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Capt. Exam > OPM'S 700 > Flashcards

OPM'S 700 Flashcards

1
Q

Sunrise Fire Rescue will achieve higher staffing levels for company operations by

A

Assuring adequate personnel are dispatched

Assembling engine, ladder, and rescue crews together to form working companies

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2
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that companies are assembled into working companies

A

Incident Commander

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3
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing on an engine?

A

3

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4
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing on the ladder?

A

2

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5
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing on a rescue?

A

2

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6
Q

What are the basic engine company responsibilities and operations?

A

Fire ground operations

Medical rescue

Hazard abatement

Non-emergency incident abatement

Equipment and station maintenance

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7
Q

Methodology for specific tasks performed by engines are described in SFRD’s:

A

Competency Based Driver Operator Performance Objectives

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8
Q

What is part of the Basic Offensive Plan for structure fires?

A

Size up and establish command

Determine victim rescue
Attack line for interior attack

Primary search

RIT

Additional support activities

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9
Q

What is the Basic Defensive Plan for structure fires?

A

Size up and command

Determine stopping point

Prioritize fire streams (2 1/2 and larger)

Maintain sufficient resources to control spread

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10
Q

Responses of an ALS engine, for medical purposes, will be dictated by what?

A

Response Assignment Strategy

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11
Q

Who initiates ALS treatment on the engine and advises Dispatch as for the need for a transport unit?

A

ALS engine paramedic

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12
Q

How does the transport unit respond to the scene when requested by the ALS engine?

A

Emergency

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13
Q

Who is responsible for transferring the “Primary Evaluation” form to the transport unit?

A

ALS engine paramedic

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14
Q

Who is responsible for contacting the appropriate medical facility on the engine company?

A

ALS engine paramedic

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15
Q

Who is the first choice in shutting down a unit to assist in transportation?

A

EMS Captain

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16
Q

Who is the first choice in engine personnel to supplement rescue staffing during transport?

A

Jumpseat firefighter

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17
Q

If the jumpseat firefighter is making a transport with the rescue unit, what happens with the engine?

A

Does not mandate removal from service

Advise dispatch of reduced staffing, on limited call basis

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18
Q

Does the engine follow the rescue to the hospital for the sole purpose of picking up the jumpseat firefighter?

A

Requires permission from the Shift Commander

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19
Q

Failure to immediately and willingly obey the orders of a supervisor represents what?

A

Insubordination

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20
Q

If an employee deviates from the medical protocols, what happens?

A

Employee must be prepared to document why it was necessary

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21
Q

While at an emergency scene or when dealing with the public in any situation, the greatest degree of _____ will be required.

A

Silence compatible with an efficient discharge of duty

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22
Q

What are specific tasks typically assigned to aerial companies?

A

Elevated master streams

Laddering a building beyond ground ladders

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23
Q

What are primary aerial company responsibilities and functions?

A

Elevated water streams

Salvage and overhaul

Secondary means of egress

Victim rescue

Ventilation

Laddering

Forcible entry

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24
Q

What are secondary functions of the aerial company?

A

Utility control

RIT

Engine company operations

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25
Q

Initial concerns for the aerial company on fire ground operations pertain to:

A

Apparatus positioning to perform aerial functions or

Staging out of vehicular travel lanes

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26
Q

Aerial company response are covered by:

A

Response Assignment Strategy and Basic Fire Attack

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27
Q

What is the rescue company composed of?

A

Firefighter/paramedics

Officers

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28
Q

What are basic rescue company responsibilities and operations?

A

BLS and ALS

Establish communications with medical facilities

Transport to hospital

Vehicle Extrication

Fire ground operations

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29
Q

Rescue company responses are covered by:

A

Response Assignment Strategy

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30
Q

As the first arriving unit at a non-medical scene, the following guidelines are in effect for the rescue company:

A

Size up

Prepare to perform all engine company functions

Advise via radio initial actions

Report availability to command

Establishing command is not recommended

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31
Q

As part of a multi-unit response to structure fire, what does the rescue do?

A

Prepare to perform all engine company functions

Report to command for orders

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32
Q

Who is considered first responders to a hazmat incident?

A

SFRD units, aside from Hazmat Team

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33
Q

What do operational concerns of the first responders deal with primarily?

A

Scene safety

Product identification

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34
Q

While en route to a hazmat incident, first responders should check with dispatch for additional information, particularly:

A

Material involved

Size of leak or spill

Possibility of immediate live endangerment

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35
Q

After the first responders at a hazmat incident identify situations that present immediate danger to life and isolate appropriately, what do they do next?

A

Evacuate all people (civilians, PD, FD)

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36
Q

First responders should attempt immediate rescue at a hazmat incident when the rescuers are:

A

Fully aware of the risk posed to them

Wearing full PPE and SCBA

Utilizing a bare minimum number of personnel

lf hazard is unknown or exceptionally life-threatening, wait for Hazmat team

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37
Q

First responders should identify the hazardous material by:

A

Consulting witnesses or facility personnel

DOT ERG as initial guide

Identifying type and size of container

Container lettering or markings

Shipping papers

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38
Q

When is a first responder able to mitigate the situation with units on scene of the hazmat incident?

A

Minor category I spills

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39
Q

What is used to report all hazardous material incidents to dispatch?

A

Uniform Classification System for Categorizing Hazardous Material Incidents

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40
Q

The cleanup and recovery of all spilled and leaked materials is the responsibility of whom?

A

Property/vehicle owner

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41
Q

What does SFRD do with spilled or leaked materials?

A

Will not take possession

Will not remove from scene

Will not take to City facility

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42
Q

What type of dive operations fall within the jurisdiction of the SFRD as stipulated in City Code?

A

Emergency victim rescue

Body recoveries

Personal property recoveries

Etc.

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43
Q

Assigned divers must have completed what courses?

A

Public Safety Diver

Dive Rescue I

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44
Q

Who assigns members to the dive team?

A

Fire Chief

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45
Q

When is the Dive Rescue component of the Special Response Team considered “in-service”?

A

When staffed with at least 2 divers

Preferably stationed with the apparatus

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46
Q

Dive team members who are physically or otherwise unable to perform dive duties shall report their status to whom?

A

Station commander

Who will inform the Shift Commander

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47
Q

What is checked out daily in regards to the dive team?

A

Mechanical operation of the dive response unit

Inventory of the dive response unit

Auxiliary equipment located on various apparatus

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48
Q

The documentation of all maintenance and check-outs of the dive equipment/unit shall be forwarded to whom?

A

Shift Commander

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49
Q

Who is able to drive the dive vehicle?

A

Dive team personnel or support personnel

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50
Q

Additional dive team personnel may be assigned from other units to support dive team operations at the direction of whom?

A

Battalion Chief

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51
Q

Who shall render a decision directing a recall of off-duty Dive Team personnel to assist in dive operations?

A

Battalion Chief

In consultation with Dive Rescue Coordinator or Dive Team members

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52
Q

What are the minimum personnel for dive operations?

A

2 dive team members

2 support personnel

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53
Q

When do personnel have to wear a personal flotation device?

A

When operating near water

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54
Q

Where are the specific guidelines for Dive Rescue team operations located?

A

SFRD Special Operations Manual

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55
Q

What is documented for all dive recovery activities?

A

Vehicle and owner information

This assists the Billing Department

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56
Q

When providing mutual aid for dive incidents, it is not the department’s normal practice to recover what?

A

Vehicles and other objects

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57
Q

Recovery operations can be:

A

Hazardous to SFRD divers 701.02

Time consuming

Tax SFRD equipment

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58
Q

Recovery operations can be:

A

Hazardous to SFRD divers

Time consuming

Tax SFRD equipment

Fees for recovery operations outside the City are:

Not recoverable

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59
Q

What stations have rapid entry dive gear assigned?

A

39, 59, 72 and 83

Remainder of dive cache on Dive 92

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60
Q

What is the Rapid Entry Dive Gear made up of?

A

Dive Tank

BC with built in weight and knife

Divator MKII dive Mask 1st stage regulator

2nd stage regulator

Dive light

Throw bag

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61
Q

What is the minimum capacity of the dive tank?

A

63 cu feet

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62
Q

What is included in the throw bag?

A

3 PFDs

Dive Rope

Center Punch

Secondary cutting device

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63
Q

What unit is the rapid dive entry dive gear stored?

A

Suppression unit

Moved back to Suppression unit at end of the shift

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64
Q

Where should the diver of the station be assigned?

A

Suppression unit

If assigned to Rescue, move gear to Rescue

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65
Q

Who is able to check out the dive gear?

A

Only department divers

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66
Q

What is the minimum pressure of the dive tank?

A

Not less than 2800 psi

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67
Q

How should the BC be checked for readiness?

A

Adjusted for individual diver size and weight added

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68
Q

Who is informed of a piece of dive equipment that is damaged or defective?

A

Station Captain

Along with Shift BC and Logistics Division

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69
Q

What is included in the department issued dive gear?

A

Wet suit

Fins

Gloves

Booties

Snorkel and mask

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70
Q

If a diver has a medical contraindication, who is notified?

A

Their supervisor immediately

Supervisor will notify the Shift BC

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71
Q

What does the diver conducted at the start of the shift?

A

Pre-dive neurological exam

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72
Q

On the Rapid Entry Dive Daily Checkout sheet, the divers at station 92 are to complete which part?

A

Personal Check only

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73
Q

What is critical during dive incidents?

A

Size up and information gathering

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74
Q

The first arriving officer is responsible for what?

A

Scene management

Last scene point

Witness interview

Overall safety of the operation

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75
Q

Where should the search pattern begin?

A

Where the witness last saw the person or object go in the water

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76
Q

How is the dive site prepared for entry?

A

Roof ladder placement into water

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77
Q

What is the bottom time for the diver

A

5 minuts

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78
Q

The Rapid Entry Diver shall be responsible for all:

A

Dive decisions

Dive safety

Confirming last scene point

Point of entry for the dive

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79
Q

Who has the final dive/no dive call?

