or group leader
Join up with other personnel to for a company
Who performs the responsibilities of the Duty Chief
Division Chief
What are responses that may warrant staff back up from the duty chief?
Major structure fires
Significant rescue responses
MCI
Special Operations
Situation taxing the existing command structure
Situation that warrants administrative duties
The in-service Duty Chief is to report to _____ when activated.
Communications Center to assist dispatch personnel
What calls are staff officers required to respond?
Typically not required to respond to emergency calls
Staff officers are to remain available for recall via:
Telephone and/or pager
In situations where immediate availability of the staff officer is impractical, what happens?
Contact with dispatch is not anticipated
In the event of a forecasted natural disaster, staff officers are to make contact with _____ in anticipation of a recall.
Headquarters
When is accepting a patients belongings determined to be appropriate?
Items or medication in patient’s best interest
Not likely to disrupt or compromise normal operations
Reasonable efforts to secure items were made
Patient not capable of being responsible and no family
Once a representative from the SFRD accepts custody of a patient’s belongings, it is imperative that:
Proper documentation indicates who and where items went
Where are items listed?
PCR
Once a representative from the SFRD accepts custody of a patient’s belonging what should documented?
Who and where the items were left with
All items should be inventoried and listed where?
PCR
What should be documented in the PCR regarding the patients’ belongings?
Hospital name
Person at the facility
What type of approach is needed to minimize injury to the victim and maintaining safety to companies during the extrication?
Systematic
What is the process of removing a vehicle from around a person?
Vehicle extrication
What term is a universal safety work used to STOP all activity on scene?
FREEZE
What signal can be used to FREEZE?
A hand or tap on the shoulder
What is the process of evaluating, controlling and rendering safe for exigent operations?
Stabilization
What is an area extending outward from the vehicle where rescue workers will determine the best course of action to remove an entrapped victim?
Action circles
The two areas surrounding the accident are called?
Inner and outer circle
What area is strategically located outside the action circle area that is accessible for all crew members on the emergency scene?
Tool Staging Area
Who should be advised of all Extended Extrications?
Dispatch
Who should complete the Outer Circle?
Company officers
Who should be tasked with completing the Inner Circle?
A firefighter
The vehicle should not be touched until the inner circle has been cleared of?
Energized outside source
When considering fire suppression at an extrication what should be deployed at a minimum?
A dry chemical extinguisher
What is preferred for fire suppression at an extrication?
1-3/4” hose line with foam capabilities
When stabilizing a vehicle during extrication, how far away should a smart key be removed?
At least 15 feet from vehicle
Orange and Bright Blue colored cables in a vehicle indicate what?
HIGH VOLTAGE
How much volts of direct current can high voltage cables carry?
750 volts
Where are hybrid vehicles most commonly marked?
In the rear
How long is the electrical drain down time for air bags?
30 secs to 20 mins
Side curtain air bags deploy how far?
5” to 10”
Steering wheel air bags deploy how far?
10”
Passenger air bags deploy how far?
20”
What are the acceptable means for stabilizing a vehicle?
Step chocks
Box cribbing
Struts (Rescue 42’s, Z-Mags, or similar)
Cargo straps
What should be considered after stabilization of the vehicle with cribbing?
Pulling valve stems
What unit can be considered for extra cribbing and special equipment?
TRT unit
A member of the FD should make entry into the vehicle to begin ______ and to protect the patient from any additional injury during the extrication process.
Patient stabilization
Tempered glass should be removed with:
Rescue hammer
Center punch
Glass master
Laminated glass should be removed with what?
Glass master or saws
Once glass is removed, remove all plastics on post to expose what:
Airbag cylinders
Airbag cylinders that deploy side impact airbags are compressed to what PSI?
Over 3000 psi
Before extrication begins what should be removed from the side crews will be working on:
Glass
Plastic
Seat belts
Where is Boron and Ultra Strength Steel (UHSS) most common found in a vehicle?
Posts
Roof rails
Rocker panels
What is the primary means to secure the Knox Key?
Knox Box Electronic key retrieval system
In the event of failure of the Knox Box System each unit is also equipped with a _____ securing system.
SupraSafe key
What should be done in the event a key is lost or found missing?
Battalion Chief notified immediately 702.09
Missing equipment formed completed
Who should be notified if the gate cannot be returned to normal function before leaving
On duty shift commander
The on duty shift commander should assign an _____ to restore the gate system as soon reasonably available.
Available unit
What is the response to the mall for a confirmed false alarm by mall security?
1E – single engine response
What is the response to the mall for a fire alarm?
