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Capt. Exam > OPM'S 700 > Flashcards

OPM'S 700 Flashcards

1
Q

Sunrise Fire Rescue will achieve higher staffing levels for company operations by

A

Assuring adequate personnel are dispatched

Assembling engine, ladder, and rescue crews together to form working companies

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2
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that companies are assembled into working companies

A

Incident Commander

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3
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing on an engine?

A

3

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4
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing on the ladder?

A

2

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5
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing on a rescue?

A

2

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6
Q

What are the basic engine company responsibilities and operations?

A

Fire ground operations

Medical rescue

Hazard abatement

Non-emergency incident abatement

Equipment and station maintenance

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7
Q

Methodology for specific tasks performed by engines are described in SFRD’s:

A

Competency Based Driver Operator Performance Objectives

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8
Q

What is part of the Basic Offensive Plan for structure fires?

A

Size up and establish command

Determine victim rescue
Attack line for interior attack

Primary search

RIT

Additional support activities

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9
Q

What is the Basic Defensive Plan for structure fires?

A

Size up and command

Determine stopping point

Prioritize fire streams (2 1/2 and larger)

Maintain sufficient resources to control spread

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10
Q

Responses of an ALS engine, for medical purposes, will be dictated by what?

A

Response Assignment Strategy

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11
Q

Who initiates ALS treatment on the engine and advises Dispatch as for the need for a transport unit?

A

ALS engine paramedic

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12
Q

How does the transport unit respond to the scene when requested by the ALS engine?

A

Emergency

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13
Q

Who is responsible for transferring the “Primary Evaluation” form to the transport unit?

A

ALS engine paramedic

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14
Q

Who is responsible for contacting the appropriate medical facility on the engine company?

A

ALS engine paramedic

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15
Q

Who is the first choice in shutting down a unit to assist in transportation?

A

EMS Captain

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16
Q

Who is the first choice in engine personnel to supplement rescue staffing during transport?

A

Jumpseat firefighter

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17
Q

If the jumpseat firefighter is making a transport with the rescue unit, what happens with the engine?

A

Does not mandate removal from service

Advise dispatch of reduced staffing, on limited call basis

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18
Q

Does the engine follow the rescue to the hospital for the sole purpose of picking up the jumpseat firefighter?

A

Requires permission from the Shift Commander

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19
Q

Failure to immediately and willingly obey the orders of a supervisor represents what?

A

Insubordination

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20
Q

If an employee deviates from the medical protocols, what happens?

A

Employee must be prepared to document why it was necessary

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21
Q

While at an emergency scene or when dealing with the public in any situation, the greatest degree of _____ will be required.

A

Silence compatible with an efficient discharge of duty

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22
Q

What are specific tasks typically assigned to aerial companies?

A

Elevated master streams

Laddering a building beyond ground ladders

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23
Q

What are primary aerial company responsibilities and functions?

A

Elevated water streams

Salvage and overhaul

Secondary means of egress

Victim rescue

Ventilation

Laddering

Forcible entry

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24
Q

What are secondary functions of the aerial company?