A

Diver

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80
Q

The diver shall properly prepare for the rapid entry dive by completing the following:

A

Pre-dive gear checkout

Pre-dive neurological exam

No medical contraindications

Diver to tender communication

General scene safety

Verifying entry/exit time and pressure with tender

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81
Q

During the dive, the diver shall be responsible for the following:

A

Monitor air pressure and dive depth

Underwater scene survey

Victim retrieval

Constant communication with tender

Calling off the dive

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82
Q

The diver shall be responsible for the following post dive:

A

Post-dive neurological exam

Debrief the IC

Debrief the Dive team if operation goes longer than 5 minutes

Post-dive gear checkout

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83
Q

When the Dive Unit Rescue Divers arrive on scene, they shall be fully dressed and perform what?

A

Safety Diver and 90% diver

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84
Q

What are the possible weather conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?

A

Sunny

Cloudy

Overcast

Stormy

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85
Q

What are the possible surface conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?

A

Calm

Choppy

Rough

Stormy

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86
Q

What are the possible current conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?

A

None

Light

Medium

Heavy

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87
Q

What are the possible visibility conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?

A

Excellent

Good

Moderate

Poor

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88
Q

What is the visibility if the conditions are Excellent?

A

> 20 feet

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89
Q

What is the visibility if the conditions are Good?

A

10-20 feet

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90
Q

What is the visibility if the conditions are Moderate?

A

3-10 feet

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91
Q

What is the visibility if the conditions are Poor?

A

< 3 Feet

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92
Q

What is the PSI when the diver should be recalled to the surface?

A

1000 psi

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93
Q

What is the maximum dive time when the diver should be recalled to the surface?

A

20 minutes

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94
Q

Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 1 pull =

A

Ok or Nothing

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95
Q

Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 2 pulls =

A

Change direction

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96
Q

Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 3 pulls =

A

Surface

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97
Q

Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 4 pulls =

A

Stop don’t surface

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98
Q

Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 1 pull =

A

Ok or nothing

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99
Q

Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 2 pulls =

A

Need more line

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100
Q

Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 3 pulls =

A

Found object

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101
Q

Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 4 pulls =

A

Trouble

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102
Q

What does an USAR activation mean?

A

Formal request to mobilize and respond

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103
Q

During an activation, members are to arrive at a designated point-of-departure within _____ of being activated.

A

6 hours

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104
Q

What does an USAR alert mean?

A

Formal notification that an event has occurred and activation may be pending

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105
Q

Who is the sponsoring jurisdiction of the South Florida USAR Task Force?

A

City of Miami Fire Department

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106
Q

Who determines membership into the USAR Task Force?

A

Sole discretion of sponsoring jurisdiction, City of Miami

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107
Q

SFRD personnel who are active members of the Task Force must do what to be considered for activation status?

A

Request and receive permission in writing from the Fire Chief

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108
Q

When is USAR training done?

A

Off-duty time

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109
Q

In the event of a USAR alert, who and how are they notified?

A

Responsibility of the team member to notify the Shift Commander without delay

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110
Q

In the event of a USAR activation, who and how are they notified?

A

Responsibility of the team member to notify Shift Commander immediately

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111
Q

If USAR is activated what happens with the on-duty members?

A

Remain on operational duty until relieved by the shift commander

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112
Q

Alterations of hours of duty of personnel and overtime hours are to be reported to the _____ by the shift commander.

A

Administrative officer

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113
Q

Upon the deactivation of USAR, team members shall do what?

A

Immediately advise Shift Commander of their ability to return to duty

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114
Q

Who is notified of all USAR activations?

A

Fire Chief notified by the Shift Commander

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115
Q

Engine and Rescue company involvement in technical rescue incidents is limited to what?

A

Recognition and specialty team support roles

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116
Q

What is of paramount importance on technical rescue incidents?

A

Recognition of the potentially dangerous situations

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117
Q

What leads to injury or death to rescuers on technical rescue incidents?

A

Actions taken by improperly trained and under equipped rescuers

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118
Q

What is a priority for a technical rescue incident?

A

Early recognition for the need of Specialty Teams

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119
Q

What additional resources should respond to a technical rescue incident?

A

Battalion Chief

Safety Officer or Operations Division Chief

ALS rescue

Specialty Teams

Mutual aid

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120
Q

What is a confined space?

A

Area which is not intended for continual human occupancy

Have limited means of egress

Potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment

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121
Q

The effective rescuing of victims from these types of areas often requires the combination of _____ for mitigation.

A

Specialized tools and techniques

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122
Q

What is a trench rescue?

A

Narrow excavation made below the surface 701.04

Depth greater than width but no greater than 15 feet (measured at bottom)

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123
Q

What is required to effect victim rescue from a trench?

A

Specialized training and tools

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124
Q

What is considered a non-technical evacuation?

A

Less than 40 degrees inclination

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125
Q

What is considered a technical evacuation?

A

Greater than 40 degrees inclination

Rough terrain that requires specific technical training

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126
Q

How many phases are there in a technical rescue operation?

A

5

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127
Q

What is phase I of the technical rescue operation?

A

Scene preparation and reconnaissance

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128
Q

What is step 1 of Phase I of the technical rescue operation?

A

Assessment

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129
Q

Command will have to send a recon team to determine what at a technical rescue operation?

A

Exact location

Number of patients

Nature of injuries

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130
Q

How many personnel are on the recon team?

A

Minimum of two

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131
Q

What equipment should be carried by the recon team?

A

Medical equipment

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132
Q

The decision to wait for TRT to arrive to a technical incident should be based on what?

A

Risk/benefit factor

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133
Q

What can be used for aerial recon?

A

Helicopter

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134
Q

What is step 2 of Phase I of the technical rescue operation?

A

Manpower and Equipment

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135
Q

Information that will be helpful in determining the need for additional resources would be:

A

Number of victims

Location and conditions of victims

Estimated angle of terrain

Distance to victim

Estimated time of evacuation

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136
Q

Command shall designate a safety group to identify _____.

A

All potential hazards

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137
Q

The Safety Group usually consists of what?

A

One member of TRT

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138
Q

What is left in place if the operation will be conducted in the Recovery mode?

A

Leave victim and related equipment in place for investigation

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139
Q

What is Phase II of the Technical Rescue Operation?

A

Pre-Rescue Operations

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140
Q

What are the three steps of the Phase II Pre-Rescue Operations?

A

Make the general area safe 701.04

Make the rescue area safe

Pre-rescue/recovery

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141
Q

What is Phase III of the Technical Rescue Operation?

A

Rescue Operation

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142
Q

Rescue operations should be conducted from _____.

A

Low risk to high risk

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143
Q

How many attendants will be used to remove a victim in a stokes basket?

A

Minimum of 4

Face the direction of travel

Face direction of anchor for steep angle evacuation

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144
Q

What is considered a high angle operation?

A

60 degrees

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145
Q

What is the safety factor for the rope system?

A

15:1

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146
Q

What type of rope technique should be used?

A

Double rope technique

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147
Q

What is considered a high risk operation?

A

Helicopter operations

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148
Q

What factors must be decided prior to using a helicopter?

A

Time of day

Condition of victims

Difficult access to the victims

Qualifications of the pilot and rescuers

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149
Q

What is Phase IV of the Technical Rescue Operation?

A

Safety Considerations

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150
Q

What is the protective clothing that will be worn by all rescue personnel at a technical rescue operation?

A

Helmet

Gloves

Harnesses

Eye protection

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151
Q

When is the consideration for CISM debriefing done?

A

Phase IV: Safety Considerations

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152
Q

What is Phase V of the Technical Rescue Operation?

A

Termination

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153
Q

Where is a team briefing/post incident analysis conducted after a technical rescue operation?

A

On site or at station

As soon as possible

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154
Q

What will the rescuers of a technical rescue operation go through on scene or at the station?

A

Psychological “debriefing”

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155
Q

What are the reasons that a structural collapse or failure may happen?

A

Natural occurrences

Fire or explosion

Human factors

Engineering errors

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156
Q

What is an example of a natural occurrence that could cause a structural collapse or failure?

A

Hurricane

Tornado

High wind conditions

Earthquake

Floods, etc.

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157
Q

What is an example of a human factor that could cause a structural collapse or failure?

A

Accidental undersigned impact (airplane/vehicle)

Intentional malicious damage

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158
Q

What is an engineering error that could cause a structural collapse or failure?

A

Poor design

Poor connections

Poor construction or materials used

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159
Q

What is Phase I of the Structural Collapse incident?

A

Scene preparation and reconnaissance

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160
Q

The first due Technical Rescue Team Officer shall obtain information from who that is on scene?

A

Company Officer

Battalion Chief

Structural engineer

Job site foreman

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161
Q

What is Step 1 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Assessment

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162
Q

What is the size of the safety zone on a structural collapse incident?

A

Two times the height

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163
Q

If you cannot obtain blueprints or maps, what can be done?

A

On-site personnel draw a sketch

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164
Q

The first due engine companies shall stretch hose lines to the collapse site to protect what?

A

Exposures from fire or explosion

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165
Q

What is Step 2 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Manpower and equipment

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166
Q

Which department is FL Task Force 1?

A

Metro

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167
Q

Which department is FL Task Force 2?

A

Miami

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168
Q

Which type of engineers should respond to a structural collapse incident?

A

Structural

Water

Gas

Electrical

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169
Q

What units should respond to the structural collapse incident?

A

Full structural response

Multiple ALS rescue units and ambulances

Cascade truck

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170
Q

What is step 3 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Make the General Area Safe

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171
Q

Who is assigned as the access control person?

A

Not a technical rescue team member

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172
Q

How should the structural collapse area be ventilated?

A

Positive pressure

PPV may not work as needed

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173
Q

How do you assess the effectiveness of proper ventilation?

A

Atmospheric monitor reading

Type of configuration of the space, void, and crevice

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174
Q

Who is able to determine that the structure and/or atmospheric readings have become unsafe at a structural collapse?

A

Incident commander

Structural engineer

And/or Safety Officer

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175
Q

What is Step 4 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Structure/Hazard Evaluation Marking System

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176
Q

The structure/hazard evaluation markings should be performed prior to:

A

Rescue operations

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177
Q

How big is the square that the TRT personnel will mark on the entrance?

A

2’ x 2’

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178
Q

What color is the spray paint used in structural collapse?

A

Orange only

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179
Q

What does a blank box indicate?

A

Structure is accessible safe for search

Damage is minor or completely pancaked

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180
Q

What does a box with a single slash indicate?

A

Significantly damaged

Some areas safe, but other needs shoring

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181
Q

What does a box with a crossing slash indicate?