1A – First alarm assignment
What is the response to the mall for a smell of smoke?
1A – First alarm assignment
What is the response to the mall for a smoke or fire showing?
1A – First alarm assignment, plus notification of duty chief
What is the response to the mall for a working fire?
1A – First alarm assignment, plus 2A – Two alarm fire
What are the fire scenario objectives of a Mall fire?
Minimize life endangerment by evacuating occupants using security
Locate, confine, and extinguish
Keep property damage to a minimum
What is the mission of the first arriving engine to the Mall?
Determine the extent of the emergency and to initiate actions to mitigate the emergency
What is the minimum equipment an engine company will bring into the Mall during a fire?
Forcible entry tools 703.01
High-rise kit
Hand lights
Why is the Company Officer at the Mall expected to transfer command as early as possible?
Limitations of command and limitations of radio communication
at is the mission of the first arriving rescue to the Mall?
Join first arriving engine and assist
The crew of the first arriving rescue should bring the following equipment for an incident at the Mall:
100 ft of 2 1/2 hose
Hand lights
Rope
When is the primary search of the immediate area of hazard at the Mall conducted?
After supplying fire attack group with equipment
What is the mission of the second arriving engine to the mall?
RIT and support entry team
In the absence of the Battalion Chief, who assumes command at the mall?
Second arriving engine
If the Battalion Chief is on scene at the mall, what does the second arriving engine prepare for?
RIT
What is the mission of the first arriving ladder at the mall?
Forcible entry and Search & Rescue
What type of ventilation may not be appropriate on the Mall?
Typical vertical ventilation
What makes ladder operations on the roof of the mall unnecessary and dangerous?
A good smoke removal system along with light weight construction
Where does the first arriving ladder park at an incident at the Mall?
Out of vehicle lanes and occupant exits
stream operations during the initial stages of a fire at the Mall should be directed at what?
Retarding flame spread
The ladder at the Mall fire may be repositioned to perform what function?
Ladder operations
Elevated observation post
What is the mission of the Rescue Lieutenant on a Mall fire?
Incident Commander’s Aide
What are the primary responsibilities of the Rescue Lieutenant?
Passport accountability
Mall liaison
Tactical work sheet monitor
What is the mission of the Battalion Chief at the Mall fire?
Incident Commander
The Incident Commander should establish communications with whom while at the mall fire?
Mall security
The Incident Command should request dispatch to contact _____ at a mall fire.
Water Department to increase water pressure
What can mall security be used for at a fire at the Mall?
Evacuation
Primary searches outside the immediate fire area for victims:
Come second to fire control
All tactics at the Mall fire are based on what?
Preventing loss of life
The first arriving engine and rescue companies should direct their efforts to what at the mall fire?
Locating and confining the fire
What should be established inside the mall for a fire?
Division Supervisor
Logistical staging area
Which type of operation has a poor outlook at a mall fire?
Drafting operations
Few locations and several hundred feet away
Due to the malls steel construction, radio interference may happen. What will need to be done to improve radio communication?
Use non-repeated channel
Mall security should be contact to:
Control HVAC
Use cameras to evaluate interior conditions
Obtain keys to doors and gates
Obtain dollies and carts for hose and equipment
Who is able to provide medical clearance of a patient?
Florida State Licensed physician
If police request for a patient to be medically cleared, what Who are able to apply a Baker Act?happens?
Patient is transported to nearest appropriate facility
Who are able to apply a Baker Act?
Licensed physicians and law enforcement
What is another name for OC Spray?
Pepper Spray
What does OC stand for in OC Spray
What is a lachrymatory agent?
Oleoriesin
Lachrymatory agentCapsicum
What type of agent is the OC Spray?
Chemical compound that stimulates corneal nerves in the eyes
Causes tears, pain, and temporary blindness
What does pepper spray cause to happen to patients?
Inflammation of mucous membranes
Closing of eyes
Difficulty breathing
Runny nose
Coughing
How long do the effects of OC Spray last?
Around 30 to 45 minutes
Diminished effects lasting for hours
What is another name for CN Gas?
Mace
What is the name of CN Gas?
Chloracetophenone gas
What type of agent is CN Gas?
Non-lethal irritant agency
What does the CN Gas contain?
Purified tear gas and chemical solvents that temporarily incapacitate a person
Causes eye and skin irritation
What is the most common effect of Mace?
Burning sensation on the area affected
Suffocating feeling if inhaled
What can minimize the effects of CN Gas/Mace?What is the duration of CN Gas/Mace?