A

Utility control

RIT

Engine company operations

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25
Initial concerns for the aerial company on fire ground operations pertain to:
Apparatus positioning to perform aerial functions or Staging out of vehicular travel lanes
26
Aerial company response are covered by:
Response Assignment Strategy and Basic Fire Attack
27
What is the rescue company composed of?
Firefighter/paramedics Officers
28
What are basic rescue company responsibilities and operations?
BLS and ALS Establish communications with medical facilities Transport to hospital Vehicle Extrication Fire ground operations
29
Rescue company responses are covered by:
Response Assignment Strategy
30
As the first arriving unit at a non-medical scene, the following guidelines are in effect for the rescue company:
Size up Prepare to perform all engine company functions Advise via radio initial actions Report availability to command Establishing command is not recommended
31
As part of a multi-unit response to structure fire, what does the rescue do?
Prepare to perform all engine company functions Report to command for orders
32
Who is considered first responders to a hazmat incident?
SFRD units, aside from Hazmat Team
33
What do operational concerns of the first responders deal with primarily?
Scene safety Product identification
34
While en route to a hazmat incident, first responders should check with dispatch for additional information, particularly:
Material involved Size of leak or spill Possibility of immediate live endangerment
35
After the first responders at a hazmat incident identify situations that present immediate danger to life and isolate appropriately, what do they do next?
Evacuate all people (civilians, PD, FD)
36
First responders should attempt immediate rescue at a hazmat incident when the rescuers are:
Fully aware of the risk posed to them Wearing full PPE and SCBA Utilizing a bare minimum number of personnel lf hazard is unknown or exceptionally life-threatening, wait for Hazmat team
37
First responders should identify the hazardous material by:
Consulting witnesses or facility personnel DOT ERG as initial guide Identifying type and size of container Container lettering or markings Shipping papers
38
When is a first responder able to mitigate the situation with units on scene of the hazmat incident?
Minor category I spills
39
What is used to report all hazardous material incidents to dispatch?
Uniform Classification System for Categorizing Hazardous Material Incidents
40
The cleanup and recovery of all spilled and leaked materials is the responsibility of whom?
Property/vehicle owner
41
What does SFRD do with spilled or leaked materials?
Will not take possession Will not remove from scene Will not take to City facility
42
What type of dive operations fall within the jurisdiction of the SFRD as stipulated in City Code?
Emergency victim rescue Body recoveries Personal property recoveries Etc.
43
Assigned divers must have completed what courses?
Public Safety Diver Dive Rescue I
44
Who assigns members to the dive team?
Fire Chief
45
When is the Dive Rescue component of the Special Response Team considered “in-service”?
When staffed with at least 2 divers Preferably stationed with the apparatus
46
Dive team members who are physically or otherwise unable to perform dive duties shall report their status to whom?
Station commander Who will inform the Shift Commander
47
What is checked out daily in regards to the dive team?
Mechanical operation of the dive response unit Inventory of the dive response unit Auxiliary equipment located on various apparatus
48
The documentation of all maintenance and check-outs of the dive equipment/unit shall be forwarded to whom?
Shift Commander
49
Who is able to drive the dive vehicle?
Dive team personnel or support personnel
50
Additional dive team personnel may be assigned from other units to support dive team operations at the direction of whom?
Battalion Chief
51
Who shall render a decision directing a recall of off-duty Dive Team personnel to assist in dive operations?
Battalion Chief In consultation with Dive Rescue Coordinator or Dive Team members
52
What are the minimum personnel for dive operations?
2 dive team members 2 support personnel
53
When do personnel have to wear a personal flotation device?
When operating near water
54
Where are the specific guidelines for Dive Rescue team operations located?
SFRD Special Operations Manual
55
What is documented for all dive recovery activities?
Vehicle and owner information This assists the Billing Department
56
When providing mutual aid for dive incidents, it is not the department’s normal practice to recover what?
Vehicles and other objects
57
Recovery operations can be:
Hazardous to SFRD divers 701.02 Time consuming Tax SFRD equipment
58
Recovery operations can be:
Hazardous to SFRD divers Time consuming Tax SFRD equipment Fees for recovery operations outside the City are: Not recoverable
59
What stations have rapid entry dive gear assigned?
39, 59, 72 and 83 Remainder of dive cache on Dive 92
60
What is the Rapid Entry Dive Gear made up of?
Dive Tank BC with built in weight and knife Divator MKII dive Mask 1st stage regulator 2nd stage regulator Dive light Throw bag
61
What is the minimum capacity of the dive tank?
63 cu feet
62
What is included in the throw bag?
3 PFDs Dive Rope Center Punch Secondary cutting device
63
What unit is the rapid dive entry dive gear stored?
Suppression unit Moved back to Suppression unit at end of the shift
64
Where should the diver of the station be assigned?
Suppression unit If assigned to Rescue, move gear to Rescue
65
Who is able to check out the dive gear?
Only department divers
66
What is the minimum pressure of the dive tank?
Not less than 2800 psi
67
How should the BC be checked for readiness?
Adjusted for individual diver size and weight added
68
Who is informed of a piece of dive equipment that is damaged or defective?
Station Captain Along with Shift BC and Logistics Division
69
What is included in the department issued dive gear?
Wet suit Fins Gloves Booties Snorkel and mask
70
If a diver has a medical contraindication, who is notified?
Their supervisor immediately Supervisor will notify the Shift BC
71
What does the diver conducted at the start of the shift?
Pre-dive neurological exam
72
On the Rapid Entry Dive Daily Checkout sheet, the divers at station 92 are to complete which part?
Personal Check only
73
What is critical during dive incidents?
Size up and information gathering
74
The first arriving officer is responsible for what?
Scene management Last scene point Witness interview Overall safety of the operation
75
Where should the search pattern begin?
Where the witness last saw the person or object go in the water
76
How is the dive site prepared for entry?
Roof ladder placement into water
77
What is the bottom time for the diver
5 minuts
78
The Rapid Entry Diver shall be responsible for all:
Dive decisions Dive safety Confirming last scene point Point of entry for the dive
79
Who has the final dive/no dive call?
Diver
80
The diver shall properly prepare for the rapid entry dive by completing the following:
Pre-dive gear checkout Pre-dive neurological exam No medical contraindications Diver to tender communication General scene safety Verifying entry/exit time and pressure with tender
81
During the dive, the diver shall be responsible for the following:
Monitor air pressure and dive depth Underwater scene survey Victim retrieval Constant communication with tender Calling off the dive
82
The diver shall be responsible for the following post dive:
Post-dive neurological exam Debrief the IC Debrief the Dive team if operation goes longer than 5 minutes Post-dive gear checkout
83
When the Dive Unit Rescue Divers arrive on scene, they shall be fully dressed and perform what?
Safety Diver and 90% diver
84
What are the possible weather conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?
Sunny Cloudy Overcast Stormy
85
What are the possible surface conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?
Calm Choppy Rough Stormy
86
What are the possible current conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?
None Light Medium Heavy
87
What are the possible visibility conditions on the Dive Entry Worksheet?
Excellent Good Moderate Poor
88
What is the visibility if the conditions are Excellent?
> 20 feet
89
What is the visibility if the conditions are Good?
10-20 feet
90
What is the visibility if the conditions are Moderate?
3-10 feet
91
What is the visibility if the conditions are Poor?
< 3 Feet
92
What is the PSI when the diver should be recalled to the surface?
1000 psi
93
What is the maximum dive time when the diver should be recalled to the surface?
20 minutes
94
Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 1 pull =
Ok or Nothing
95
Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 2 pulls =
Change direction
96
Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 3 pulls =
Surface
97
Dive signal: Tender to Diver: 4 pulls =
Stop don’t surface
98
Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 1 pull =
Ok or nothing
99
Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 2 pulls =
Need more line
100
Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 3 pulls =
Found object
101
Dive signal: Diver to Tender: 4 pulls =
Trouble
102
What does an USAR activation mean?
Formal request to mobilize and respond
103
During an activation, members are to arrive at a designated point-of-departure within _____ of being activated.
6 hours
104
What does an USAR alert mean?
Formal notification that an event has occurred and activation may be pending
105
Who is the sponsoring jurisdiction of the South Florida USAR Task Force?
City of Miami Fire Department
106
Who determines membership into the USAR Task Force?
Sole discretion of sponsoring jurisdiction, City of Miami
107
SFRD personnel who are active members of the Task Force must do what to be considered for activation status?
Request and receive permission in writing from the Fire Chief
108
When is USAR training done?
Off-duty time
109
In the event of a USAR alert, who and how are they notified?
Responsibility of the team member to notify the Shift Commander without delay
110
In the event of a USAR activation, who and how are they notified?
Responsibility of the team member to notify Shift Commander immediately
111
If USAR is activated what happens with the on-duty members?
Remain on operational duty until relieved by the shift commander
112
Alterations of hours of duty of personnel and overtime hours are to be reported to the _____ by the shift commander.
Administrative officer
113
Upon the deactivation of USAR, team members shall do what?
Immediately advise Shift Commander of their ability to return to duty
114
Who is notified of all USAR activations?
Fire Chief notified by the Shift Commander
115
Engine and Rescue company involvement in technical rescue incidents is limited to what?
Recognition and specialty team support roles
116
What is of paramount importance on technical rescue incidents?
Recognition of the potentially dangerous situations
117
What leads to injury or death to rescuers on technical rescue incidents?
Actions taken by improperly trained and under equipped rescuers
118
What is a priority for a technical rescue incident?
Early recognition for the need of Specialty Teams
119
What additional resources should respond to a technical rescue incident?
Battalion Chief Safety Officer or Operations Division Chief ALS rescue Specialty Teams Mutual aid
120
What is a confined space?
Area which is not intended for continual human occupancy Have limited means of egress Potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment
121
The effective rescuing of victims from these types of areas often requires the combination of _____ for mitigation.
Specialized tools and techniques
122
What is a trench rescue?
Narrow excavation made below the surface 701.04 Depth greater than width but no greater than 15 feet (measured at bottom)
123
What is required to effect victim rescue from a trench?
Specialized training and tools
124
What is considered a non-technical evacuation?
Less than 40 degrees inclination
125
What is considered a technical evacuation?
Greater than 40 degrees inclination Rough terrain that requires specific technical training
126
How many phases are there in a technical rescue operation?
5
127
What is phase I of the technical rescue operation?
Scene preparation and reconnaissance
128
What is step 1 of Phase I of the technical rescue operation?
Assessment
129
Command will have to send a recon team to determine what at a technical rescue operation?
Exact location Number of patients Nature of injuries
130
How many personnel are on the recon team?
Minimum of two
131
What equipment should be carried by the recon team?
Medical equipment
132
The decision to wait for TRT to arrive to a technical incident should be based on what?
Risk/benefit factor
133
What can be used for aerial recon?
Helicopter
134
What is step 2 of Phase I of the technical rescue operation?
Manpower and Equipment
135
Information that will be helpful in determining the need for additional resources would be:
Number of victims Location and conditions of victims Estimated angle of terrain Distance to victim Estimated time of evacuation
136
Command shall designate a safety group to identify _____.
All potential hazards
137
The Safety Group usually consists of what?
One member of TRT
138
What is left in place if the operation will be conducted in the Recovery mode?
Leave victim and related equipment in place for investigation
139
What is Phase II of the Technical Rescue Operation?
Pre-Rescue Operations
140
What are the three steps of the Phase II Pre-Rescue Operations?
Make the general area safe 701.04 Make the rescue area safe Pre-rescue/recovery
141
What is Phase III of the Technical Rescue Operation?
Rescue Operation
142
Rescue operations should be conducted from _____.
Low risk to high risk
143
How many attendants will be used to remove a victim in a stokes basket?
Minimum of 4 Face the direction of travel Face direction of anchor for steep angle evacuation
144
What is considered a high angle operation?
60 degrees
145
What is the safety factor for the rope system?
15:1
146
What type of rope technique should be used?
Double rope technique
147
What is considered a high risk operation?
Helicopter operations
148
What factors must be decided prior to using a helicopter?
Time of day Condition of victims Difficult access to the victims Qualifications of the pilot and rescuers
149
What is Phase IV of the Technical Rescue Operation?
Safety Considerations
150
What is the protective clothing that will be worn by all rescue personnel at a technical rescue operation?
Helmet Gloves Harnesses Eye protection
151
When is the consideration for CISM debriefing done?
Phase IV: Safety Considerations
152
What is Phase V of the Technical Rescue Operation?
Termination
153
Where is a team briefing/post incident analysis conducted after a technical rescue operation?
On site or at station As soon as possible
154
What will the rescuers of a technical rescue operation go through on scene or at the station?
Psychological “debriefing”
155
What are the reasons that a structural collapse or failure may happen?
Natural occurrences Fire or explosion Human factors Engineering errors
156
What is an example of a natural occurrence that could cause a structural collapse or failure?
Hurricane Tornado High wind conditions Earthquake Floods, etc.
157
What is an example of a human factor that could cause a structural collapse or failure?
Accidental undersigned impact (airplane/vehicle) Intentional malicious damage
158
What is an engineering error that could cause a structural collapse or failure?
Poor design Poor connections Poor construction or materials used
159
What is Phase I of the Structural Collapse incident?
Scene preparation and reconnaissance
160
The first due Technical Rescue Team Officer shall obtain information from who that is on scene?
Company Officer Battalion Chief Structural engineer Job site foreman
161
What is Step 1 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Assessment
162
What is the size of the safety zone on a structural collapse incident?
Two times the height
163
If you cannot obtain blueprints or maps, what can be done?
On-site personnel draw a sketch
164
The first due engine companies shall stretch hose lines to the collapse site to protect what?
Exposures from fire or explosion
165
What is Step 2 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Manpower and equipment
166
Which department is FL Task Force 1?
Metro
167
Which department is FL Task Force 2?
Miami
168
Which type of engineers should respond to a structural collapse incident?
Structural Water Gas Electrical
169
What units should respond to the structural collapse incident?
Full structural response Multiple ALS rescue units and ambulances Cascade truck
170
What is step 3 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Make the General Area Safe
171
Who is assigned as the access control person?
Not a technical rescue team member
172
How should the structural collapse area be ventilated?
Positive pressure PPV may not work as needed
173
How do you assess the effectiveness of proper ventilation?
Atmospheric monitor reading Type of configuration of the space, void, and crevice
174
Who is able to determine that the structure and/or atmospheric readings have become unsafe at a structural collapse?
Incident commander Structural engineer And/or Safety Officer
175
What is Step 4 of Phase 1 of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Structure/Hazard Evaluation Marking System
176
The structure/hazard evaluation markings should be performed prior to:
Rescue operations
177
How big is the square that the TRT personnel will mark on the entrance?
2’ x 2’
178
What color is the spray paint used in structural collapse?
Orange only
179
What does a blank box indicate?
Structure is accessible safe for search Damage is minor or completely pancaked
180
What does a box with a single slash indicate?
Significantly damaged Some areas safe, but other needs shoring
181
What does a box with a crossing slash indicate?
Not safe for search Remote search can proceed at significant risk
182
What does an arrow next to a marking box indicate?
Direction of safe entrance
183
What does the symbol “HM” indicate near a marking box?
Hazardous material condition
184
What is step 5 in Phase 1 of the structural collapse incident?
Entry Preparation
185
Who should be a part of each entry and rescue team?
At least one paramedic
186
Structural collapse entry teams shall be equipped with:
1 member with portable radio Explosion-proof lighting or cyalume Atmospheric monitoring, personal units preferred Proper protective gear Coveralls Nomex Appropriate footwear Hearing and eye protection Helmet Gloves
187
What is Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Exploration and Search
188
What is Step I of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Search Assessment Marking
189
How big is the ‘X’ drawn for the structural collapse incident?
2’ x 2’
190
The ‘X’ will be constructed in two operations. The single slash will be drawn when?
Upon entry 701.04 Means search in progress
191
The ‘X’ will be constructed in two operations. The crossing slash will be drawn when?
Upon completing the search and exit of structure
192
When will the markings inside the ‘X’ be written?
At the time of this assessment
193
What is written in the left quadrant of the ‘X’?
Rescue team completing search
194
What is written in the top quadrant of the ‘X’?
Time and date members left structure
195
What is written in the right quadrant of the ‘X’?
Personnel hazards
196
What is written in the bottom quadrant of the ‘X’?
Number of live and dead victims removed
197
How are the locations of where the victims were found noted?
Orange spray paint to make exact location
198
What is Step II of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Entry
199
Entry decisions shall be made based on what?
Known locations of victims Safety of the opening Atmospheric readings Ease of recovery points
200
If the location of the victim is known or suspected, how many entry points should be attempted
Two separate points
201
Prior to entry of a structural collapse, each member shall be logged on to what?
Technical Rescue Documentation sheet
202
Teams shall be rotated frequently depending on what?
Physical activity Stress Fatigue Weather conditions
203
Each technical team shall be assigned to rehab upon removal from the space until what?
Rehydration and vital signs are within normal limits
204
What should be done once inside the void or space of a structural collapse incident?
Interior team communication Communications with operations exterior Make entry points or patterns with chalk, spray paint, lumber crayons to egress Move as a team Beware of elevation and unstable footing
205
Before deciding which victims should be rescued first, what should be considered?
Victim condition Position Difficulty extricating
206
How should debris be removed when working close to a victim?
By hand
207
When a buried victim is discovered alive in a collapse after house of work, what is done with the body?
Do not remove unless secondary collapse, fire, electrocution, or drowning is imminent
208
What is Part III of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Search and Rescue of Surface Victims
209
What percentage of victims are found on top of debris or lightly buried?
50%
210
What is Step 4 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Locating Casualties using the Hailing system
211
How are rescuers positioned when using the hailing system?
In calling and listening positions
212
Once a sound is picked up using the hailing system, what else should be attempted?
One additional fix from another angle
213
What is the signal for cease operation/All quiet?
1 long blast (3 seconds)
214
What is the signal for evacuate the area?
3 short blasts (one second each)
215
What is the signal for resume operations?
1 long and 1 short blast
216
What is Step 5 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Void Searches
217
Where are voids located inside a collapsed structure?
Strong or sheltered parts of a structure
218
What can be considered as survivable voids?
Normal transportation corridors
219
How do personnel progress into voids?
Least damaged into the most damaged
220
What is Step 6 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Breaching
221
Where are reinforced concrete columns or filled cells typically found in homes?
Corners and adjacent to window and door openings
222
What is Step 7 of Phase II of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Emergency Shoring
223
The size and type of shoring will be dependent on what?
Weight to be supported 701.04 Condition of element to be supported
224
How much does concrete/masonry weigh?
125-150 lbs per cubic foot
225
How much does normal concrete floor weigh?
100-150 lbs per square foot
226
What should be checked prior to shoring?
Base Foundation Ground conditions
227
Shoring systems should act like what?
Double funnel
228
What is the maximum length of a shore?
No more than 50 times its width
229
Cribbing limitations are based on _____ cross grain bearing.