A

Not safe for search

Remote search can proceed at significant risk

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182
Q

What does an arrow next to a marking box indicate?

A

Direction of safe entrance

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183
Q

What does the symbol “HM” indicate near a marking box?

A

Hazardous material condition

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184
Q

What is step 5 in Phase 1 of the structural collapse incident?

A

Entry Preparation

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185
Q

Who should be a part of each entry and rescue team?

A

At least one paramedic

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186
Q

Structural collapse entry teams shall be equipped with:

A

1 member with portable radio

Explosion-proof lighting or cyalume

Atmospheric monitoring, personal units preferred

Proper protective gear

Coveralls

Nomex

Appropriate footwear

Hearing and eye protection

Helmet

Gloves

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187
Q

What is Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Exploration and Search

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188
Q

What is Step I of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Search Assessment Marking

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189
Q

How big is the ‘X’ drawn for the structural collapse incident?

A

2’ x 2’

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190
Q

The ‘X’ will be constructed in two operations. The single slash will be drawn when?

A

Upon entry 701.04

Means search in progress

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191
Q

The ‘X’ will be constructed in two operations. The crossing slash will be drawn when?

A

Upon completing the search and exit of structure

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192
Q

When will the markings inside the ‘X’ be written?

A

At the time of this assessment

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193
Q

What is written in the left quadrant of the ‘X’?

A

Rescue team completing search

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194
Q

What is written in the top quadrant of the ‘X’?

A

Time and date members left structure

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195
Q

What is written in the right quadrant of the ‘X’?

A

Personnel hazards

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196
Q

What is written in the bottom quadrant of the ‘X’?

A

Number of live and dead victims removed

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197
Q

How are the locations of where the victims were found noted?

A

Orange spray paint to make exact location

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198
Q

What is Step II of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Entry

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199
Q

Entry decisions shall be made based on what?

A

Known locations of victims

Safety of the opening

Atmospheric readings

Ease of recovery points

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200
Q

If the location of the victim is known or suspected, how many entry points should be attempted

A

Two separate points

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201
Q

Prior to entry of a structural collapse, each member shall be logged on to what?

A

Technical Rescue Documentation sheet

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202
Q

Teams shall be rotated frequently depending on what?

A

Physical activity

Stress

Fatigue

Weather conditions

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203
Q

Each technical team shall be assigned to rehab upon removal from the space until what?

A

Rehydration and vital signs are within normal limits

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204
Q

What should be done once inside the void or space of a structural collapse incident?

A

Interior team communication

Communications with operations exterior

Make entry points or patterns with chalk, spray paint, lumber crayons to egress

Move as a team

Beware of elevation and unstable footing

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205
Q

Before deciding which victims should be rescued first, what should be considered?

A

Victim condition

Position

Difficulty extricating

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206
Q

How should debris be removed when working close to a victim?

A

By hand

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207
Q

When a buried victim is discovered alive in a collapse after house of work, what is done with the body?

A

Do not remove unless secondary collapse, fire, electrocution, or drowning is imminent

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208
Q

What is Part III of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Search and Rescue of Surface Victims

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209
Q

What percentage of victims are found on top of debris or lightly buried?

A

50%

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210
Q

What is Step 4 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Locating Casualties using the Hailing system

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211
Q

How are rescuers positioned when using the hailing system?

A

In calling and listening positions

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212
Q

Once a sound is picked up using the hailing system, what else should be attempted?

A

One additional fix from another angle

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213
Q

What is the signal for cease operation/All quiet?

A

1 long blast (3 seconds)

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214
Q

What is the signal for evacuate the area?

A

3 short blasts (one second each)

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215
Q

What is the signal for resume operations?

A

1 long and 1 short blast

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216
Q

What is Step 5 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Void Searches

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217
Q

Where are voids located inside a collapsed structure?

A

Strong or sheltered parts of a structure

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218
Q

What can be considered as survivable voids?

A

Normal transportation corridors

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219
Q

How do personnel progress into voids?

A

Least damaged into the most damaged

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220
Q

What is Step 6 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Breaching

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221
Q

Where are reinforced concrete columns or filled cells typically found in homes?

A

Corners and adjacent to window and door openings

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222
Q

What is Step 7 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Emergency Shoring

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223
Q

The size and type of shoring will be dependent on what?

A

Weight to be supported 701.04

Condition of element to be supported

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224
Q

How much does concrete/masonry weigh?

A

125-150 lbs per cubic foot

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225
Q

How much does normal concrete floor weigh?

A

100-150 lbs per square foot

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226
Q

What should be checked prior to shoring?

A

Base

Foundation

Ground conditions

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227
Q

Shoring systems should act like what?

A

Double funnel

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228
Q

What is the maximum length of a shore?

A

No more than 50 times its width

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229
Q

Cribbing limitations are based on _____ cross grain bearing.

A

500 psi

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230
Q

Failure due to crushing of cross grain wood is:

A

Slow and noisy

Gives warning to rescuers

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231
Q

Cribbing’s lateral stability is dependent on what?

A

Width to height ratio

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232
Q

What is the rule of thumb for building crib boxes?

A

3 times as high as width

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233
Q

What is the capacity of 4x4 crib (2 layer):

A

24,000 lbs

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234
Q

What is the capacity of 4x4 crib (3 layer):

A

48,000 lbs

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235
Q

What is the capacity of 6x6 crib (2 layer):

A

60,000 lbs

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236
Q

What is the capacity of 6x6 crib (3 layer):

A

135,000 lbs

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237
Q

What are the two types of wood used for cribbing?

A

Douglas Fir

Southern Pine

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238
Q

What is the safety factor for wood cribbing?

A

2 to 1

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239
Q

What is Phase III of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Patient Removal

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240
Q

What are the preferred methods of victim removal from a collapse?

A

Mechanical advantage systems

Manual winches

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241
Q

What is Phase IV of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

General Debris Removal

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242
Q

How is general debris removed?

A

Heavy machinery

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243
Q

What is Phase V of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Safety Considerations

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244
Q

What is the proper protective clothing for a structural collapse?

A

turnout clothing or flame retardant jumpsuit

Gloves

Helmet

Safety glasses or goggles

Hearing protection

Mask

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245
Q

When are lock out/tag out procedures done?

A

Phase V Safety Considerations of the Structural Collapse Incident

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246
Q

When is a safety analysis performed on a structural collapse incident?

A

Every 30 minutes

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247
Q

When is CISM considered in a structural collapse incident?

A

Phase V Safety Considerations

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248
Q

What is Phase VI of the Structural Collapse Incident?

A

Termination

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249
Q

Who is responsible for sealing entry points to ensure no additional entries are made?

A

Contractor or responsible party

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250
Q

When will the workers of a structural collapse go through a psychological debriefing?

A

After each work period or shift

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251
Q

What is the definition of a structural collapse?

A

Loss of structure’s integrity causing the collapse

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252
Q

Specific operational guidelines for the Specialty Team members specific to the type of emergency are provided in detail in the _____.

A

SFR Special Operations Manual

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253
Q

To be a member of any specialty team, all personnel must:

A

Complete recognized course

Request in writing for admittance

Receive approval from Fire Chief

Remain in good standing through drills and training

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254
Q

Who has overall responsibility on all Technical Rescue Operations?

A

Battalion Chief

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255
Q

What is a high-rise defined as?

A

Cannot reach fire via normal pre-connected lines

Cannot reach via hoisting

Where standpipes must be used

Building with internal hallways over two stories

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256
Q

The construction of most high-rise buildings effectively shields what?

A

Interior from the outside

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257
Q

What is secondary in urgency in most high-rise situations?

A

Establishing command outside the structure

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258
Q

What is the most prudent command option at a high-rise situation?

A

Passing of command by first arriving officer to next arriving officer

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259
Q

How large is the hazard zone at a high-rise incident?

A

200 feet

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260
Q

Who is supposed to remain clear of the hazard zone?

A

Civilians

Police

Non-essential firefighting personnel

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261
Q

All personnel, civilians, and FD personnel must remain at least _____ away from hose lines supplying the building Siamese.

A

50 feet

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262
Q

Who should be assigned as quickly as possible to the firefighting level of a confirmed fire?

A

Chief Fire Officer 701.05

Division XX

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263
Q

Once attack companies have confirmed an actual fire on an upper floor, Command must be concerned with what?

A

Additional resources

Provide life safety

Provide water supply

Size up conditions

Assign RIT

Provide support systems

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264
Q

Who is responsible for establishing lobby control?

A

Driver of the first arriving engine

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265
Q

What is Lobby Control equipped with?

A

Full bunker gear with SCBA

Portable radio

Knox box key

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266
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining elevator control?

A

Lobby control?

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267
Q

Who is responsible to record names and passports of firefighting personnel going up into the building?

A

Lobby Control

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268
Q

The National Elevator Code calls for elevators to _____ upon activation of fire detection system components.

A

Automatically return to building lobby

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269
Q

What can quickly disable elevators?

A

Water from sprinkler systems and firefighting streams

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270
Q

When should a firefighter not take an elevator to a floor?

A

Reported fire

Smoke odor

Alarm activation

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271
Q

The elevator can be used in what mode?

A

Fireman Service mode

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272
Q

How are firefighters supposed to be equipped when utilizing elevators during an emergency?

A

Fully bunkered out

SCBA tank on

Prepared to don SCBA face piece

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273
Q

Where should the elevator be stopped at an emergency?

A

2 floors below

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274
Q

All crews riding in elevator during fire emergencies shall be equipped with:

A

ull bunker gear/SCBA
Forcible entry equipment

Radio

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275
Q

During the initial fire attack, who should proceed to the fire area?

A

At least two companies

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276
Q

Where will companies set up for operation at a high rise?

A

Floor below the incident

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277
Q

Where are firefighting hose lines connected in a stairwell?

A

Not on the same floor or above

Except in a true smoke tower stairwell

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278
Q

Pump operators shall delivery _____ fire flow to the attack line.

A

Minimum of 150 gpm

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279
Q

If fire has already extended into an interior hallway, fire officers should what?

A

Seriously consider the deployment of a backup line prior to fire attack

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280
Q

Fire attack in a high-rise should never begin until what is verified?

A

A sustained water supply

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281
Q

When will firefighters use the hose in the hose cabinets?

A

Extreme circumstances

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282
Q

What should be deployed when it is obvious that the fire has gained considerable headway?