Under the influence of alcohol or drugs
What is the durration of Mase?
30 minutes up to 2 hours
Depends on person and treatment
What is tear gas?
Non-specific term for any chemical that is used to cause temporary incapacitation through irritation of eyes and/or respiratory system
What are popular tear gases?
Eye irritants: CS, CN, and CR
Eye and Respiratory irritant: OC pepper spray
What is an ECD?
Electronic Control Device
Taser
The ECD/Taser causes an immediate loss of the person’s _____.
Neuromuscular control and ability to perform coordinated action
What events could happen prior to the ECD?
Excited Delirium
What is the definition of excited delirium?
A state in which a person is in a psychotic and extremely agitated stat
What are the causes of excited delirium?
Overdose on stimulant/hallucinogenic drugs
Drug withdrawal
Non-medicated psychiatric patients
Head trauma
Diabetic emergency
What is happening mentally to an excited delirium patient?
Unable to focus or process rational thought or focus
What is happening physically to an excited delirium patient?
Organs functioning at excited rate, begin to shut down
What are the symptoms of excited delirium?
Bizarre and aggressive behavior
Dilated pupils
High body temp
Incoherent speech
Inconsistent breathing pattern
Fear and panic
Profuse sweating, shivering, hyperthermia
High-risk situation of sudden death
What helps alleviate the discomfort of pepper spray or other chemical spray?
Copious amounts of water
According to medication manufacturer’s guidelines, medications should be stored at temperatures that range from _____.
55 to 85 F
Which vehicles have thermometers to check medication temperatures?
All ALS vehicles
Stored in medical box of front line trucks
When is the thermometer checked for the medications?
0800 and 1600
If a medication shows signs of extreme temperature, the medication should be removed and forwarded to whom?
EMS Division
The temperature check sheets shall be sent:
Inter-office 704.02
Monthly to Logistics
The department must decontaminate and disinfect in accordance with what?
OSHA Health Standard 1910.1030
Decontamination is the process of:
Cleaning an object, substance, or surface to remove soiled contaminants
What is the minimum protection for decontamination?
Gloves and eye protection
Disinfection is the method used to:
Destroy and prevent growth of disease carrying microorganisms
Viral or bacterial
What is the appropriate PPE for chemical protection when disinfecting
N95 mask
Gloves
Eye protection
What does OPIM stand for?
Other potentially infectious material
Surfaces that have become soiled must be decontaminated using what?
One-step germicidal detergent
What is the final disinfection step?
Byoplants Electrostatic Application System
Who is contacted to seek training to use the Byoplant?
EMS Captain
How is the application rates determined for the Byoplant?
Pre-established by department and manufacturer
What is the application rate for the Byoplant?
1 minute of spray per 500 sq/ft.
What is the objective to apply the product?
Wet sheen
Not a saturation, soaking, or running of chemical
When is the Byoplanet used on Engine and Rescues?
Occur weekly
Supply day or after suspected contamination
When is the Byoplant used on the Stations?
Quarterly
During station rotations or after contamination
Who can provide access to the Byoplanet?
Shift Battalion Chief or EMS Captain
A free standing ER is licensed by what state agency?
Agency for Health Care Administration (ACHA)
What is the premise when transporting a patient to a free standing ER?
Not likely to require:
Admission
Surgical
OB intervention
Other acute services
Fire Rescue companies will be dispatched based on what?
Type of incident reported
What is the turnout time?
60 seconds
What happens if units have not gone en route within 60 seconds?
Units will be “roll called”
After the primary company goes responding, what does dispatch do?
Add further information Repeat address and zone number
Who is responsible for securing the station when responding to a call?
Station commander
Who responds to an accident
1 Engine
What is the response for a Boat-marine fire?
1 Engine
1 Rescue
1 EMS
1 BC
If confirmed, an additional engine added
How many units respond to a commercial structure fire?
3 engines
2 rescues
1 ladder
1 EMS
1 BC
If confirmed, an additional engine added
What is the response to a vehicle fire?
1 engine 705.00
1 rescue
If confirmed, an additional engine added
How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 1?
1 engine
1 rescue
How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 2?
1 engine
1 rescue
1 ems
1 BC
How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 3?
3 engines
2 rescues
1 ems
1 BC
1 ladder
How many units respond on an explosion or fire bombing?
3 engines
2 rescues
1 EMS
1 BC
1 ladder
The following calls will have a GPSN1:
Boat – Marine Fire/Accident
Commercial/Residential structure fire
Dive call
Hazmat Incident
Drowning/Electrocution
Shooting/Stabbing
Aircraft Alert 1, 2, & 3
Bomb threat/Explosion/Fire Bombing
What is a GPSN1?