500 psi
230
Failure due to crushing of cross grain wood is:
Slow and noisy Gives warning to rescuers
231
Cribbing’s lateral stability is dependent on what?
Width to height ratio
232
What is the rule of thumb for building crib boxes?
3 times as high as width
233
What is the capacity of 4x4 crib (2 layer):
24,000 lbs
234
What is the capacity of 4x4 crib (3 layer):
48,000 lbs
235
What is the capacity of 6x6 crib (2 layer):
60,000 lbs
236
What is the capacity of 6x6 crib (3 layer):
135,000 lbs
237
What are the two types of wood used for cribbing?
Douglas Fir Southern Pine
238
What is the safety factor for wood cribbing?
2 to 1
239
What is Phase III of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Patient Removal
240
What are the preferred methods of victim removal from a collapse?
Mechanical advantage systems Manual winches
241
What is Phase IV of the Structural Collapse Incident?
General Debris Removal
242
How is general debris removed?
Heavy machinery
243
What is Phase V of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Safety Considerations
244
What is the proper protective clothing for a structural collapse?
turnout clothing or flame retardant jumpsuit Gloves Helmet Safety glasses or goggles Hearing protection Mask
245
When are lock out/tag out procedures done?
Phase V Safety Considerations of the Structural Collapse Incident
246
When is a safety analysis performed on a structural collapse incident?
Every 30 minutes
247
When is CISM considered in a structural collapse incident?
Phase V Safety Considerations
248
What is Phase VI of the Structural Collapse Incident?
Termination
249
Who is responsible for sealing entry points to ensure no additional entries are made?
Contractor or responsible party
250
When will the workers of a structural collapse go through a psychological debriefing?
After each work period or shift
251
What is the definition of a structural collapse?
Loss of structure’s integrity causing the collapse
252
Specific operational guidelines for the Specialty Team members specific to the type of emergency are provided in detail in the _____.
SFR Special Operations Manual
253
To be a member of any specialty team, all personnel must:
Complete recognized course Request in writing for admittance Receive approval from Fire Chief Remain in good standing through drills and training
254
Who has overall responsibility on all Technical Rescue Operations?
Battalion Chief
255
What is a high-rise defined as?
Cannot reach fire via normal pre-connected lines Cannot reach via hoisting Where standpipes must be used Building with internal hallways over two stories
256
The construction of most high-rise buildings effectively shields what?
Interior from the outside
257
What is secondary in urgency in most high-rise situations?
Establishing command outside the structure
258
What is the most prudent command option at a high-rise situation?
Passing of command by first arriving officer to next arriving officer
259
How large is the hazard zone at a high-rise incident?
200 feet
260
Who is supposed to remain clear of the hazard zone?
Civilians Police Non-essential firefighting personnel
261
All personnel, civilians, and FD personnel must remain at least _____ away from hose lines supplying the building Siamese.
50 feet
262
Who should be assigned as quickly as possible to the firefighting level of a confirmed fire?
Chief Fire Officer 701.05 Division XX
263
Once attack companies have confirmed an actual fire on an upper floor, Command must be concerned with what?
Additional resources Provide life safety Provide water supply Size up conditions Assign RIT Provide support systems
264
Who is responsible for establishing lobby control?
Driver of the first arriving engine
265
What is Lobby Control equipped with?
Full bunker gear with SCBA Portable radio Knox box key
266
Who is responsible for maintaining elevator control?
Lobby control?
267
Who is responsible to record names and passports of firefighting personnel going up into the building?
Lobby Control
268
The National Elevator Code calls for elevators to _____ upon activation of fire detection system components.
Automatically return to building lobby
269
What can quickly disable elevators?
Water from sprinkler systems and firefighting streams
270
When should a firefighter not take an elevator to a floor?
Reported fire Smoke odor Alarm activation
271
The elevator can be used in what mode?
Fireman Service mode
272
How are firefighters supposed to be equipped when utilizing elevators during an emergency?
Fully bunkered out SCBA tank on Prepared to don SCBA face piece
273
Where should the elevator be stopped at an emergency?
2 floors below
274
All crews riding in elevator during fire emergencies shall be equipped with:
ull bunker gear/SCBA Forcible entry equipment Radio
275
During the initial fire attack, who should proceed to the fire area?
At least two companies
276
Where will companies set up for operation at a high rise?
Floor below the incident
277
Where are firefighting hose lines connected in a stairwell?
Not on the same floor or above Except in a true smoke tower stairwell
278
Pump operators shall delivery _____ fire flow to the attack line.
Minimum of 150 gpm
279
If fire has already extended into an interior hallway, fire officers should what?
Seriously consider the deployment of a backup line prior to fire attack
280
Fire attack in a high-rise should never begin until what is verified?
A sustained water supply
281
When will firefighters use the hose in the hose cabinets?
Extreme circumstances
282
What should be deployed when it is obvious that the fire has gained considerable headway?
2.5” attack line to the fire area
283
Who will determine the urgency of supplementing a building’s water supply?
Command
284
Dry standpipe systems require what?
Urgent and immediate supplementation
285
Which buildings require less urgency in supplying the system with a water supply?
Wet standpipes and internal pumps
286
What is not used to supply the standpipe/sprinkler system?
Large diameter (4” & 5”)
287
The driver operator shall deliver a minimum of _____ operating from standpipes.
150 gpm to all 1.75”
288
Driver operators conducting pump evolutions within _____ of a building with a confirmed fire must wear helmet and bunker coat.
100 feet
289
The ladder company should ascend to the top of the stairwell:
Looking for and opening any roof hatches for vertical ventilation
290
Personnel assigned to stairwell support should station themselves:
On every other floor Remove bunker gear to reduce heat stress Should not travel more than 2 flights
291
When is a Base Staging Area required?
Extended firefighting operation above a third floor
292
What is the radio designation for the Base Staging Area?
Base
293
Where is the base staging area established?
Two floors below the fire floor
294
Where is the RIT deployed to for staging?
Stairwell of the floor immediately below fire floor
295
Unless otherwise directed by Command, who assumes the role of RIT?
Third arriving engine
296
A RIT crew shall remain operational at a high-rise until the environment in the building has been:
Reduced to no longer dangerous to life and health
297
When shielding from a building does not allow for units to communicate with the outside command, communications should be relayed to the outside via:
Lobby Control or operate on a separate channel
298
What is the mission of the first arriving engine and rescue?
Assess conditions on fire floor and prepare for fire attack
299
What does the Officer of the first arriving engine bring on a high rise?
Hand light Elevator keys Utility line
300
What does the driver of the first arriving engine do?
Report to Lobby with knox box keys
301
What does the firefighter of the first arriving engine bring?
High rise kit
302
What do the firefighters of the first arriving Rescue bring?
Extend-A-bag Hand light Rabbit tool Irons
303
What does the officer of the first arriving ladder bring?
Hand light Elevator keys Irons
304
What does the driver of the first arriving ladder bring?
Pike pole Utility line
305
What does the firefighter of the first arriving ladder bring?
Rabbit tool 2 spare SCBA bottles
306
What is the mission of the second arriving engine and rescue?
Report to floor below fire and prepare to support attack crew
307
What does the officer of the second arriving engine bring?
Hand light Elevator keys Spare SCBA bottle
308
What does the driver of the second engine do?
Drop off crew, proceed to support standpipes
309
What does the firefighter of the second arriving engine bring?
High rise kit
310
What do the firefighters on the second arriving rescue bring?
Extend-A-bag 701.05 Hand light 2 spare SCBA bottles
311
What is the mission of the third arriving engine?
Report to command, obtain TIC, prepare to serve as RIT floor below
312
What does the officer of the third arriving engine bring?
Thermal imager Search rope Hand light Elevator keys
313
What does the firefighter of the third arriving engine bring?
Irons Spare SCBA bottle
314
High-rise property can be exposed to extraordinary property loss due to:
Water and smoke damage
315
What is used to repack the high-rise pack?
Return to station and utilize dry hose
316
How is the used high-rise pack hose dried?
Accordion folded on bay floor Hung in hose tower
317
What does the metro load high rise kit consist of:
100ft of 1 3/4” attack line 1 TFT breakaway nozzle Gated wye
318
t did the 50ft extend-a-bag replace?
Short section of 2 1/2
319
Who are viable targets for terrorism?
Emergency response personnel
320
Who may advise public safety agencies to be on a heightened state of alert?
Local, state, federal agencies
321
Who may wish to place the SFRD on a heightened state of alert?
Fire Chief or designee
322
During a heightened state of alert, what happens with the bay doors?
Closed at all times unless crew in bay
323
If the ownership of a vehicle in the parking lot cannot be ascertained with the assistance of the police department, who will be notified?
Duty shift commander
324
Where are training WMD kits located?
Training division
325
Which units will have WMD kits issued?
In service rescue and engine companies
326
How many WMD kits does the rescue unit have?
2 sets of PPE
327
How many WMD kits does the engine have?
3 sets of PPE
328
What does each WMD PPE kit contain?
1 Scott cartridge adapter 1 NBC air purifying cartridge 1 pair of silvershield gloves Hood saramex splash resistant coverall
329
What boots are to be used with the EMD PPE kit?
Structural firefighting boots
330
What level of protection does the WMD PPE kit and structural firefighting boots provide?
Level C Protection against solids, particulates, mists, and light splashes
331
What level of protection does the WMD PPE, structural boots, and an SCBA provide?
Level B When higher levels of respiratory protection are needed
332
The WMD kits are designed to protect rescuers who operate in the:
Warm zone only
333
The WMD kits are designed to protect rescuers who operate in the:
Warm zone only
334
The WMD kit was never designed to permit entry into a Hot Zone without stringent:
Monitoring and positive identification and confirmation of substance
335
The WMD kits are designed to protect the rescuer against what type of contamination?
Residual on victims who are being: Decontaminated Triaged Treated in warm zone
336
The NBC cartridge is very effective against what contaminants?
Nuclear and biological
337
The NBC cartridge has a particulate matter efficiency of _____.
99.997%
338
The NBC cartridge filters out particles greater than _____.
0.3 microns
339
How big are Anthrax spores?
From 3 to 10 microns
340