A

2.5” attack line to the fire area

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283
Q

Who will determine the urgency of supplementing a building’s water supply?

A

Command

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284
Q

Dry standpipe systems require what?

A

Urgent and immediate supplementation

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285
Q

Which buildings require less urgency in supplying the system with a water supply?

A

Wet standpipes and internal pumps

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286
Q

What is not used to supply the standpipe/sprinkler system?

A

Large diameter (4” & 5”)

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287
Q

The driver operator shall deliver a minimum of _____ operating from standpipes.

A

150 gpm to all 1.75”

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288
Q

Driver operators conducting pump evolutions within _____ of a building with a confirmed fire must wear helmet and bunker coat.

A

100 feet

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289
Q

The ladder company should ascend to the top of the stairwell:

A

Looking for and opening any roof hatches for vertical ventilation

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290
Q

Personnel assigned to stairwell support should station themselves:

A

On every other floor

Remove bunker gear to reduce heat stress

Should not travel more than 2 flights

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291
Q

When is a Base Staging Area required?

A

Extended firefighting operation above a third floor

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292
Q

What is the radio designation for the Base Staging Area?

A

Base

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293
Q

Where is the base staging area established?

A

Two floors below the fire floor

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294
Q

Where is the RIT deployed to for staging?

A

Stairwell of the floor immediately below fire floor

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295
Q

Unless otherwise directed by Command, who assumes the role of RIT?

A

Third arriving engine

296
Q

A RIT crew shall remain operational at a high-rise until the environment in the building has been:

A

Reduced to no longer dangerous to life and health

297
Q

When shielding from a building does not allow for units to communicate with the outside command, communications should be relayed to the outside via:

A

Lobby Control or operate on a separate channel

298
Q

What is the mission of the first arriving engine and rescue?

A

Assess conditions on fire floor and prepare for fire attack

299
Q

What does the Officer of the first arriving engine bring on a high rise?

A

Hand light

Elevator keys

Utility line

300
Q

What does the driver of the first arriving engine do?

A

Report to Lobby with knox box keys

301
Q

What does the firefighter of the first arriving engine bring?

A

High rise kit

302
Q

What do the firefighters of the first arriving Rescue bring?

A

Extend-A-bag

Hand light

Rabbit tool

Irons

303
Q

What does the officer of the first arriving ladder bring?

A

Hand light

Elevator keys

Irons

304
Q

What does the driver of the first arriving ladder bring?

A

Pike pole

Utility line

305
Q

What does the firefighter of the first arriving ladder bring?

A

Rabbit tool

2 spare SCBA bottles

306
Q

What is the mission of the second arriving engine and rescue?

A

Report to floor below fire and prepare to support attack crew

307
Q

What does the officer of the second arriving engine bring?

A

Hand light

Elevator keys

Spare SCBA bottle

308
Q

What does the driver of the second engine do?

A

Drop off crew, proceed to support standpipes

309
Q

What does the firefighter of the second arriving engine bring?

A

High rise kit

310
Q

What do the firefighters on the second arriving rescue bring?

A

Extend-A-bag 701.05

Hand light

2 spare SCBA bottles

311
Q

What is the mission of the third arriving engine?

A

Report to command, obtain TIC, prepare to serve as RIT floor below

312
Q

What does the officer of the third arriving engine bring?

A

Thermal imager

Search rope

Hand light

Elevator keys

313
Q

What does the firefighter of the third arriving engine bring?

A

Irons

Spare SCBA bottle

314
Q

High-rise property can be exposed to extraordinary property loss due to:

A

Water and smoke damage

315
Q

What is used to repack the high-rise pack?

A

Return to station and utilize dry hose

316
Q

How is the used high-rise pack hose dried?

A

Accordion folded on bay floor

Hung in hose tower

317
Q

What does the metro load high rise kit consist of:

A

100ft of 1 3/4” attack line

1 TFT breakaway nozzle

Gated wye

318
Q

t did the 50ft extend-a-bag replace?

A

Short section of 2 1/2

319
Q

Who are viable targets for terrorism?

A

Emergency response personnel

320
Q

Who may advise public safety agencies to be on a heightened state of alert?

A

Local, state, federal agencies

321
Q

Who may wish to place the SFRD on a heightened state of alert?

A

Fire Chief or designee

322
Q

During a heightened state of alert, what happens with the bay doors?

A

Closed at all times unless crew in bay

323
Q

If the ownership of a vehicle in the parking lot cannot be ascertained with the assistance of the police department, who will be notified?

A

Duty shift commander

324
Q

Where are training WMD kits located?

A

Training division

325
Q

Which units will have WMD kits issued?

A

In service rescue and engine companies

326
Q

How many WMD kits does the rescue unit have?

A

2 sets of PPE

327
Q

How many WMD kits does the engine have?

A

3 sets of PPE

328
Q

What does each WMD PPE kit contain?

A

1 Scott cartridge adapter

1 NBC air purifying cartridge

1 pair of silvershield gloves

Hood saramex splash resistant coverall

329
Q

What boots are to be used with the EMD PPE kit?

A

Structural firefighting boots

330
Q

What level of protection does the WMD PPE kit and structural firefighting boots provide?

A

Level C

Protection against solids, particulates, mists, and light splashes

331
Q

What level of protection does the WMD PPE, structural boots, and an SCBA provide?

A

Level B

When higher levels of respiratory protection are needed

332
Q

The WMD kits are designed to protect rescuers who operate in the:

A

Warm zone only

333
Q

The WMD kits are designed to protect rescuers who operate in the:

A

Warm zone only

334
Q

The WMD kit was never designed to permit entry into a Hot Zone without stringent:

A

Monitoring and positive identification and confirmation of substance

335
Q

The WMD kits are designed to protect the rescuer against what type of contamination?

A

Residual on victims who are being:
Decontaminated

Triaged

Treated in warm zone

336
Q

The NBC cartridge is very effective against what contaminants?

A

Nuclear and biological

337
Q

The NBC cartridge has a particulate matter efficiency of _____.

A

99.997%

338
Q

The NBC cartridge filters out particles greater than _____.

A

0.3 microns

339
Q

How big are Anthrax spores?

A

From 3 to 10 microns

340
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against a variety of _____ compounds.

A

Organic and inorganic chemical

341
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Ammonia at:

A

500ppm

342
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Nerve Gases at:

A

1000 ppm

343
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against hydrogen cyanide at:

A

4000 ppm

344
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Benzene at:

A

50 ppm

345
Q

What are considered nerve gases?

A

Sarin

Tabun

VX

346
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Chlorine at:

A

5000 ppm

347
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Hydrogen Chloride at:

A

1000 ppm

348
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Sulfur Dioxide at:

A

300 ppm

349
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Phosgene at

A

2000mg/m3

350
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Hydrogen Sulfide at:

A

5000 ppm

351
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against Chloropicrin at:

A

5000 ppm

352
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against what type of gas?

A

Tear gases/riot control agents

353
Q

The duration of the NBC cartridge effectiveness for particulate screening:

A

Several days

354
Q

The duration of the NBC cartridge effectiveness for chemical exposure:

A

Varies widely

355
Q

What are factors affecting the useful life of the NBC cartridge?

A

Temperature

Humidity

Concentration of the challenge chemical

356
Q

NBC cartridges are expected to provide a minimum of _____ protection against _____ chemical exposure.

A

6-8 hours

Secondary (residual)

357
Q

What is not single use/disposable in the WMD kit?

A

Mask

Cartridge adapter

Boots

358
Q

Under normal situations, decontamination is performed and/or directed by:

A

Hazardous materials teams

359
Q

During WMD events, decontamination may be performed by:

A

Engine/rescue companies

360
Q

What type of gloves should be used by the engine company when performing decon?

A

Butyl gloves

361
Q

How are the casualties separated during decon?

A

Asymptomatic

Symptomatic

Non-ambulatory

362
Q

Which casualties will be immediately decontaminated?

A

Casualties who have liquid agent on skin and/or clothing

363
Q

What is the decontamination mixture?

A

1 part household bleach to 9 parts water = 0.5% solution 701.06

Full strength household bleach = 5% solution

364
Q

What is the 0.5% solution used on?

A

Skin decon

365
Q

What is the 5% solution used on?

A

Clothing and equipment decon

366
Q

What is the chemical for “dry chlorine” granules?

A

Calcium hypochlorite

367
Q

What is the concentration for the dry chlorine mixture?

A

1 ounce of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 0.5% solution

10 ounces of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 5% solution

368
Q

What is the water temperature for decontamination?

A

Between 60 and 70F

Between 16 and 21C

369
Q

What is the method of water/solution application for decontamination?

A

Portable sprayers

Portable showers

Hose streams (small diameter at low pressure)

370
Q

What are the types of decontamination?

A

Passive (removal of clothing)

Dry

Wet

Cross Ventilation (electric fans preferred)

Combination of the above

371
Q

What is the engine company assigned at each decon site?

A

Water supply

372
Q

What is the truck company assigned at each decon site?

A

Cross ventilation, etc.

373
Q

What is the PD assigned at each decon site?

A

Security and control

374
Q

Decontamination crews should be rotated at no more than _____ intervals.

A

1 hour

375
Q

What is critical to the success of the decontamination operation if lives are to be saved?

A

Speed and thoroughness (whole body decon)

376
Q

During a heightened state of alert, station commanders shall ensure that all units in their quarters have the issued copy of _____ on board.

A

Jane’s Bio/Chem handbook

377
Q

Upon recognizing that a situation is a WMD incident, the incident commander shall make sure that dispatch notifies whom?

A

County warning point

378
Q

What is the county wide warning point’s number?

A

954-320-0520

379
Q

What unit number is the aerial platform unit?

A

387

Known as the Platform

380
Q

No one shall operate the platform vehicle unless they have been properly trained in _____.

A

Advanced Platform Operations

381
Q

Driver operators that have not been trained in Advanced Platform Operations can and are expected to assist in what?

A

Operating the pump panel

382
Q

When are firefighters allowed to operate the basket controls of the platform?

A

When supervised by a trained operator at the pedestal

383
Q

Who is able to operate the turntable aerial controls?

A

Only trained driver and officers

384
Q

No one shall operate the basket aerial controls during training or during an actual incident without what?