Global Page for Sunrise Fire Rescue Staff Members
Such as Duty Chief
Response assignments where a GPSN1 alert is indicated should automatically be sent by dispatch, this should require the IC to do what?
Confirm that the Duty Chief was advised
Additionally, any incident that may _____ should have dispatch instructed to alert the Duty Chief.
Large loss of life
Resident/occupant displacement
Areas of media concern
The response of the Battalion Chief is _____ during any incident.
Discretionary and optional
What type of responses fall under the authority of the on duty Shift Commander?
All, emergency, routine, and service delivery
The response of the EMS Captain is _____ during any incident.
Discretionary and optional
Who is responsible to relate a company to facilitate a more efficient deployment of resources in the event of further incidents? (move-up/relocation)
Responsibility of all parties
Who will insure that no two adjoining districts remain without emergency vehicle coverage?
Communication center
What happens when a ladder is not avalible to respond?
Additional engine is added
If the first arriving company sizes-up “nothing showing” what happens?
All other responding units slow to Code 1
Any company assigned to a Code 1 response shall immediately upgrade their response upon an initial report of what?
Smoke or fire showing
Information needing RIT, Rehab or comprehensive IMS
All personnel are eligible for Special Details except:
Exempt staff
Personnel on probation
Restricted by Fire Chief
Personnel on medical leave
Personnel on light duty
Personnel on administrative suspension
What is the primary method of signing up for details?
One general sign up day per month
Report to PSC
What are the hours of detail sign-up?
Start 0930
Ends no later than 1130
Detail slots that come available after the general sign-up will be filled by:
Station call
If sufficient time allows, typically considered _____, calls will be made station by station, shift by shift.
Greater than 72 hours
If the detail slot is being filled by station call, who is the first shift to be called?
Shift that was on duty during that particular sign up
If time does not allow, such as a last minute notification that a detail is required, how are slots filled?
Managerial discretion
If an employee that is signed up for a detail is now unable to do the detail, it is the responsibility to the employee to find:
An equally qualified replacement
Finalized by Detail Office
If an employee is scheduled to participate in a special detail and becomes ill and cannot do the detail, he must notify whom?
Detail Officer
Rescue Lieutenant
Or Battalion Chief
How and when will the ill employee contact the supervisors about not being able to do the detail?
Direct person-to-person contact
Minimum of 4 hours prior to starting time
Failure to comply with the detail obligation may result in removal from the detail list for a period of _____ for the first offense.
6 months
Failure to comply with the detail obligation may result in removal from the detail list for a period of _____ for the second offense.
1 Year
If a Rescue Lieutenant or Battalion Chief is notified that an employee cannot do the detail, they will secure a replacement using what?
Call list provided by Detail Officer
What type of system does SFR
Who handles the detail voucher system?D utilize for payment?
Voucher system
Who handles the detail voucher system?
Handled by the Detail Officer
Coordinated through City Finance/Payroll Department
When are SFRD personnel allowed to purchase food from the caterer?
Panther home games
When are SFRD personnel not allowed to purchase food from the caterer?
Concerts and other events that are catered
Caterer bills the promoter
Who is supposed to be at PSC at the time when detail personnel are supposed to arrive?
Rescue Lieutenant or Shift Battalion Chief if RL is not available
What uniform is used when on Special Details?
Class B
Unless advised by Detail Officer
When will detail personnel transport patients?
Extreme circumstances
Who is notified when the special detail is completed?
On-duty Rescue Lieutenant or Battalion Chief
Where is the Detail Unit returned after the detail is over?
Fire station or inside PSC rear compound
Who can request an Emergency Medical Services Standby?
Outside organization
Fire Chief
What is the staffing of an EMS Standby?
Minimum of 2 personnel
Sole discretion of the Fire Chief
What will help determine the number of personnel for an EMS standby?
Circumstances surrounding the need for EMS
Who has the authority to augment the minimum staffing of
Who determines the need for a firewatch detail?the EMS standby?
Fire Chief
Who determines the need for a firewatch detail?
Fire Chief or designee
If any member receives a complaint about a possible fire or life safety hazard after the hours of the Fire Marshal’s Office, who should the member notify?
Shift Commander immediately
The Shift Commander will attempt to gain compliance. If the Shift Commander believes that appropriate parties will not resolve the violation, who is notified?
On-call Inspector requested to respond
If the Inspector feels that the situation requires an immediate firewatch, he/she will contact whom?
