OPM 400 Flashcards
1
Q
Who regulates the disposal of potentially infectious waste?
A
County, State, and Federal Laws
2
Q
Where is potentially infectious waste disposed of?
A
At the receiving emergency department unless they refuse
3
Q
How often is biohazardous waste disposed of?
A
After each incident
Not allowed to accumulate
4
Q
When are the situations that will allow for biohazard waste to be disposed of at the stations?
A
ALS engine calls
Non-transport calls
Medical incidents at Stations
5
Q
When are the biohazardous waste containers collected and by whom?
A
On a predetermined schedule assigned by the EMS Division
By a licensed disposer
6
Q
What are the specifics on the sharps containers?
A
Closable
Puncture resistant
Leak proof on sides and bottoms
Labeled or color-coded
7
Q
What are the fines if the biohazard laws are violated?
A
$10,000.00
8
Q
SFRD maintains a comprehensive occupational safety and health program based upon what?
A
Sound engineering
Education
Training
9
Q
When will firefighters have to wear an SCBA or SAR?
A
All phases of firefighting activity
Emergency situations with toxic or oxygen deficient atmospheres
Working in spaces where hazardous atmospheres may be present
10
Q
Firefighters donning SCBA shall ensure what is activated prior to entering areas that require respiratory protection?
A
PASS
11
Q
When will a firefighter perform a seal check?
A
Prior to each use
12
Q
Firefighters will continue to wear an SCBA until the officer in charge determines what?
A
Through monitoring that respiratory protection is no longer needed
13
Q
Where are the airline respirators located?
A
Hazmat 92, TRT 92 and Aerial apparatus
14
Q
When is the airline respirator used?
A
Exterior firefighting operations
Confined space rescue
Trench rescue
Certain hazardous materials incidents
15
Q
What is worn in combination with the airline respirator?
A
Escape type SCBA
16
Q
What is the NFPA for structural firefighting gear?
A
1971
17
Q
What is included with protective clothing?
A
Turnout coat
Bunker pants
Gloves
Boots
Helmet
Hood
SCBA or inline respirator if appropriate
18
Q
Procedures for Interior Structural Firefighting: Interior fires, the fire department shall ensure that:
A
At least 2 firefighters enter IDLH and remain in voice or visual contact
At least 2 firefighters located outside IDLH to serve as RIT
Use SCBA when interior structural firefighting
19
Q
One of the two firefighters located outside the IDLH atmosphere may be assigned to an additional role, such as:
A
Incident commander
Safety officer
Operator of fire apparatus
20
Q
Proper assignment of firefighting activities at an interior structural fire must be determined by _____ and is dependent on the _____.
A
Incident Commander
Existing fire conditions
21
Q
What is critical of the incident commander in regards to firefighting?
A
Consideration of all worksite variables and conditions
Judgement
22
Q
What shall not be used for direct visual contact between team members in the danger area?
A
Electronic methods of communication
23
Q
Firefighters wearing respiratory protection shall be trained in:
A
Proper use
Cleaning
Maintenance
24
Q
When will personnel demonstrate SCBA proficiency?
A
Annual basis
25
New recruits will be trained on SCBA in accordance with what NFPA?
1404
26
When do firefighters have to pass a face piece fit-test?
Initial and annual training
27
Where is fill station training?
Station 59 and TRT 92
28
Who is allowed to fill SCBA cylinders?
Firefighters who have completed fill station training
29
When must a firefighter pass a face piece fit-test?
Initial training
Annually and/or when a firefighter experiences:
Significant weight change
Facial trauma
Reconstructive surgery
Major dental work
30
What is extremely important when using respiratory protective equipment?
Effective face-to-face seal
31
When shall firefighters perform a seal check?
Prior to every SCBA use
32
When is an SCBA inspected to ensure that all respiratory protection equipment is properly operating and available for use?
Regular periodic inspections
33
When are all SCBA and spare cylinders inspected?
After each use and during daily apparatus checkout
34
SCBA units determined to be unfit for use shall be taken out of service and forwarded to
Station 59 for repair
35
In the event that replacement or repair of SCBA components is necessary, how will it be performed?
By manufacturer’s instructions
Only by persons trained and certified
36
When is the SCBA cleaned?
After each use
37
What product is used for cleaning and disinfection of the SCBA?
Cleaning/sanitizing solutions
38
When are the Scott Carbon Fiber Cylinders hydrostatically tested?
Every 5 years
39
When are the fiberglass escape cylinders hydrostatically tested?
Every 3 years
40
What is the maximum service life of the Carbon Fiber and Fiberglass cylinders?
15 years
41
Care is to be taken with the SCBA so that the means of storage does not distort or damage _____.
Rubber or elastomeric components
42
Breathing air in the SCBA cylinder shall meet the requirements of which association?
Compressed Gas Association G-7.1-1989 400.02
Commodity Specification For Air
43
What is the minimum air quality that is for the SCBA?