A

A trained operator positioned at the turntable control station

385
Q

What must be worn when personnel are operating or climbing on the aerial?

A

Helmet and gloves

Including the turntable operator

386
Q

Anyone climbing or operating in the basket shall wear what?

A

Safety belt

387
Q

All personnel operating in the basket or operating from a fixed position on the aerial, must wear what?

A

Ladder belt

388
Q

Whenever personnel are climbing the aerial or transferring in or out of the platform basket, what shall be activated?

A

Emergency stop button

389
Q

Under normal conditions, the aerial shall not be operated any closer than _____ of distribution power lines.

A

25 feet

390
Q

In exigent (life threatening) circumstances the aerial may operate within _____ but no closer than _____ to distribution power lines.

A

Within 25 feet, no closer than 10 feet

391
Q

Whenever the aerial is operated less than 25 feet from distribution power lines, what must be in place?

A

Safety officer

Ensures no one approaches or touches apparatus

392
Q

What wheels are chocked on the Platform?

A

Front wheels (front and rear of wheel)

393
Q

When will the ladder company conduct a Pierce 50-hour Inspection?

A

First Sunday of each month

394
Q

Any items requiring the checking of torque shall:

A

Not be conducted by SFRD personnel

395
Q

Under normal situations, the basket may not be placed within _____ of a structure without what?

A

4 feet without an operator/spotter in the basket

396
Q

The platform should operate at _____ when the basket is at close proximity to a structure.

A

Low idle

397
Q

What are the movement capabilities of the platform?

A

Extension

Rotation

Elevation

398
Q

Only one movement should be performed at a time except when?

A

Emergency situations

399
Q

Who adds hydraulic fluid to the reservoir on the platform?

A

City garage

400
Q

When can the ladder be retracted with water in the waterway?

A

If a discharge is opened at the tip or base of the ladder

401
Q

If the platform is short jacked, the aerial should not be operated past what?

A

Longitudinal axis on the side that is short jacked

402
Q

The platform will rarely do what?

A

Exceed posted speed limits, even when Code 3

403
Q

What does Extend Ladder mean?

A

Reach out with ladder

404
Q

What does Retract Ladder mean?

A

Return outstretched ladder

405
Q

What does Raise Ladder mean?

A

Increase angle of elevation

406
Q

What does Lower Ladder mean?

A

Decrease angle of elevation

407
Q

What does Ladder Left mean?

A

Rotate ladder to pedestal operator’s left

408
Q

What does Ladder Right mean?

A

Rotate ladder to pedestal operator’s right

409
Q

When is the intercom system on the platform tested?

A

During daily check out

Initial stages of placing aerial into operation

410
Q

If the intercom system test results are negative, what will be done?

A

Rely on portable radios for pedestal and basket communication

411
Q

The aerial platform shall not be used to:

A

Force timbers or cornices

Pull or push objects

412
Q

The use of forced entry into a structure or vehicle should only occur if:

A

Exigent circumstances exist

413
Q

Law enforcement shall not be notified to assist with forcible entry unless what?

A

Potential scene safety hazard is present or other circumstance

414
Q

What causes a poor public perception in regards to forcible entry?

A

Excessive damage

415
Q

When are companies permitted to force entry at a medical emergency or medical alarm

A

Patient is visualized and incapacitated or unable to open door

Reasonable suspicion that a patient is incapacitated or unconscious

Neighbor has reason to believe occupant is having medical emergency

416
Q

If forcible entry occurs and no patient or dangerous situation is found at a medical alarm or medical emergency, what happens?

A

Police department contacted for assessment and report

417
Q

If forcible entry occurs and no patient or dangerous situation is found at a medical alarm or medical emergency, what happens?

A

Police department contacted for assessment and report

418
Q

If forcible entry occurs and no hazardous situation is present at fire alarm or water alarm calls, who is notified?

A

Dispatch center

419
Q

Who established the tactical paramedic program?

A

SFRD and SPD

420
Q

What is the purpose of the tactical paramedic program?

A

Immediate EMS in potential hostile environment

421
Q

The SWAT Medics will accompany the SPD SWAT team during:

A

Scheduled

Unscheduled

Training activities

422
Q

Who determines when the SWAT medics will accompany the SWAT team?

A

SWAT team commander

423
Q

The SWAT Medics will render medical care to whom?

A

Officers

Fire personnel

Victims

Civilians

424
Q

The SWAT medic team members will operate under whom?

A

Law enforcement direction/command of SPD

425
Q

The number of personnel assigned to the SWAT medic team will be determined by whom?

A

Fire Chief in conjunction with the Police Chief

426
Q

Who is able to suspend or remove personnel from the SWAT medic team?

A

SWAT Team (commander) and/or Fire Chief

427
Q

The activation of the SWAT Medic team will be the result of:

A

Unscheduled event/incident

Scheduled event

428
Q

What is an example of an unscheduled event?

A

Hostage situation

429
Q

What is an example of a scheduled event?

A

High risk warrant

430
Q

When can SWAT Medic members be activated?

A

On-duty

Off-duty

Combination

431
Q

The notification of activation for SWAT medic team members shall be done in accordance with the notification process of what?

A

SPD Policy and Procedures for the SPD SWAT Team

432
Q

Upon being notified/activated, the SWAT medic Team Leader (or designee) will make contact with whom?

A

Deputy Chief of Operations (primary) 701.09

Duty Chief (secondary)

433
Q

Who will the Deputy Chief of Operations (or Duty Chief) notify of the activation?

A

Battalion Chief

434
Q

What is the utmost consideration of the SWAT team operation?

A

Safety of the team

435
Q

Who may request a rescue unit to be staged for the duration or part of the SWAT operation?

A

SWAT Medic team

436
Q

Who has the final say on the use of on-duty resources?

A

Deputy Chief of Operations (or Duty Chief)

437
Q

Once assembled, the SWAT Medic team leader will make contact with FIRECOM to notify them:

A

That they are in-service

May request a tactical channel

Out of service when operation is completed

438
Q

Fire rescue units will be dispatched to activated fire alarms based on what?

A

Type of alarm

Occupancy of the structure

439
Q

Who responds Code 3 to multi-unit response to an activated fire alarm?

A

First-due fire unit

All others Code 1

440
Q

Who is responsible for maintenance of the fire alarm/suppression system?

A

Owner

Per the Florida Fire Prevention Code

441
Q

Who is responsible for resetting the activation of the fire alarm?

A

Owner

442
Q

Who is responsible for proper functioning of the system?

A

Building management

443
Q

Who is permitted to make repairs on fire alarm systems?

A

Fire alarm specialty electrical contractor

Electrical contractor

Fire sprinkler contractor

Others properly certified

444
Q

Fire alarm systems are designed to function in what mode?

A

Trouble

445
Q

Failure to achieve a reset of a trouble mode:

A

Does not require immediate repair

Notify FLS via fax or voice mail before shift is over

446
Q

If a fire alarm is unable to reset in a multiple residential building and a repair cannot be effected, what happens?

A

Building management will be advised by the IC to provide a fire watch

IC shall contact FLS and advise Fire Marshal

Next business day if on weekend or holiday

447
Q

Supplementing of private protection systems with fire department engine operations has proven imperative in:

A

Gaining control of fires

Reducing property damage

448
Q

Area familiarization through _____ will allow personnel to be familiar with all structures that have private fire protection systems.

A

In-service inspections

Target hazard book use

449
Q

The second arriving engine has the responsibility to supplement the standpipe/sprinkler system with what?

A

Additional water flow

Increase water pressure

450
Q

The connection to the FDC should be made with:

A

dual 2 1/2” hose

451
Q

Why are 2 1/2 hose used to connect to the FDC?

A

Increased pressures

452
Q

Pre-fire planning is meant to reduce the loss of life and property as well as increase firefighter safety through:

A

Analysis of date

Construction features

Resource needs

Tactical applications

453
Q

Who performs pre-fire plans?

A

Company officer and crew

454
Q

Who assigns pre-fire plans?

A

Fire Marshal’s office

455
Q

The structures and/or properties for Pre-fire planning shall be those which, in the event of fire:

A

Present large loss of life

Present large dollar loss

Present unusual or severe hazards

Contain complex layouts or obstacles

Require special tactical approach

456
Q

Fire operations are influenced by factors such as:

A

Occupancy

Building construction

Location and size of fire

457
Q

What is consistent with almost every structure fire?

A

Benchmarks and tasks

458
Q

All functions of basic fire attack are directed toward either:

A

Saving lives or property conservation

459
Q

If the initial arriving company has determined that all occupants have safely exited the structure, what will the second unit become?

A

RIT

460
Q

Which structures require a secondary means of egress?

A

Multi-story

461
Q

What are secondary actions that can be assigned by IC?

A

Utilities

Water supply

Ventilation

Secondary search

Salvage and overhaul

462
Q

Who has empowered individuals to properly handle, track, store, distribute, and dispose of controlled substances?

A

Fire Chief, through the Office of the Medical Director

463
Q

The framework for the controlled substance policy was developed by:

A

Ft. Lauderdale FR

464
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining accurate records and evidence of compliance with controlled substances?

A

Administrative Deputy Chief or designee

465
Q

Controlled substances are those substances defined by whom?

A

Medical Director

US Department of Justice DEA

Section 304 and 1008 of Controlled Substance Act of 1970

Florida Administrative Code Chapter 64E-2.037

Security of Medications and State of Florida Board of Pharmacy

Department of Professional Regulation

466
Q

What are the controlled substances designated by our department?

A

Morphine Sulfate

Diazepam (Valium)

Midazolam (Versed)

Nitrous Oxide (Nitronox)

467
Q

What is the definition of a vial?

A

Glass bottle containing controlled substance

468
Q

What is the definition of a pre-filled syringe?

A

Glass/plastic container containing controlled substance

469
Q

What is the definition of a container?

A

Hard plastic tubular container with “plug” cap that houses vial or syringe

470
Q

What is the definition of a seal?

A

Numbered plastic fastener that secures vial in the container

471
Q

What is the definition of a controlled substance log?

A

Form utilized for tracking and replacement of controlled substances

472
Q

What is the definition of a controlled substance box?

A

Plastic box for storage of sealed controlled substance containers

473
Q

Where does SFRD obtain its controlled substances?