The NBC cartridge is effective against a variety of _____ compounds.
Organic and inorganic chemical
341
The NBC cartridge is effective against Ammonia at:
500ppm
342
The NBC cartridge is effective against Nerve Gases at:
1000 ppm
343
The NBC cartridge is effective against hydrogen cyanide at:
4000 ppm
344
The NBC cartridge is effective against Benzene at:
50 ppm
345
What are considered nerve gases?
Sarin Tabun VX
346
The NBC cartridge is effective against Chlorine at:
5000 ppm
347
The NBC cartridge is effective against Hydrogen Chloride at:
1000 ppm
348
The NBC cartridge is effective against Sulfur Dioxide at:
300 ppm
349
The NBC cartridge is effective against Phosgene at
2000mg/m3
350
The NBC cartridge is effective against Hydrogen Sulfide at:
5000 ppm
351
The NBC cartridge is effective against Chloropicrin at:
5000 ppm
352
The NBC cartridge is effective against what type of gas?
Tear gases/riot control agents
353
The duration of the NBC cartridge effectiveness for particulate screening:
Several days
354
The duration of the NBC cartridge effectiveness for chemical exposure:
Varies widely
355
What are factors affecting the useful life of the NBC cartridge?
Temperature Humidity Concentration of the challenge chemical
356
NBC cartridges are expected to provide a minimum of _____ protection against _____ chemical exposure.
6-8 hours Secondary (residual)
357
What is not single use/disposable in the WMD kit?
Mask Cartridge adapter Boots
358
Under normal situations, decontamination is performed and/or directed by:
Hazardous materials teams
359
During WMD events, decontamination may be performed by:
Engine/rescue companies
360
What type of gloves should be used by the engine company when performing decon?
Butyl gloves
361
How are the casualties separated during decon?
Asymptomatic Symptomatic Non-ambulatory
362
Which casualties will be immediately decontaminated?
Casualties who have liquid agent on skin and/or clothing
363
What is the decontamination mixture?
1 part household bleach to 9 parts water = 0.5% solution 701.06 Full strength household bleach = 5% solution
364
What is the 0.5% solution used on?
Skin decon
365
What is the 5% solution used on?
Clothing and equipment decon
366
What is the chemical for “dry chlorine” granules?
Calcium hypochlorite
367
What is the concentration for the dry chlorine mixture?
1 ounce of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 0.5% solution 10 ounces of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 5% solution
368
What is the water temperature for decontamination?
Between 60 and 70F Between 16 and 21C
369
What is the method of water/solution application for decontamination?
Portable sprayers Portable showers Hose streams (small diameter at low pressure)
370
What are the types of decontamination?
Passive (removal of clothing) Dry Wet Cross Ventilation (electric fans preferred) Combination of the above
371
What is the engine company assigned at each decon site?
Water supply
372
What is the truck company assigned at each decon site?
Cross ventilation, etc.
373
What is the PD assigned at each decon site?
Security and control
374
Decontamination crews should be rotated at no more than _____ intervals.
1 hour
375
What is critical to the success of the decontamination operation if lives are to be saved?
Speed and thoroughness (whole body decon)
376
During a heightened state of alert, station commanders shall ensure that all units in their quarters have the issued copy of _____ on board.
Jane’s Bio/Chem handbook
377
Upon recognizing that a situation is a WMD incident, the incident commander shall make sure that dispatch notifies whom?
County warning point
378
What is the county wide warning point’s number?
954-320-0520
379
What unit number is the aerial platform unit?
387 Known as the Platform
380
No one shall operate the platform vehicle unless they have been properly trained in _____.
Advanced Platform Operations
381
Driver operators that have not been trained in Advanced Platform Operations can and are expected to assist in what?
Operating the pump panel
382
When are firefighters allowed to operate the basket controls of the platform?
When supervised by a trained operator at the pedestal
383
Who is able to operate the turntable aerial controls?
Only trained driver and officers
384
No one shall operate the basket aerial controls during training or during an actual incident without what?
A trained operator positioned at the turntable control station
385
What must be worn when personnel are operating or climbing on the aerial?
Helmet and gloves Including the turntable operator
386
Anyone climbing or operating in the basket shall wear what?
Safety belt
387
All personnel operating in the basket or operating from a fixed position on the aerial, must wear what?
Ladder belt
388
Whenever personnel are climbing the aerial or transferring in or out of the platform basket, what shall be activated?
Emergency stop button
389
Under normal conditions, the aerial shall not be operated any closer than _____ of distribution power lines.
25 feet
390
In exigent (life threatening) circumstances the aerial may operate within _____ but no closer than _____ to distribution power lines.
Within 25 feet, no closer than 10 feet
391
Whenever the aerial is operated less than 25 feet from distribution power lines, what must be in place?
Safety officer Ensures no one approaches or touches apparatus
392
What wheels are chocked on the Platform?
Front wheels (front and rear of wheel)
393
When will the ladder company conduct a Pierce 50-hour Inspection?
First Sunday of each month
394
Any items requiring the checking of torque shall:
Not be conducted by SFRD personnel
395
Under normal situations, the basket may not be placed within _____ of a structure without what?
4 feet without an operator/spotter in the basket
396
The platform should operate at _____ when the basket is at close proximity to a structure.
Low idle
397
What are the movement capabilities of the platform?
Extension Rotation Elevation
398
Only one movement should be performed at a time except when?
Emergency situations
399
Who adds hydraulic fluid to the reservoir on the platform?
City garage
400
When can the ladder be retracted with water in the waterway?
If a discharge is opened at the tip or base of the ladder
401
If the platform is short jacked, the aerial should not be operated past what?
Longitudinal axis on the side that is short jacked
402
The platform will rarely do what?
Exceed posted speed limits, even when Code 3
403
What does Extend Ladder mean?
Reach out with ladder
404
What does Retract Ladder mean?
Return outstretched ladder
405
What does Raise Ladder mean?
Increase angle of elevation
406
What does Lower Ladder mean?
Decrease angle of elevation
407
What does Ladder Left mean?
Rotate ladder to pedestal operator’s left
408
What does Ladder Right mean?
Rotate ladder to pedestal operator’s right
409
When is the intercom system on the platform tested?
During daily check out Initial stages of placing aerial into operation
410
If the intercom system test results are negative, what will be done?
Rely on portable radios for pedestal and basket communication
411
The aerial platform shall not be used to:
Force timbers or cornices Pull or push objects
412
The use of forced entry into a structure or vehicle should only occur if:
Exigent circumstances exist
413
Law enforcement shall not be notified to assist with forcible entry unless what?
Potential scene safety hazard is present or other circumstance
414
What causes a poor public perception in regards to forcible entry?
Excessive damage
415
When are companies permitted to force entry at a medical emergency or medical alarm
Patient is visualized and incapacitated or unable to open door Reasonable suspicion that a patient is incapacitated or unconscious Neighbor has reason to believe occupant is having medical emergency
416
If forcible entry occurs and no patient or dangerous situation is found at a medical alarm or medical emergency, what happens?
Police department contacted for assessment and report
417
If forcible entry occurs and no patient or dangerous situation is found at a medical alarm or medical emergency, what happens?
Police department contacted for assessment and report
418
If forcible entry occurs and no hazardous situation is present at fire alarm or water alarm calls, who is notified?
Dispatch center
419
Who established the tactical paramedic program?
SFRD and SPD
420
What is the purpose of the tactical paramedic program?
Immediate EMS in potential hostile environment
421
The SWAT Medics will accompany the SPD SWAT team during:
Scheduled Unscheduled Training activities
422
Who determines when the SWAT medics will accompany the SWAT team?
SWAT team commander
423
The SWAT Medics will render medical care to whom?
Officers Fire personnel Victims Civilians
424
The SWAT medic team members will operate under whom?
Law enforcement direction/command of SPD
425
The number of personnel assigned to the SWAT medic team will be determined by whom?
Fire Chief in conjunction with the Police Chief
426
Who is able to suspend or remove personnel from the SWAT medic team?
SWAT Team (commander) and/or Fire Chief
427
The activation of the SWAT Medic team will be the result of:
Unscheduled event/incident Scheduled event
428
What is an example of an unscheduled event?
Hostage situation
429
What is an example of a scheduled event?
High risk warrant
430
When can SWAT Medic members be activated?
On-duty Off-duty Combination
431
The notification of activation for SWAT medic team members shall be done in accordance with the notification process of what?
SPD Policy and Procedures for the SPD SWAT Team
432
Upon being notified/activated, the SWAT medic Team Leader (or designee) will make contact with whom?
Deputy Chief of Operations (primary) 701.09 Duty Chief (secondary)
433
Who will the Deputy Chief of Operations (or Duty Chief) notify of the activation?
Battalion Chief
434
What is the utmost consideration of the SWAT team operation?
Safety of the team
435
Who may request a rescue unit to be staged for the duration or part of the SWAT operation?
SWAT Medic team
436
Who has the final say on the use of on-duty resources?
Deputy Chief of Operations (or Duty Chief)
437
Once assembled, the SWAT Medic team leader will make contact with FIRECOM to notify them:
That they are in-service May request a tactical channel Out of service when operation is completed
438
Fire rescue units will be dispatched to activated fire alarms based on what?
Type of alarm Occupancy of the structure
439
Who responds Code 3 to multi-unit response to an activated fire alarm?
First-due fire unit All others Code 1
440
Who is responsible for maintenance of the fire alarm/suppression system?
Owner Per the Florida Fire Prevention Code
441
Who is responsible for resetting the activation of the fire alarm?
Owner
442
Who is responsible for proper functioning of the system?
Building management
443
Who is permitted to make repairs on fire alarm systems?
Fire alarm specialty electrical contractor Electrical contractor Fire sprinkler contractor Others properly certified
444
Fire alarm systems are designed to function in what mode?
Trouble
445
Failure to achieve a reset of a trouble mode:
Does not require immediate repair Notify FLS via fax or voice mail before shift is over
446
If a fire alarm is unable to reset in a multiple residential building and a repair cannot be effected, what happens?
Building management will be advised by the IC to provide a fire watch IC shall contact FLS and advise Fire Marshal Next business day if on weekend or holiday
447
Supplementing of private protection systems with fire department engine operations has proven imperative in:
Gaining control of fires Reducing property damage
448
Area familiarization through _____ will allow personnel to be familiar with all structures that have private fire protection systems.
In-service inspections Target hazard book use
449
The second arriving engine has the responsibility to supplement the standpipe/sprinkler system with what?
Additional water flow Increase water pressure
450
The connection to the FDC should be made with:
dual 2 1/2" hose
451
Why are 2 1/2 hose used to connect to the FDC?
Increased pressures
452
Pre-fire planning is meant to reduce the loss of life and property as well as increase firefighter safety through:
Analysis of date Construction features Resource needs Tactical applications
453
Who performs pre-fire plans?
Company officer and crew
454
Who assigns pre-fire plans?
Fire Marshal’s office
455
The structures and/or properties for Pre-fire planning shall be those which, in the event of fire:
Present large loss of life Present large dollar loss Present unusual or severe hazards Contain complex layouts or obstacles Require special tactical approach
456
Fire operations are influenced by factors such as:
Occupancy Building construction Location and size of fire
457
What is consistent with almost every structure fire?
Benchmarks and tasks
458
All functions of basic fire attack are directed toward either:
Saving lives or property conservation
459
If the initial arriving company has determined that all occupants have safely exited the structure, what will the second unit become?
RIT
460
Which structures require a secondary means of egress?
Multi-story
461
What are secondary actions that can be assigned by IC?
Utilities Water supply Ventilation Secondary search Salvage and overhaul
462
Who has empowered individuals to properly handle, track, store, distribute, and dispose of controlled substances?
Fire Chief, through the Office of the Medical Director
463
The framework for the controlled substance policy was developed by:
Ft. Lauderdale FR
464
Who is responsible for maintaining accurate records and evidence of compliance with controlled substances?
Administrative Deputy Chief or designee
465
Controlled substances are those substances defined by whom?
Medical Director US Department of Justice DEA Section 304 and 1008 of Controlled Substance Act of 1970 Florida Administrative Code Chapter 64E-2.037 Security of Medications and State of Florida Board of Pharmacy Department of Professional Regulation
466
What are the controlled substances designated by our department?
Morphine Sulfate Diazepam (Valium) Midazolam (Versed) Nitrous Oxide (Nitronox)
467
What is the definition of a vial?
Glass bottle containing controlled substance
468
What is the definition of a pre-filled syringe?
Glass/plastic container containing controlled substance
469
What is the definition of a container?
Hard plastic tubular container with “plug” cap that houses vial or syringe
470
What is the definition of a seal?
Numbered plastic fastener that secures vial in the container
471
What is the definition of a controlled substance log?
Form utilized for tracking and replacement of controlled substances
472
What is the definition of a controlled substance box?
Plastic box for storage of sealed controlled substance containers
473
Where does SFRD obtain its controlled substances?
Medical Director
474
The Department shall maintain records on file on controlled substances at:
The main location where the Department maintains controlled substances
475
All inventories and records of controlled substances shall be maintained for:
At least 2 years
476
What controlled substance should be maintained separately from other controlled substances?
Schedule II
477
What is a schedule II controlled substance?
Morphine Sulfate
478
What is a schedule III and IV controlled substance?
Diazepam Midazolam Nitrous
479
Who is responsible for maintaining complete, accurate, and up-to-date records for controlled substances
Support Services Division
480
What are the only licensed areas that controlled substances stored?
Public Safety Complex ALS units Medical Supply kits
481
How are controlled substances stored in the storage space?
In a locked safe
482
How are controlled substances stored on vehicles?
In on-board cabinet that is secured by a lock
483
Who is approved to handle controlled substances?
On-duty, state certified paramedics | Employee designated and approved by Fire Chief or Medical Director
484
For damaged or expired controlled substances, how is it returned to the EMS Shift Supervisor for replacement?
Vial removed Placed in clear bio-hazard bag with seal and security container
485
Which controlled substance seal will be a different color from other controlled substances?
Nitrous oxide
486
Who has access to the written controlled substance log?
Only Captain or Rescue Lieutenants
487
If there are any confirmed problems found in the controlled substance log, who will be notified?
Made immediately to EMS Shift Supervisor via chain of command Shift Supervisor shall notify BC and Administrative Deputy Chief
488
What color ink will the entries into the controlled substance log be?
Blue or black only
489
If a correction needs to be made in the controlled substance log, how is it corrected?
Single straight line drawn Initialed and dated
490
Who shall participate in the controlled substance custody change/inspection on the ALS engine?
Both Captain and Paramedic If captain is the paramedic, then D/O shall participate
491
When is the drug inventory done each day with the off-going and on-coming paramedic?
0805 Done face to face
492
The controlled substance logs shall be reviewed daily for what?
Accuracy of entry Completion of information Legibility of entries
493
When is the weekly review of the controlled substance log performed?
Every Sunday
494
Who performs the weekly controlled substance review?
First Rescue Lieutenant 702.05 Then station captain Then EMS Shift Supervisor
495
The completed controlled substance log will be forwarded to whom?
Administrative Deputy Chief or designee via chain of command
496
Any unused medication must be disposed of in the presence of:
At least 2 personnel One must be the officer of the rescue truck
497
Who authorizes changes in the amount of controlled substances carried?
EMS Medical Director and Fire Chief
498
Who will know the code to the padlock on the controlled substance box?
Crew and EMS Captain
499
If a controlled substance is used, what is returned to the EMS Shift Supervisor for replacement?
Vial Seal Container
500
What happens if there is an unexplained discrepancy in the count of controlled substance logbook and/or the controlled substance presents with an unacceptable condition?
Notify BC and EMS Shift Supervisor EMS Shift Supervisor will respond to location BC and Administrative Deputy Chief will be notified
501
What is the procedure for a missing, damaged, or tampered controlled substance?
Station Captain or Rescue Lieutenant will instruct crew not to touch anything BC and EMS Shift Supervisor notified immediately Unit taken out of service Determine need for PD by BC, EMS, and Admin Deputy Chief
502
If tampering is suspected who makes the determination to request PD?
Chief Officer
503
The Chief Officer investigating the controlled substance tampering will submit the report to whom?
Administrative Deputy Chief
504
Who orders controlled substances?
Administrative Deputy Chief
505
How many controlled substances are on the rescue unit?
Quantity, dosage, and medication are listed on vehicle checkout 702.05 Approved by medical director
506
How many controlled substances are on the suppression unit?
Quantity, dosage, and medication are listed on vehicle checkout Approved by medical director
507
What calls will the Battalion Chief have to respond to?
Mutual aid response excluding medical rescue calls Monitor the safety of SFRD personnel
508
If the Battalion Chief has to leave the city for mutual aid, who will be notified and take over the duties of the Battalion?
Duty Chief
509
In the event of a recall, the Battalion is expected to telephone whom?
Dispatch and report availability
510
What are the primary responsibilities of EMS Captain on medical calls?
Oversee ALS and BLS patient care Assume command Command of Medical Branch on MCIs
511
What are the primary responsibilities of EMS Captain on fire calls?
IC Aide Accountability Officer RIT Liaison IMS division or group leader Join up with other personnel to for a company
512
Who performs the responsibilities of the Duty Chief
Division Chief
513
What are responses that may warrant staff back up from the duty chief?
Major structure fires Significant rescue responses MCI Special Operations Situation taxing the existing command structure Situation that warrants administrative duties
514
The in-service Duty Chief is to report to _____ when activated.
Communications Center to assist dispatch personnel
515
What calls are staff officers required to respond?
Typically not required to respond to emergency calls
516
Staff officers are to remain available for recall via:
Telephone and/or pager
517
In situations where immediate availability of the staff officer is impractical, what happens?
Contact with dispatch is not anticipated
518
In the event of a forecasted natural disaster, staff officers are to make contact with _____ in anticipation of a recall.
Headquarters
519
When is accepting a patients belongings determined to be appropriate?
Items or medication in patient’s best interest Not likely to disrupt or compromise normal operations Reasonable efforts to secure items were made Patient not capable of being responsible and no family
520
Once a representative from the SFRD accepts custody of a patient’s belongings, it is imperative that:
Proper documentation indicates who and where items went
521
Where are items listed?
PCR
522
Once a representative from the SFRD accepts custody of a patient’s belonging what should documented?
Who and where the items were left with
523
All items should be inventoried and listed where?
PCR
524
What should be documented in the PCR regarding the patients’ belongings?
Hospital name Person at the facility
525
What type of approach is needed to minimize injury to the victim and maintaining safety to companies during the extrication?
Systematic
526
What is the process of removing a vehicle from around a person?
Vehicle extrication
527
What term is a universal safety work used to STOP all activity on scene?
FREEZE
528
What signal can be used to FREEZE?
A hand or tap on the shoulder
529
What is the process of evaluating, controlling and rendering safe for exigent operations?
Stabilization
530
What is an area extending outward from the vehicle where rescue workers will determine the best course of action to remove an entrapped victim?
Action circles
531
The two areas surrounding the accident are called?
Inner and outer circle
532
What area is strategically located outside the action circle area that is accessible for all crew members on the emergency scene?
Tool Staging Area
533
Who should be advised of all Extended Extrications?
Dispatch
534
Who should complete the Outer Circle?
Company officers
535
Who should be tasked with completing the Inner Circle?
A firefighter
536
The vehicle should not be touched until the inner circle has been cleared of?
Energized outside source
537
When considering fire suppression at an extrication what should be deployed at a minimum?
A dry chemical extinguisher
538
What is preferred for fire suppression at an extrication?
1-3/4” hose line with foam capabilities
539
When stabilizing a vehicle during extrication, how far away should a smart key be removed?
At least 15 feet from vehicle