Grade D
44
SFRD shall ensure that private vendors supplying compressed breathing air provide a copy of what?
Most recent inspection and certification
45
Who and when is the purity of the air from the SFRD air compressors checked?
Check by competent laboratory at least annually
46
What is not to be used in open-circuit SCBA?
Compressed oxygen
47
When does the firefighter receive a medical evaluation to determine the firefighter’s ability to wear a SCBA?
Time of initial hiring
48
The most comfortable mask shall be donned and worn _____ to assess comfort.
At least 5 minutes
49
To assess comfort, the test subject will have 4 points to determine the comfort:
Positioning of mask on nose
Room for eye protection
Room to talk
Positioning mask on face and cheeks
50
What end of the ventilation smoke tube is broken for the SCBA fit test?
Both ends
51
What is the chemical that is contained in the smoke tube?
Stannic oxychloride or equivalent
52
How is the chemical of the smoke tube delivered?
Pressure air pump delivered at 200 milliliters per minute
53
The test conductor shall advise the test subject that the smoke can be:
Irritating and to keep eyes closed
54
Where is the smoke tube placed when performing the fit test?
12 inches from face and gradually move to within 1 inch
55
What criteria shall be used to help determine the adequacy of the respirator/mask fit?
Chin properly placed
Strap tension
Fit across nose
Distance from nose to chin
Tendency to slip
Self-observation
56
What are the 7 types of fit-test exercises for the SCBA mask?
Breathe normally
Breathe deeply
Turn head side to side
Nod head up and down
Talking
Jogging in place
Breathe normally
57
When the SCBA test subject is turning head side to side, when does he inhale?
On each side
58
When the SCBA test subject is nodding head up and down when does he inhale?
Full up position
59
What happens if the test subject detects the irritant smoke?
Test has failed
Subject selects another respirator
60
If the test subject exhibits difficulty breathing during the test, what is done?
Referred to a physician
61
Qualitative fit testing shall be repeated immediately when the test subject has:
Significant weight change
Facial scaring
Dental changes
Reconstructive/cosmetic surgery
Any condition that may interfere with seal
62
A summary of all test results shall be maintained for a period of not less than _____.
3 years
63
The summary of the fit test will include:
Name of test subject
Date of testing
Name of test conductor
Respirators selected(manufacturer, model, size, number)
Testing agent
64
Firefighters should leave the IDLH prior to what?
Activation of low air alarm
65
What will indicate that the user is consuming their reserve air supply?
Activation of low air alarm
66
What does evidence show when firefighters call for help?
When they have consumed their reserve air supply
67
What is commonplace at a fire scene?
Sounding of multiple alarms (both PASS and low air)
68
In the event of alarm activation, members are required to provide immediate notification to whom?
Their officer, then command
69
What should the air pressure on the SCBA be prior to entry into an IDLH?
90% (4050 psi)
70
When should a member check or monitor their air consumption and pressure?
Regular time intervals (approx. 5 mins)
10 minute CAD notification from dispatch
Change of work area (floor level)
Passing major landmark within the structure
Completion of assignment
As situation dictates
71
What light will activate when the heads-up-display shows 50%?
Amber light flashing slowly
72
When the first member of any crew has their 50% heads-up-display activate, the officer shall notify whom?
Proper ICS function (ICS, division)
73
By the Officer notifying command that they have a member at 50%, the Commander is allowed to what?
Pre-plan for replacement
74
What is of the utmost importance so that egress from the IDLH area occurs prior to activation of the low air alarm and consumption of your reserve air supply?
Managing your air level and request for relief
75
If a low air alarm activates in the IDLH environment, it calls for an immediate radio transmission to command specifying _____.
Who you are 400.02
Where you are
What your status is
76
When will the RIT Leader notify command of the firefighters in the IDLH with a low air alarm activated?
Not exited within one minute
77
With crews of three or more members, the member in low air alarm should be moved to which position?
Second position from the front
78
What day is deemed “Air Fill Day”?
Wednesday
79
What is the maximum capacity of the SCBA cylinders?
4500 psi
80
Where will station 39 fill air bottles?
Station 59
81
Where will station 72 fill air bottles?
Station 59
82
Where will station 83 fill air bottles?
Station 92
83
To prevent hot filling of SCBA bottles, they should be filled at a rate of what?
300 psi to 500 psi per minute
Not to exceed 600 psi
84
How are SCBA bottles stored in the apparatus?
Designated and secured locations
Not to be stored loose on shelving or within compartments unsecured
85
When are goggles supposed to be worn
When the SCBA mask is not worn
86
Who determines the level of protective clothing during an overhaul operation?
Incident Commander
87
When operating what equipment will require a firefighter to wear full protective equipment?
Forcible entry tools
Saws
Extrication equipment
Gas-powered tools
88
What must firefighters wear for visibility to oncoming traffic?
Full bunker gear 400.03
Rain gear
Safety vests
89
What is utilized at any time when the need for eye protective seems apparent?