A

Medical Director

474
Q

The Department shall maintain records on file on controlled substances at:

A

The main location where the Department maintains controlled substances

475
Q

All inventories and records of controlled substances shall be maintained for:

A

At least 2 years

476
Q

What controlled substance should be maintained separately from other controlled substances?

A

Schedule II

477
Q

What is a schedule II controlled substance?

A

Morphine Sulfate

478
Q

What is a schedule III and IV controlled substance?

A

Diazepam

Midazolam

Nitrous

479
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining complete, accurate, and up-to-date records for controlled substances

A

Support Services Division

480
Q

What are the only licensed areas that controlled substances stored?

A

Public Safety Complex

ALS units

Medical Supply kits

481
Q

How are controlled substances stored in the storage space?

A

In a locked safe

482
Q

How are controlled substances stored on vehicles?

A

In on-board cabinet that is secured by a lock

483
Q

Who is approved to handle controlled substances?

A

On-duty, state certified paramedics

Employee designated and approved by Fire Chief or Medical Director

484
Q

For damaged or expired controlled substances, how is it returned to the EMS Shift Supervisor for replacement?

A

Vial removed

Placed in clear bio-hazard bag with seal and security container

485
Q

Which controlled substance seal will be a different color from other controlled substances?

A

Nitrous oxide

486
Q

Who has access to the written controlled substance log?

A

Only Captain or Rescue Lieutenants

487
Q

If there are any confirmed problems found in the controlled substance log, who will be notified?

A

Made immediately to EMS Shift Supervisor via chain of command

Shift Supervisor shall notify BC and Administrative Deputy Chief

488
Q

What color ink will the entries into the controlled substance log be?

A

Blue or black only

489
Q

If a correction needs to be made in the controlled substance log, how is it corrected?

A

Single straight line drawn

Initialed and dated

490
Q

Who shall participate in the controlled substance custody change/inspection on the ALS engine?

A

Both Captain and Paramedic

If captain is the paramedic, then D/O shall participate

491
Q

When is the drug inventory done each day with the off-going and on-coming paramedic?

A

0805

Done face to face

492
Q

The controlled substance logs shall be reviewed daily for what?

A

Accuracy of entry

Completion of information

Legibility of entries

493
Q

When is the weekly review of the controlled substance log performed?

A

Every Sunday

494
Q

Who performs the weekly controlled substance review?

A

First Rescue Lieutenant 702.05

Then station captain

Then EMS Shift Supervisor

495
Q

The completed controlled substance log will be forwarded to whom?

A

Administrative Deputy Chief or designee via chain of command

496
Q

Any unused medication must be disposed of in the presence of:

A

At least 2 personnel

One must be the officer of the rescue truck

497
Q

Who authorizes changes in the amount of controlled substances carried?

A

EMS Medical Director and Fire Chief

498
Q

Who will know the code to the padlock on the controlled substance box?

A

Crew and EMS Captain

499
Q

If a controlled substance is used, what is returned to the EMS Shift Supervisor for replacement?

A

Vial

Seal

Container

500
Q

What happens if there is an unexplained discrepancy in the count of controlled substance logbook and/or the controlled substance presents with an unacceptable condition?

A

Notify BC and EMS Shift Supervisor

EMS Shift Supervisor will respond to location

BC and Administrative Deputy Chief will be notified

501
Q

What is the procedure for a missing, damaged, or tampered controlled substance?

A

Station Captain or Rescue Lieutenant will instruct crew not to touch anything

BC and EMS Shift Supervisor notified immediately

Unit taken out of service

Determine need for PD by BC, EMS, and Admin Deputy Chief

502
Q

If tampering is suspected who makes the determination to request PD?

A

Chief Officer

503
Q

The Chief Officer investigating the controlled substance tampering will submit the report to whom?

A

Administrative Deputy Chief

504
Q

Who orders controlled substances?

A

Administrative Deputy Chief

505
Q

How many controlled substances are on the rescue unit?

A

Quantity, dosage, and medication are listed on vehicle checkout 702.05

Approved by medical director

506
Q

How many controlled substances are on the suppression unit?

A

Quantity, dosage, and medication are listed on vehicle checkout

Approved by medical director
507
Q

What calls will the Battalion Chief have to respond to?

A

Mutual aid response excluding medical rescue calls

Monitor the safety of SFRD personnel

508
Q

If the Battalion Chief has to leave the city for mutual aid, who will be notified and take over the duties of the Battalion?

A

Duty Chief

509
Q

In the event of a recall, the Battalion is expected to telephone whom?

A

Dispatch and report availability

510
Q

What are the primary responsibilities of EMS Captain on medical calls?

A

Oversee ALS and BLS patient care

Assume command

Command of Medical Branch on MCIs

511
Q

What are the primary responsibilities of EMS Captain on fire calls?

A

IC Aide

Accountability Officer

RIT

Liaison

IMS division or group leader

Join up with other personnel to for a company

512
Q

Who performs the responsibilities of the Duty Chief

A

Division Chief

513
Q

What are responses that may warrant staff back up from the duty chief?

A

Major structure fires

Significant rescue responses

MCI

Special Operations

Situation taxing the existing command structure

Situation that warrants administrative duties

514
Q

The in-service Duty Chief is to report to _____ when activated.

A

Communications Center to assist dispatch personnel

515
Q

What calls are staff officers required to respond?

A

Typically not required to respond to emergency calls

516
Q

Staff officers are to remain available for recall via:

A

Telephone and/or pager

517
Q

In situations where immediate availability of the staff officer is impractical, what happens?

A

Contact with dispatch is not anticipated

518
Q

In the event of a forecasted natural disaster, staff officers are to make contact with _____ in anticipation of a recall.

A

Headquarters

519
Q

When is accepting a patients belongings determined to be appropriate?

A

Items or medication in patient’s best interest

Not likely to disrupt or compromise normal operations

Reasonable efforts to secure items were made

Patient not capable of being responsible and no family

520
Q

Once a representative from the SFRD accepts custody of a patient’s belongings, it is imperative that:

A

Proper documentation indicates who and where items went

521
Q

Where are items listed?

A

PCR

522
Q

Once a representative from the SFRD accepts custody of a patient’s belonging what should documented?

A

Who and where the items were left with

523
Q

All items should be inventoried and listed where?

A

PCR

524
Q

What should be documented in the PCR regarding the patients’ belongings?

A

Hospital name

Person at the facility

525
Q

What type of approach is needed to minimize injury to the victim and maintaining safety to companies during the extrication?

A

Systematic

526
Q

What is the process of removing a vehicle from around a person?

A

Vehicle extrication

527
Q

What term is a universal safety work used to STOP all activity on scene?

A

FREEZE

528
Q

What signal can be used to FREEZE?

A

A hand or tap on the shoulder

529
Q

What is the process of evaluating, controlling and rendering safe for exigent operations?

A

Stabilization

530
Q

What is an area extending outward from the vehicle where rescue workers will determine the best course of action to remove an entrapped victim?

A

Action circles

531
Q

The two areas surrounding the accident are called?

A

Inner and outer circle

532
Q

What area is strategically located outside the action circle area that is accessible for all crew members on the emergency scene?

A

Tool Staging Area

533
Q

Who should be advised of all Extended Extrications?

A

Dispatch

534
Q

Who should complete the Outer Circle?

A

Company officers

535
Q

Who should be tasked with completing the Inner Circle?

A

A firefighter

536
Q

The vehicle should not be touched until the inner circle has been cleared of?

A

Energized outside source

537
Q

When considering fire suppression at an extrication what should be deployed at a minimum?

A

A dry chemical extinguisher

538
Q

What is preferred for fire suppression at an extrication?

A

1-3/4” hose line with foam capabilities

539
Q

When stabilizing a vehicle during extrication, how far away should a smart key be removed?

A

At least 15 feet from vehicle

540
Q

Orange and Bright Blue colored cables in a vehicle indicate what?

A

HIGH VOLTAGE

541
Q

How much volts of direct current can high voltage cables carry?

A

750 volts

542
Q

Where are hybrid vehicles most commonly marked?

A

In the rear

543
Q

How long is the electrical drain down time for air bags?

A

30 secs to 20 mins

544
Q

Side curtain air bags deploy how far?

A

5” to 10”

545
Q

Steering wheel air bags deploy how far?

A

10”

546
Q

Passenger air bags deploy how far?

A

20”

547
Q

What are the acceptable means for stabilizing a vehicle?

A

Step chocks

Box cribbing

Struts (Rescue 42’s, Z-Mags, or similar)

Cargo straps

548
Q

What should be considered after stabilization of the vehicle with cribbing?

A

Pulling valve stems

549
Q

What unit can be considered for extra cribbing and special equipment?

A

TRT unit

550
Q

A member of the FD should make entry into the vehicle to begin ______ and to protect the patient from any additional injury during the extrication process.

A

Patient stabilization

551
Q

Tempered glass should be removed with:

A

Rescue hammer

Center punch

Glass master

552
Q

Laminated glass should be removed with what?

A

Glass master or saws

553
Q

Once glass is removed, remove all plastics on post to expose what:

A

Airbag cylinders

554
Q

Airbag cylinders that deploy side impact airbags are compressed to what PSI?

A

Over 3000 psi

555
Q

Before extrication begins what should be removed from the side crews will be working on:

A

Glass

Plastic

Seat belts

556
Q

Where is Boron and Ultra Strength Steel (UHSS) most common found in a vehicle?

A

Posts

Roof rails

Rocker panels

557
Q

What is the primary means to secure the Knox Key?

A

Knox Box Electronic key retrieval system

558
Q

In the event of failure of the Knox Box System each unit is also equipped with a _____ securing system.

A

SupraSafe key

559
Q

What should be done in the event a key is lost or found missing?

A

Battalion Chief notified immediately 702.09

Missing equipment formed completed

560
Q

Who should be notified if the gate cannot be returned to normal function before leaving

A

On duty shift commander

561
Q

The on duty shift commander should assign an _____ to restore the gate system as soon reasonably available.

A

Available unit

562
Q

What is the response to the mall for a confirmed false alarm by mall security?

A

1E – single engine response

563
Q

What is the response to the mall for a fire alarm?

A

1A – First alarm assignment

564
Q

What is the response to the mall for a smell of smoke?

A

1A – First alarm assignment

565
Q

What is the response to the mall for a smoke or fire showing?