540
Orange and Bright Blue colored cables in a vehicle indicate what?
HIGH VOLTAGE
541
How much volts of direct current can high voltage cables carry?
750 volts
542
Where are hybrid vehicles most commonly marked?
In the rear
543
How long is the electrical drain down time for air bags?
30 secs to 20 mins
544
Side curtain air bags deploy how far?
5” to 10”
545
Steering wheel air bags deploy how far?
10”
546
Passenger air bags deploy how far?
20"
547
What are the acceptable means for stabilizing a vehicle?
Step chocks Box cribbing Struts (Rescue 42’s, Z-Mags, or similar) Cargo straps
548
What should be considered after stabilization of the vehicle with cribbing?
Pulling valve stems
549
What unit can be considered for extra cribbing and special equipment?
TRT unit
550
A member of the FD should make entry into the vehicle to begin ______ and to protect the patient from any additional injury during the extrication process.
Patient stabilization
551
Tempered glass should be removed with:
Rescue hammer Center punch Glass master
552
Laminated glass should be removed with what?
Glass master or saws
553
Once glass is removed, remove all plastics on post to expose what:
Airbag cylinders
554
Airbag cylinders that deploy side impact airbags are compressed to what PSI?
Over 3000 psi
555
Before extrication begins what should be removed from the side crews will be working on:
Glass Plastic Seat belts
556
Where is Boron and Ultra Strength Steel (UHSS) most common found in a vehicle?
Posts Roof rails Rocker panels
557
What is the primary means to secure the Knox Key?
Knox Box Electronic key retrieval system
558
In the event of failure of the Knox Box System each unit is also equipped with a _____ securing system.
SupraSafe key
559
What should be done in the event a key is lost or found missing?
Battalion Chief notified immediately 702.09 Missing equipment formed completed
560
Who should be notified if the gate cannot be returned to normal function before leaving
On duty shift commander
561
The on duty shift commander should assign an _____ to restore the gate system as soon reasonably available.
Available unit
562
What is the response to the mall for a confirmed false alarm by mall security?
1E – single engine response
563
What is the response to the mall for a fire alarm?
1A – First alarm assignment
564
What is the response to the mall for a smell of smoke?
1A – First alarm assignment
565
What is the response to the mall for a smoke or fire showing?
1A – First alarm assignment, plus notification of duty chief
566
What is the response to the mall for a working fire?
1A – First alarm assignment, plus 2A – Two alarm fire
567
What are the fire scenario objectives of a Mall fire?
Minimize life endangerment by evacuating occupants using security Locate, confine, and extinguish Keep property damage to a minimum
568
What is the mission of the first arriving engine to the Mall?
Determine the extent of the emergency and to initiate actions to mitigate the emergency
569
What is the minimum equipment an engine company will bring into the Mall during a fire?
Forcible entry tools 703.01 High-rise kit Hand lights
570
Why is the Company Officer at the Mall expected to transfer command as early as possible?
Limitations of command and limitations of radio communication
571
at is the mission of the first arriving rescue to the Mall?
Join first arriving engine and assist
572
The crew of the first arriving rescue should bring the following equipment for an incident at the Mall:
100 ft of 2 1/2 hose Hand lights Rope
573
When is the primary search of the immediate area of hazard at the Mall conducted?
After supplying fire attack group with equipment
574
What is the mission of the second arriving engine to the mall?
RIT and support entry team
575
In the absence of the Battalion Chief, who assumes command at the mall?
Second arriving engine
576
If the Battalion Chief is on scene at the mall, what does the second arriving engine prepare for?
RIT
577
What is the mission of the first arriving ladder at the mall?
Forcible entry and Search & Rescue
578
What type of ventilation may not be appropriate on the Mall?
Typical vertical ventilation
579
What makes ladder operations on the roof of the mall unnecessary and dangerous?
A good smoke removal system along with light weight construction
580
Where does the first arriving ladder park at an incident at the Mall?
Out of vehicle lanes and occupant exits
581
stream operations during the initial stages of a fire at the Mall should be directed at what?
Retarding flame spread
582
The ladder at the Mall fire may be repositioned to perform what function?
Ladder operations Elevated observation post
583
What is the mission of the Rescue Lieutenant on a Mall fire?
Incident Commander’s Aide
584
What are the primary responsibilities of the Rescue Lieutenant?
Passport accountability Mall liaison Tactical work sheet monitor
585
What is the mission of the Battalion Chief at the Mall fire?
Incident Commander
586
The Incident Commander should establish communications with whom while at the mall fire?
Mall security
587
The Incident Command should request dispatch to contact _____ at a mall fire.
Water Department to increase water pressure
588
What can mall security be used for at a fire at the Mall?
Evacuation
589
Primary searches outside the immediate fire area for victims:
Come second to fire control
590
All tactics at the Mall fire are based on what?
Preventing loss of life
591
The first arriving engine and rescue companies should direct their efforts to what at the mall fire?
Locating and confining the fire
592
What should be established inside the mall for a fire?
Division Supervisor Logistical staging area
593
Which type of operation has a poor outlook at a mall fire?
Drafting operations Few locations and several hundred feet away
594
Due to the malls steel construction, radio interference may happen. What will need to be done to improve radio communication?
Use non-repeated channel
595
Mall security should be contact to:
Control HVAC Use cameras to evaluate interior conditions Obtain keys to doors and gates Obtain dollies and carts for hose and equipment
596
Who is able to provide medical clearance of a patient?
Florida State Licensed physician
597
If police request for a patient to be medically cleared, what Who are able to apply a Baker Act?happens?
Patient is transported to nearest appropriate facility
598
Who are able to apply a Baker Act?
Licensed physicians and law enforcement
599
What is another name for OC Spray?
Pepper Spray
600
What does OC stand for in OC Spray | What is a lachrymatory agent?
Oleoriesin | Lachrymatory agentCapsicum
601
What type of agent is the OC Spray?
Chemical compound that stimulates corneal nerves in the eyes Causes tears, pain, and temporary blindness
602
What does pepper spray cause to happen to patients?
Inflammation of mucous membranes Closing of eyes Difficulty breathing Runny nose Coughing
603
How long do the effects of OC Spray last?
Around 30 to 45 minutes Diminished effects lasting for hours
604
What is another name for CN Gas?
Mace
605
What is the name of CN Gas?
Chloracetophenone gas
606
What type of agent is CN Gas?
Non-lethal irritant agency
607
What does the CN Gas contain?
Purified tear gas and chemical solvents that temporarily incapacitate a person Causes eye and skin irritation
608
What is the most common effect of Mace?
Burning sensation on the area affected Suffocating feeling if inhaled
609
What can minimize the effects of CN Gas/Mace?What is the duration of CN Gas/Mace?
Under the influence of alcohol or drugs
610
What is the durration of Mase?
30 minutes up to 2 hours Depends on person and treatment
611
What is tear gas?
Non-specific term for any chemical that is used to cause temporary incapacitation through irritation of eyes and/or respiratory system
612
What are popular tear gases?
Eye irritants: CS, CN, and CR Eye and Respiratory irritant: OC pepper spray
613
What is an ECD?
Electronic Control Device Taser
614
The ECD/Taser causes an immediate loss of the person’s _____.
Neuromuscular control and ability to perform coordinated action
615
What events could happen prior to the ECD?
Excited Delirium
616
What is the definition of excited delirium?
A state in which a person is in a psychotic and extremely agitated stat
617
What are the causes of excited delirium?
Overdose on stimulant/hallucinogenic drugs Drug withdrawal Non-medicated psychiatric patients Head trauma Diabetic emergency
618
What is happening mentally to an excited delirium patient?
Unable to focus or process rational thought or focus
619
What is happening physically to an excited delirium patient?
Organs functioning at excited rate, begin to shut down
620
What are the symptoms of excited delirium?
Bizarre and aggressive behavior Dilated pupils High body temp Incoherent speech Inconsistent breathing pattern Fear and panic Profuse sweating, shivering, hyperthermia High-risk situation of sudden death
621
What helps alleviate the discomfort of pepper spray or other chemical spray?
Copious amounts of water
622
According to medication manufacturer’s guidelines, medications should be stored at temperatures that range from _____.
55 to 85 F
623
Which vehicles have thermometers to check medication temperatures?
All ALS vehicles Stored in medical box of front line trucks
624
When is the thermometer checked for the medications?
0800 and 1600
625
If a medication shows signs of extreme temperature, the medication should be removed and forwarded to whom?
EMS Division
626
The temperature check sheets shall be sent:
Inter-office 704.02 Monthly to Logistics
627
The department must decontaminate and disinfect in accordance with what?
OSHA Health Standard 1910.1030
628
Decontamination is the process of:
Cleaning an object, substance, or surface to remove soiled contaminants
629
What is the minimum protection for decontamination?
Gloves and eye protection
630
Disinfection is the method used to:
Destroy and prevent growth of disease carrying microorganisms Viral or bacterial
631
What is the appropriate PPE for chemical protection when disinfecting
N95 mask Gloves Eye protection
632
What does OPIM stand for?
Other potentially infectious material
633
Surfaces that have become soiled must be decontaminated using what?
One-step germicidal detergent
634
What is the final disinfection step?
Byoplants Electrostatic Application System
635
Who is contacted to seek training to use the Byoplant?
EMS Captain
636
How is the application rates determined for the Byoplant?
Pre-established by department and manufacturer
637
What is the application rate for the Byoplant?
1 minute of spray per 500 sq/ft.
638
What is the objective to apply the product?
Wet sheen Not a saturation, soaking, or running of chemical
639
When is the Byoplanet used on Engine and Rescues?
Occur weekly Supply day or after suspected contamination
640
When is the Byoplant used on the Stations?
Quarterly During station rotations or after contamination
641
Who can provide access to the Byoplanet?
Shift Battalion Chief or EMS Captain
642
A free standing ER is licensed by what state agency?
Agency for Health Care Administration (ACHA)
643
What is the premise when transporting a patient to a free standing ER?
Not likely to require: Admission Surgical OB intervention Other acute services
644
Fire Rescue companies will be dispatched based on what?
Type of incident reported
645
What is the turnout time?
60 seconds
646
What happens if units have not gone en route within 60 seconds?
Units will be “roll called”
647
After the primary company goes responding, what does dispatch do?
Add further information Repeat address and zone number
648