Fire Chief or designee
If the Inspector and Fire Chief decide a fire watch is needed, an emergency fire watch shall commence with whom?
The Inspector while the shift commander arranges for relief
While performing the emergency fire watch, the inspector will establish what?
Handwritten, “individualized” procedures for the occupancy
Inspector will orally and physically review with relief
What are the steps that an individual will take should an incident occur on a fire watch detail?
Activate building alarm system and begin evacuation
Simultaneously notify Fire Dispatch
Supply brief description to dispatch and Shift Commander
If needed, offensive fire attack to aid occupant exiting building
Multi person fire watch details will be staffed with how many fire inspectors?
Not more than one unless unusual circumstance
If a fire watch requires more than one inspector, which inspector is the supervisor?
Fire Marshal will designate regardless of rank
When a Fire Inspector is needed on a multi-person fire watch, he/she will act as supervisor for what?
Code related matters
When will a fire watch detail require a supervisor?
More than 3 personnel
When a fire watch detail is required by code, the detail shall be under the direct control of whom?
Fire Marshal
What will be onsite for all fire watch details?
BLS kit
How is a fire watch detail terminated?
All paperwork completed and reviewed by Shift Commander if a representative of the FLS Division is not on site
What does MERC stand for?
Mobile Emergency Response Cart
Who determines the need for the MERC?
What is the staffing for the MERC?
Fire Chief or designee
What is the minnimum staffing for a MERC?
Minimum of 2 personnel
What does BERT stand for?
Bicycle Emergency Response Team
Who determines the need for the BERT?
Fire Chief or designee
What is the staffing for the BERT?
Minimum of 2 personnel
Who provides BERT training?
How will the Peak Hour Rescue Unit operate?
Training Division
How will the Peak Hour Rescue Unit operate?
Special detail 706.05
Monday – Friday: 0800-2000
Except city recognized holidays
Who may alter the schedule of the Peak Hour Rescue Unit at any time based on operational and staffing needs of the department?
Fire Chief or designee
How will the P-H Rescue be staffed?
LT and two FF/PM
LT and 1-FF/PM and 1-FF/EMT
The filling of the vacancies associated with the P-H Rescue will use what format and offered in what hour blocks?
Overtime
12 hour blocks
Where is the P-H Rescue assigned to and what is the unit identifier?
Station 72
Rescue 272
Who does the R272 report to while assigned to station 72
Station 72 Captain
During the hours of operation, R272 will be subject to relocation as any other fire rescue unit per?
Shift Commander
The unit will be housed at Sta. 72 at the beginning and ending of each shift, but may be relocated to another designated location based on operational needs as determined by?
Fire Chief or designee
Weekly maintenance, during which R272 and equipment will be cleaned will be scheduled for each ___ morning?
Wednesday
What personnel are not eligible to participate on R272?
Exempt staff
Personnel of recruit probation
Personnel on medical leave or light duty
Personnel on administrative suspension
Or restricted by Fire Chief
What is the primary method of signing up for R272?
Electronic scheduler (Kronos Telestaff)
Vacancies for R272 will be made available for sign up how many days in advance?
30 days
How far in advance will the vacancies for R272 be filled?
2 weeks
The electronic scheduler will notify personnel who have made themselves available for the special detail via?
Interactive voice response (IVR) system
Text message
If personnel who are assigned to a special detail have unexpected conflicts arise, a ____ replacement must be approved by notifying who?
Equally qualified
Operations Deputy Chief
If an individual does not report for their assigned detail, and fail to find an appropriate replacement, their ability to sign-up for further details will be _____ and the on-duty BC will follow what OPM?
Suspended
Lateness/AWOL
What procedure should be followed if an employee who is expected to participate in a Special Detail becomes ill and cannot fulfill their obligation?
Procedure for Calling in for Unscheduled Leave
Will the overtime list currently being maintained on FRD intranet page be affected by the accruals of overtime hours worked on R272?
No
What is the order in which Telestaff autofills a vacant officer seat on R272 for?
Lieutenant
Acting Lieutenant
Captain
Acting Captain
What is the order in which Telestaff autofills a vacant firefighter seat on R272 for?
2- FF/PM
1- FF/PM and 1- FF/EMT 706.05
Driver Operator
Lieutenant
Captain
Vacancies for R272 will be filled based on what two criterias?
Least amount of hours worked on R272
Seniority in each rank
All hours worked will be maintained where and reset when?
Electronically within the scheduling software
Reset to zero on January 1st at 0000 of each year