A

1A – First alarm assignment, plus notification of duty chief

566
Q

What is the response to the mall for a working fire?

A

1A – First alarm assignment, plus 2A – Two alarm fire

567
Q

What are the fire scenario objectives of a Mall fire?

A

Minimize life endangerment by evacuating occupants using security

Locate, confine, and extinguish

Keep property damage to a minimum

568
Q

What is the mission of the first arriving engine to the Mall?

A

Determine the extent of the emergency and to initiate actions to mitigate the emergency

569
Q

What is the minimum equipment an engine company will bring into the Mall during a fire?

A

Forcible entry tools 703.01

High-rise kit

Hand lights

570
Q

Why is the Company Officer at the Mall expected to transfer command as early as possible?

A

Limitations of command and limitations of radio communication

571
Q

at is the mission of the first arriving rescue to the Mall?

A

Join first arriving engine and assist

572
Q

The crew of the first arriving rescue should bring the following equipment for an incident at the Mall:

A

100 ft of 2 1/2 hose

Hand lights

Rope

573
Q

When is the primary search of the immediate area of hazard at the Mall conducted?

A

After supplying fire attack group with equipment

574
Q

What is the mission of the second arriving engine to the mall?

A

RIT and support entry team

575
Q

In the absence of the Battalion Chief, who assumes command at the mall?

A

Second arriving engine

576
Q

If the Battalion Chief is on scene at the mall, what does the second arriving engine prepare for?

A

RIT

577
Q

What is the mission of the first arriving ladder at the mall?

A

Forcible entry and Search & Rescue

578
Q

What type of ventilation may not be appropriate on the Mall?

A

Typical vertical ventilation

579
Q

What makes ladder operations on the roof of the mall unnecessary and dangerous?

A

A good smoke removal system along with light weight construction

580
Q

Where does the first arriving ladder park at an incident at the Mall?

A

Out of vehicle lanes and occupant exits

581
Q

stream operations during the initial stages of a fire at the Mall should be directed at what?

A

Retarding flame spread

582
Q

The ladder at the Mall fire may be repositioned to perform what function?

A

Ladder operations

Elevated observation post

583
Q

What is the mission of the Rescue Lieutenant on a Mall fire?

A

Incident Commander’s Aide

584
Q

What are the primary responsibilities of the Rescue Lieutenant?

A

Passport accountability

Mall liaison

Tactical work sheet monitor

585
Q

What is the mission of the Battalion Chief at the Mall fire?

A

Incident Commander

586
Q

The Incident Commander should establish communications with whom while at the mall fire?

A

Mall security

587
Q

The Incident Command should request dispatch to contact _____ at a mall fire.

A

Water Department to increase water pressure

588
Q

What can mall security be used for at a fire at the Mall?

A

Evacuation

589
Q

Primary searches outside the immediate fire area for victims:

A

Come second to fire control

590
Q

All tactics at the Mall fire are based on what?

A

Preventing loss of life

591
Q

The first arriving engine and rescue companies should direct their efforts to what at the mall fire?

A

Locating and confining the fire

592
Q

What should be established inside the mall for a fire?

A

Division Supervisor

Logistical staging area

593
Q

Which type of operation has a poor outlook at a mall fire?

A

Drafting operations

Few locations and several hundred feet away

594
Q

Due to the malls steel construction, radio interference may happen. What will need to be done to improve radio communication?

A

Use non-repeated channel

595
Q

Mall security should be contact to:

A

Control HVAC

Use cameras to evaluate interior conditions

Obtain keys to doors and gates

Obtain dollies and carts for hose and equipment

596
Q

Who is able to provide medical clearance of a patient?

A

Florida State Licensed physician

597
Q

If police request for a patient to be medically cleared, what Who are able to apply a Baker Act?happens?

A

Patient is transported to nearest appropriate facility

598
Q

Who are able to apply a Baker Act?

A

Licensed physicians and law enforcement

599
Q

What is another name for OC Spray?

A

Pepper Spray

600
Q

What does OC stand for in OC Spray

What is a lachrymatory agent?

A

Oleoriesin

Lachrymatory agentCapsicum

601
Q

What type of agent is the OC Spray?

A

Chemical compound that stimulates corneal nerves in the eyes

Causes tears, pain, and temporary blindness

602
Q

What does pepper spray cause to happen to patients?

A

Inflammation of mucous membranes

Closing of eyes

Difficulty breathing

Runny nose

Coughing

603
Q

How long do the effects of OC Spray last?

A

Around 30 to 45 minutes

Diminished effects lasting for hours

604
Q

What is another name for CN Gas?

A

Mace

605
Q

What is the name of CN Gas?

A

Chloracetophenone gas

606
Q

What type of agent is CN Gas?

A

Non-lethal irritant agency

607
Q

What does the CN Gas contain?

A

Purified tear gas and chemical solvents that temporarily incapacitate a person

Causes eye and skin irritation

608
Q

What is the most common effect of Mace?

A

Burning sensation on the area affected

Suffocating feeling if inhaled

609
Q

What can minimize the effects of CN Gas/Mace?What is the duration of CN Gas/Mace?

A

Under the influence of alcohol or drugs

610
Q

What is the durration of Mase?

A

30 minutes up to 2 hours

Depends on person and treatment

611
Q

What is tear gas?

A

Non-specific term for any chemical that is used to cause temporary incapacitation through irritation of eyes and/or respiratory system

612
Q

What are popular tear gases?

A

Eye irritants: CS, CN, and CR

Eye and Respiratory irritant: OC pepper spray

613
Q

What is an ECD?

A

Electronic Control Device

Taser

614
Q

The ECD/Taser causes an immediate loss of the person’s _____.

A

Neuromuscular control and ability to perform coordinated action

615
Q

What events could happen prior to the ECD?

A

Excited Delirium

616
Q

What is the definition of excited delirium?

A

A state in which a person is in a psychotic and extremely agitated stat

617
Q

What are the causes of excited delirium?

A

Overdose on stimulant/hallucinogenic drugs

Drug withdrawal

Non-medicated psychiatric patients

Head trauma

Diabetic emergency

618
Q

What is happening mentally to an excited delirium patient?

A

Unable to focus or process rational thought or focus

619
Q

What is happening physically to an excited delirium patient?

A

Organs functioning at excited rate, begin to shut down

620
Q

What are the symptoms of excited delirium?

A

Bizarre and aggressive behavior

Dilated pupils

High body temp

Incoherent speech

Inconsistent breathing pattern

Fear and panic

Profuse sweating, shivering, hyperthermia

High-risk situation of sudden death

621
Q

What helps alleviate the discomfort of pepper spray or other chemical spray?

A

Copious amounts of water

622
Q

According to medication manufacturer’s guidelines, medications should be stored at temperatures that range from _____.

A

55 to 85 F

623
Q

Which vehicles have thermometers to check medication temperatures?

A

All ALS vehicles

Stored in medical box of front line trucks

624
Q

When is the thermometer checked for the medications?

A

0800 and 1600

625
Q

If a medication shows signs of extreme temperature, the medication should be removed and forwarded to whom?

A

EMS Division

626
Q

The temperature check sheets shall be sent:

A

Inter-office 704.02

Monthly to Logistics

627
Q

The department must decontaminate and disinfect in accordance with what?

A

OSHA Health Standard 1910.1030

628
Q

Decontamination is the process of:

A

Cleaning an object, substance, or surface to remove soiled contaminants

629
Q

What is the minimum protection for decontamination?

A

Gloves and eye protection

630
Q

Disinfection is the method used to:

A

Destroy and prevent growth of disease carrying microorganisms

Viral or bacterial

631
Q

What is the appropriate PPE for chemical protection when disinfecting

A

N95 mask

Gloves

Eye protection

632
Q

What does OPIM stand for?

A

Other potentially infectious material

633
Q

Surfaces that have become soiled must be decontaminated using what?

A

One-step germicidal detergent

634
Q

What is the final disinfection step?

A

Byoplants Electrostatic Application System

635
Q

Who is contacted to seek training to use the Byoplant?

A

EMS Captain

636
Q

How is the application rates determined for the Byoplant?

A

Pre-established by department and manufacturer

637
Q

What is the application rate for the Byoplant?

A

1 minute of spray per 500 sq/ft.

638
Q

What is the objective to apply the product?

A

Wet sheen

Not a saturation, soaking, or running of chemical

639
Q

When is the Byoplanet used on Engine and Rescues?

A

Occur weekly

Supply day or after suspected contamination

640
Q

When is the Byoplant used on the Stations?

A

Quarterly

During station rotations or after contamination

641
Q

Who can provide access to the Byoplanet?

A

Shift Battalion Chief or EMS Captain

642
Q

A free standing ER is licensed by what state agency?

A

Agency for Health Care Administration (ACHA)

643
Q

What is the premise when transporting a patient to a free standing ER?

A

Not likely to require:

Admission

Surgical

OB intervention

Other acute services

644
Q

Fire Rescue companies will be dispatched based on what?

A

Type of incident reported

645
Q

What is the turnout time?

A

60 seconds

646
Q

What happens if units have not gone en route within 60 seconds?

A

Units will be “roll called”

647
Q

After the primary company goes responding, what does dispatch do?

A

Add further information Repeat address and zone number

648
Q

Who is responsible for securing the station when responding to a call?

A

Station commander

649
Q

Who responds to an accident

A

1 Engine

650
Q

What is the response for a Boat-marine fire?

A

1 Engine

1 Rescue

1 EMS

1 BC

If confirmed, an additional engine added

651
Q

How many units respond to a commercial structure fire?

A

3 engines

2 rescues

1 ladder

1 EMS

1 BC

If confirmed, an additional engine added

652
Q

What is the response to a vehicle fire?

A

1 engine 705.00

1 rescue

If confirmed, an additional engine added

653
Q

How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 1?

A

1 engine

1 rescue

654
Q

How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 2?

A

1 engine

1 rescue

1 ems

1 BC

655
Q

How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 3?

A

3 engines

2 rescues

1 ems

1 BC

1 ladder

656
Q

How many units respond on an explosion or fire bombing?

A

3 engines

2 rescues

1 EMS

1 BC

1 ladder

657
Q

The following calls will have a GPSN1:

A

Boat – Marine Fire/Accident

Commercial/Residential structure fire

Dive call

Hazmat Incident

Drowning/Electrocution

Shooting/Stabbing

Aircraft Alert 1, 2, & 3

Bomb threat/Explosion/Fire Bombing

658
Q

What is a GPSN1?