Who is responsible for securing the station when responding to a call?
Station commander
649
Who responds to an accident
1 Engine
650
What is the response for a Boat-marine fire?
1 Engine 1 Rescue 1 EMS 1 BC If confirmed, an additional engine added
651
How many units respond to a commercial structure fire?
3 engines 2 rescues 1 ladder 1 EMS 1 BC If confirmed, an additional engine added
652
What is the response to a vehicle fire?
1 engine 705.00 1 rescue If confirmed, an additional engine added
653
How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 1?
1 engine 1 rescue
654
How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 2?
1 engine 1 rescue 1 ems 1 BC
655
How many units respond for an Aircraft Alert 3?
3 engines 2 rescues 1 ems 1 BC 1 ladder
656
How many units respond on an explosion or fire bombing?
3 engines 2 rescues 1 EMS 1 BC 1 ladder
657
The following calls will have a GPSN1:
Boat – Marine Fire/Accident Commercial/Residential structure fire Dive call Hazmat Incident Drowning/Electrocution Shooting/Stabbing Aircraft Alert 1, 2, & 3 Bomb threat/Explosion/Fire Bombing
658
What is a GPSN1?
Global Page for Sunrise Fire Rescue Staff Members Such as Duty Chief
659
Response assignments where a GPSN1 alert is indicated should automatically be sent by dispatch, this should require the IC to do what?
Confirm that the Duty Chief was advised
660
Additionally, any incident that may _____ should have dispatch instructed to alert the Duty Chief.
Large loss of life Resident/occupant displacement Areas of media concern
661
The response of the Battalion Chief is _____ during any incident.
Discretionary and optional
662
What type of responses fall under the authority of the on duty Shift Commander?
All, emergency, routine, and service delivery
663
The response of the EMS Captain is _____ during any incident.
Discretionary and optional
664
Who is responsible to relate a company to facilitate a more efficient deployment of resources in the event of further incidents? (move-up/relocation)
Responsibility of all parties
665
Who will insure that no two adjoining districts remain without emergency vehicle coverage?
Communication center
666
What happens when a ladder is not avalible to respond?
Additional engine is added
667
If the first arriving company sizes-up “nothing showing” what happens?
All other responding units slow to Code 1
668
Any company assigned to a Code 1 response shall immediately upgrade their response upon an initial report of what?
Smoke or fire showing Information needing RIT, Rehab or comprehensive IMS
669
All personnel are eligible for Special Details except:
Exempt staff Personnel on probation Restricted by Fire Chief Personnel on medical leave Personnel on light duty Personnel on administrative suspension
670
What is the primary method of signing up for details?
One general sign up day per month Report to PSC
671
What are the hours of detail sign-up?
Start 0930 Ends no later than 1130
672
Detail slots that come available after the general sign-up will be filled by:
Station call
673
If sufficient time allows, typically considered _____, calls will be made station by station, shift by shift.
Greater than 72 hours
674
If the detail slot is being filled by station call, who is the first shift to be called?
Shift that was on duty during that particular sign up
675
If time does not allow, such as a last minute notification that a detail is required, how are slots filled?
Managerial discretion
676
If an employee that is signed up for a detail is now unable to do the detail, it is the responsibility to the employee to find:
An equally qualified replacement Finalized by Detail Office
677
If an employee is scheduled to participate in a special detail and becomes ill and cannot do the detail, he must notify whom?
Detail Officer Rescue Lieutenant Or Battalion Chief
678
How and when will the ill employee contact the supervisors about not being able to do the detail?
Direct person-to-person contact Minimum of 4 hours prior to starting time
679
Failure to comply with the detail obligation may result in removal from the detail list for a period of _____ for the first offense.
6 months
680
Failure to comply with the detail obligation may result in removal from the detail list for a period of _____ for the second offense.
1 Year
681
If a Rescue Lieutenant or Battalion Chief is notified that an employee cannot do the detail, they will secure a replacement using what?
Call list provided by Detail Officer
682
What type of system does SFR | Who handles the detail voucher system?D utilize for payment?
Voucher system
683
Who handles the detail voucher system?
Handled by the Detail Officer Coordinated through City Finance/Payroll Department
684
When are SFRD personnel allowed to purchase food from the caterer?
Panther home games
685
When are SFRD personnel not allowed to purchase food from the caterer?
Concerts and other events that are catered Caterer bills the promoter
686
Who is supposed to be at PSC at the time when detail personnel are supposed to arrive?
Rescue Lieutenant or Shift Battalion Chief if RL is not available
687
What uniform is used when on Special Details?
Class B Unless advised by Detail Officer
688
When will detail personnel transport patients?
Extreme circumstances
689
Who is notified when the special detail is completed?
On-duty Rescue Lieutenant or Battalion Chief
690
Where is the Detail Unit returned after the detail is over?
Fire station or inside PSC rear compound
691
Who can request an Emergency Medical Services Standby?
Outside organization Fire Chief
692
What is the staffing of an EMS Standby?
Minimum of 2 personnel Sole discretion of the Fire Chief
693
What will help determine the number of personnel for an EMS standby?
Circumstances surrounding the need for EMS
694
Who has the authority to augment the minimum staffing of | Who determines the need for a firewatch detail?the EMS standby?
Fire Chief
695
Who determines the need for a firewatch detail?
Fire Chief or designee
696
If any member receives a complaint about a possible fire or life safety hazard after the hours of the Fire Marshal’s Office, who should the member notify?
Shift Commander immediately
697
The Shift Commander will attempt to gain compliance. If the Shift Commander believes that appropriate parties will not resolve the violation, who is notified?
On-call Inspector requested to respond
698
If the Inspector feels that the situation requires an immediate firewatch, he/she will contact whom?
Fire Chief or designee
699
If the Inspector and Fire Chief decide a fire watch is needed, an emergency fire watch shall commence with whom?
The Inspector while the shift commander arranges for relief
700
While performing the emergency fire watch, the inspector will establish what?
Handwritten, “individualized” procedures for the occupancy Inspector will orally and physically review with relief
701
What are the steps that an individual will take should an incident occur on a fire watch detail?
Activate building alarm system and begin evacuation Simultaneously notify Fire Dispatch Supply brief description to dispatch and Shift Commander If needed, offensive fire attack to aid occupant exiting building
702
Multi person fire watch details will be staffed with how many fire inspectors?
Not more than one unless unusual circumstance
703
If a fire watch requires more than one inspector, which inspector is the supervisor?
Fire Marshal will designate regardless of rank
704
When a Fire Inspector is needed on a multi-person fire watch, he/she will act as supervisor for what?
Code related matters
705
When will a fire watch detail require a supervisor?
More than 3 personnel
706
When a fire watch detail is required by code, the detail shall be under the direct control of whom?
Fire Marshal
707
What will be onsite for all fire watch details?
BLS kit
708
How is a fire watch detail terminated?
All paperwork completed and reviewed by Shift Commander if a representative of the FLS Division is not on site
709
What does MERC stand for?
Mobile Emergency Response Cart
710
Who determines the need for the MERC? | What is the staffing for the MERC?
Fire Chief or designee
711
What is the minnimum staffing for a MERC?
Minimum of 2 personnel
712
What does BERT stand for?
Bicycle Emergency Response Team
713
Who determines the need for the BERT?
Fire Chief or designee
714
What is the staffing for the BERT?
Minimum of 2 personnel
715
Who provides BERT training? | How will the Peak Hour Rescue Unit operate?
Training Division
716
How will the Peak Hour Rescue Unit operate?
Special detail 706.05 Monday – Friday: 0800-2000 Except city recognized holidays
717
Who may alter the schedule of the Peak Hour Rescue Unit at any time based on operational and staffing needs of the department?
Fire Chief or designee
718
How will the P-H Rescue be staffed?
LT and two FF/PM LT and 1-FF/PM and 1-FF/EMT
719
The filling of the vacancies associated with the P-H Rescue will use what format and offered in what hour blocks?
Overtime 12 hour blocks
720
Where is the P-H Rescue assigned to and what is the unit identifier?
Station 72 Rescue 272
721
Who does the R272 report to while assigned to station 72
Station 72 Captain
722
During the hours of operation, R272 will be subject to relocation as any other fire rescue unit per?
Shift Commander
723
The unit will be housed at Sta. 72 at the beginning and ending of each shift, but may be relocated to another designated location based on operational needs as determined by?
Fire Chief or designee
724
Weekly maintenance, during which R272 and equipment will be cleaned will be scheduled for each ___ morning?
Wednesday
725
What personnel are not eligible to participate on R272?
Exempt staff Personnel of recruit probation Personnel on medical leave or light duty Personnel on administrative suspension Or restricted by Fire Chief
726
What is the primary method of signing up for R272?
Electronic scheduler (Kronos Telestaff)
727
Vacancies for R272 will be made available for sign up how many days in advance?
30 days
728
How far in advance will the vacancies for R272 be filled?
2 weeks
729
The electronic scheduler will notify personnel who have made themselves available for the special detail via?
Interactive voice response (IVR) system Text message
730
If personnel who are assigned to a special detail have unexpected conflicts arise, a ____ replacement must be approved by notifying who?
Equally qualified Operations Deputy Chief
731
If an individual does not report for their assigned detail, and fail to find an appropriate replacement, their ability to sign-up for further details will be _____ and the on-duty BC will follow what OPM?
Suspended Lateness/AWOL
732
What procedure should be followed if an employee who is expected to participate in a Special Detail becomes ill and cannot fulfill their obligation?
Procedure for Calling in for Unscheduled Leave
733
Will the overtime list currently being maintained on FRD intranet page be affected by the accruals of overtime hours worked on R272?
No
734
What is the order in which Telestaff autofills a vacant officer seat on R272 for?
Lieutenant Acting Lieutenant Captain Acting Captain
735
What is the order in which Telestaff autofills a vacant firefighter seat on R272 for?
2- FF/PM 1- FF/PM and 1- FF/EMT 706.05 Driver Operator Lieutenant Captain
736
Vacancies for R272 will be filled based on what two criterias?
Least amount of hours worked on R272 Seniority in each rank
737
All hours worked will be maintained where and reset when?
Electronically within the scheduling software Reset to zero on January 1st at 0000 of each year

Capt. Exam (9 decks)

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