A

Global Page for Sunrise Fire Rescue Staff Members

Such as Duty Chief

659
Q

Response assignments where a GPSN1 alert is indicated should automatically be sent by dispatch, this should require the IC to do what?

A

Confirm that the Duty Chief was advised

660
Q

Additionally, any incident that may _____ should have dispatch instructed to alert the Duty Chief.

A

Large loss of life

Resident/occupant displacement

Areas of media concern

661
Q

The response of the Battalion Chief is _____ during any incident.

A

Discretionary and optional

662
Q

What type of responses fall under the authority of the on duty Shift Commander?

A

All, emergency, routine, and service delivery

663
Q

The response of the EMS Captain is _____ during any incident.

A

Discretionary and optional

664
Q

Who is responsible to relate a company to facilitate a more efficient deployment of resources in the event of further incidents? (move-up/relocation)

A

Responsibility of all parties

665
Q

Who will insure that no two adjoining districts remain without emergency vehicle coverage?

A

Communication center

666
Q

What happens when a ladder is not avalible to respond?

A

Additional engine is added

667
Q

If the first arriving company sizes-up “nothing showing” what happens?

A

All other responding units slow to Code 1

668
Q

Any company assigned to a Code 1 response shall immediately upgrade their response upon an initial report of what?

A

Smoke or fire showing

Information needing RIT, Rehab or comprehensive IMS

669
Q

All personnel are eligible for Special Details except:

A

Exempt staff

Personnel on probation

Restricted by Fire Chief

Personnel on medical leave

Personnel on light duty

Personnel on administrative suspension

670
Q

What is the primary method of signing up for details?

A

One general sign up day per month

Report to PSC

671
Q

What are the hours of detail sign-up?

A

Start 0930

Ends no later than 1130

672
Q

Detail slots that come available after the general sign-up will be filled by:

A

Station call

673
Q

If sufficient time allows, typically considered _____, calls will be made station by station, shift by shift.

A

Greater than 72 hours

674
Q

If the detail slot is being filled by station call, who is the first shift to be called?

A

Shift that was on duty during that particular sign up

675
Q

If time does not allow, such as a last minute notification that a detail is required, how are slots filled?

A

Managerial discretion

676
Q

If an employee that is signed up for a detail is now unable to do the detail, it is the responsibility to the employee to find:

A

An equally qualified replacement

Finalized by Detail Office

677
Q

If an employee is scheduled to participate in a special detail and becomes ill and cannot do the detail, he must notify whom?

A

Detail Officer

Rescue Lieutenant

Or Battalion Chief

678
Q

How and when will the ill employee contact the supervisors about not being able to do the detail?

A

Direct person-to-person contact

Minimum of 4 hours prior to starting time

679
Q

Failure to comply with the detail obligation may result in removal from the detail list for a period of _____ for the first offense.

A

6 months

680
Q

Failure to comply with the detail obligation may result in removal from the detail list for a period of _____ for the second offense.

A

1 Year

681
Q

If a Rescue Lieutenant or Battalion Chief is notified that an employee cannot do the detail, they will secure a replacement using what?

A

Call list provided by Detail Officer

682
Q

What type of system does SFR

Who handles the detail voucher system?D utilize for payment?

A

Voucher system

683
Q

Who handles the detail voucher system?

A

Handled by the Detail Officer

Coordinated through City Finance/Payroll Department

684
Q

When are SFRD personnel allowed to purchase food from the caterer?

A

Panther home games

685
Q

When are SFRD personnel not allowed to purchase food from the caterer?

A

Concerts and other events that are catered

Caterer bills the promoter

686
Q

Who is supposed to be at PSC at the time when detail personnel are supposed to arrive?

A

Rescue Lieutenant or Shift Battalion Chief if RL is not available

687
Q

What uniform is used when on Special Details?

A

Class B

Unless advised by Detail Officer

688
Q

When will detail personnel transport patients?

A

Extreme circumstances

689
Q

Who is notified when the special detail is completed?

A

On-duty Rescue Lieutenant or Battalion Chief

690
Q

Where is the Detail Unit returned after the detail is over?

A

Fire station or inside PSC rear compound

691
Q

Who can request an Emergency Medical Services Standby?

A

Outside organization

Fire Chief

692
Q

What is the staffing of an EMS Standby?

A

Minimum of 2 personnel

Sole discretion of the Fire Chief

693
Q

What will help determine the number of personnel for an EMS standby?

A

Circumstances surrounding the need for EMS

694
Q

Who has the authority to augment the minimum staffing of

Who determines the need for a firewatch detail?the EMS standby?

A

Fire Chief

695
Q

Who determines the need for a firewatch detail?

A

Fire Chief or designee

696
Q

If any member receives a complaint about a possible fire or life safety hazard after the hours of the Fire Marshal’s Office, who should the member notify?

A

Shift Commander immediately

697
Q

The Shift Commander will attempt to gain compliance. If the Shift Commander believes that appropriate parties will not resolve the violation, who is notified?

A

On-call Inspector requested to respond

698
Q

If the Inspector feels that the situation requires an immediate firewatch, he/she will contact whom?

A

Fire Chief or designee

699
Q

If the Inspector and Fire Chief decide a fire watch is needed, an emergency fire watch shall commence with whom?

A

The Inspector while the shift commander arranges for relief

700
Q

While performing the emergency fire watch, the inspector will establish what?

A

Handwritten, “individualized” procedures for the occupancy

Inspector will orally and physically review with relief

701
Q

What are the steps that an individual will take should an incident occur on a fire watch detail?

A

Activate building alarm system and begin evacuation

Simultaneously notify Fire Dispatch

Supply brief description to dispatch and Shift Commander

If needed, offensive fire attack to aid occupant exiting building

702
Q

Multi person fire watch details will be staffed with how many fire inspectors?

A

Not more than one unless unusual circumstance

703
Q

If a fire watch requires more than one inspector, which inspector is the supervisor?

A

Fire Marshal will designate regardless of rank

704
Q

When a Fire Inspector is needed on a multi-person fire watch, he/she will act as supervisor for what?

A

Code related matters

705
Q

When will a fire watch detail require a supervisor?

A

More than 3 personnel

706
Q

When a fire watch detail is required by code, the detail shall be under the direct control of whom?

A

Fire Marshal

707
Q

What will be onsite for all fire watch details?

A

BLS kit

708
Q

How is a fire watch detail terminated?

A

All paperwork completed and reviewed by Shift Commander if a representative of the FLS Division is not on site

709
Q

What does MERC stand for?

A

Mobile Emergency Response Cart

710
Q

Who determines the need for the MERC?

What is the staffing for the MERC?

A

Fire Chief or designee

711
Q

What is the minnimum staffing for a MERC?

A

Minimum of 2 personnel

712
Q

What does BERT stand for?

A

Bicycle Emergency Response Team

713
Q

Who determines the need for the BERT?

A

Fire Chief or designee

714
Q

What is the staffing for the BERT?

A

Minimum of 2 personnel

715
Q

Who provides BERT training?

How will the Peak Hour Rescue Unit operate?

A

Training Division

716
Q

How will the Peak Hour Rescue Unit operate?

A

Special detail 706.05

Monday – Friday: 0800-2000

Except city recognized holidays

717
Q

Who may alter the schedule of the Peak Hour Rescue Unit at any time based on operational and staffing needs of the department?

A

Fire Chief or designee

718
Q

How will the P-H Rescue be staffed?

A

LT and two FF/PM

LT and 1-FF/PM and 1-FF/EMT

719
Q

The filling of the vacancies associated with the P-H Rescue will use what format and offered in what hour blocks?

A

Overtime

12 hour blocks

720
Q

Where is the P-H Rescue assigned to and what is the unit identifier?

A

Station 72

Rescue 272

721
Q

Who does the R272 report to while assigned to station 72

A

Station 72 Captain

722
Q

During the hours of operation, R272 will be subject to relocation as any other fire rescue unit per?

A

Shift Commander

723
Q

The unit will be housed at Sta. 72 at the beginning and ending of each shift, but may be relocated to another designated location based on operational needs as determined by?

A

Fire Chief or designee

724
Q

Weekly maintenance, during which R272 and equipment will be cleaned will be scheduled for each ___ morning?

A

Wednesday

725
Q

What personnel are not eligible to participate on R272?

A

Exempt staff

Personnel of recruit probation

Personnel on medical leave or light duty

Personnel on administrative suspension

Or restricted by Fire Chief

726
Q

What is the primary method of signing up for R272?

A

Electronic scheduler (Kronos Telestaff)

727
Q

Vacancies for R272 will be made available for sign up how many days in advance?

A

30 days

728
Q

How far in advance will the vacancies for R272 be filled?

A

2 weeks

729
Q

The electronic scheduler will notify personnel who have made themselves available for the special detail via?

A

Interactive voice response (IVR) system

Text message

730
Q

If personnel who are assigned to a special detail have unexpected conflicts arise, a ____ replacement must be approved by notifying who?

A

Equally qualified

Operations Deputy Chief

731
Q

If an individual does not report for their assigned detail, and fail to find an appropriate replacement, their ability to sign-up for further details will be _____ and the on-duty BC will follow what OPM?

A

Suspended

Lateness/AWOL

732
Q

What procedure should be followed if an employee who is expected to participate in a Special Detail becomes ill and cannot fulfill their obligation?

A

Procedure for Calling in for Unscheduled Leave

733
Q

Will the overtime list currently being maintained on FRD intranet page be affected by the accruals of overtime hours worked on R272?

A

No

734
Q

What is the order in which Telestaff autofills a vacant officer seat on R272 for?

A

Lieutenant

Acting Lieutenant

Captain

Acting Captain

735
Q

What is the order in which Telestaff autofills a vacant firefighter seat on R272 for?

A

2- FF/PM

1- FF/PM and 1- FF/EMT 706.05

Driver Operator

Lieutenant

Captain

736
Q

Vacancies for R272 will be filled based on what two criterias?

A

Least amount of hours worked on R272

Seniority in each rank

737
Q

All hours worked will be maintained where and reset when?

A

Electronically within the scheduling software

Reset to zero on January 1st at 0000 of each year

Capt. Exam (9 decks)

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