Face shields
Safety goggles
90
Who is responsible for making sure students and riders utilize safety vests?
Persons in charge of units
91
Where is bunker gear not allowed to be stored on the rescue unit?
Patient compartment
Compartment with oxygen
92
What is the purpose of the Protective Clothing Bags?
Protect personnel from contaminates
Safely transport protective clothing
93
How can ventilating protective clothing during periods of non-use be accomplished?
Hanging gear on the racks provided at stations
94
What is the Employee Assistance Program?
Professionally run benefit
Both voluntary and confidential
95
Who is the EAP available to?
All employees
96
What is the primary function of the Employee Assistance Program?
Assist people who need help with their personal issues as well as work/life support issues
97
When would another person besides the employee be entitled to the information about the employee that came from the EAP?
Employee gives express written consent
98
How many free sessions of EAP does each employee have?
6
99
After 6 visits, how does the employee pay for the EAP visits?
Health insurance or own resources
100
What do regularly scheduled station inspections provide?
Identify needed resources
Alleviate problems
Insure highest level of safety is provided
101
Who completes monthly inspections of personnel?
Station Commanders
During shift change
102
What items are checked for monthly inspections?
Grooming and uniform compliance
PPE
Driver’s license
EMT/Paramedic
CPR/ACLS
103
Who does the monthly inspection of the Captains?
Battalion Chief
104
Problems noted during inspections will be documented and immediately forwarded to whom?
Fire Chief via chain of command
105
The quarterly inspections of all stations will be completed by whom?
Fire Chief and/or designated staff
106
What is the emphasis of the quarterly inspections?
Environmental and safety conditions
Cleanliness of stations
Readiness and cleanliness of vehicles
107
What do the quarterly inspections include?
Station and vehicles
Administrative Bulletins
Vehicle and station work orders
Station supplies
City identification inventory tags
108
Who is required to meet the requirements of the Hazardous Communication Standard?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
109
What is the standard for the Hazardous Communication Standard?
29 CFR 1910.1200
110
Where are the Material Safety Data Sheet posted?
Obvious locations where employees are free to review
111
When is “right to know” training?
Annually for those who use or come into contact with chemicals
112
What is the traffic pre-emption program designed to do?
Enhance safety when responding
Assisting in reduction of response times
113
What equipment is utilized for the traffic pre-emption program?
Vehicle mounted low power radio transmitters
GPS locators
This is the equipment the satellites “see”
114
What do the radio transmitters communicate with?
Traffic signal boxes at each intersection
115
What equipment does the second phase of the traffic pre-emption program consist of?
Station re-radiators
Emitter position in the bay that “sees” apparatus
Re-radiating antenna on roof of station
116
How is the traffic pre-emption system disabled?
Vehicle driver opens driver’s door
117
How is the traffic pre-emption system reactivated?
Pressing on/off button twice
118
Who provides periodic quality assurance documents to the department in regards to the traffic pre-emption?
Broward County Traffic Engineering
Via computerized audit trail
119
When should units stage at a scene?
If violence has occurred or is likely to occur
120
What should be considered a red flag for more violence?
Shooting, stabbing or fighting
121
What calls should be closely evaluated for potential violence?
Man down 400.09
Suicide
Overdose
122
Which type of call will receive automatic PD dispatch?
Gang violence
123
Where should responding units stage at violent incidents?
Out of sight of the incident
124
While the unit is in staging at a violent incident, they should:
urn off emergency warning lights and audible devices
125
What is a good divider between firefighters and the crowd and provides a control line for PD to enforce?
Fire line tape
126
What is the primary responsibility of police at the scene of a fire department emergency?
Secure traffic and crowds
127
Where should firefighters look for weapons?
Between car seats
Waistbands
Jackets
Loose clothing
128
What are the types of weapons?
Common
Makeshift
129
What are common weapon types?
Guns, knives
130
What are makeshift weapon types?
Anything that wasn’t designed to be a weapon
131
When should sirens be turned off at the scene of violence?
Several blocks away
132
Where should the vehicle be spotted at the scene of violence?
100 feet past or before
133
The contact person at the scene of violence should stand on what side of the door?
Doorknob side
134
ow is the apparatus spotted behind a vehicle?
Rear, full length from vehicle
Slight angle to driver’s side
135
If you suspect violence, stand at what angle from the patient?
Partial right angle to the patient
136
The SFRD recognizes the need for an Incident Safety Officer on which type of incidents?
Multi-unit and special operations
137
What is the NFPA for Incident Safety Officer?
1521
138
When does the Incident Commander establish an Incident Safety Officer?
As soon as possible
139
Who has the final authority on all recommendations and decisions on a scene?
Incident Commander
140
Can an engine be assigned as the safety officer?
Yes, Safety Company
Officer as the Incident Safety Officer
Crew assigned other duties
141
What other duties can the crew have if the engine company has been assigned as the Safety Company?
Battalion Aide
Accountability
Assistant safety officer, etc.
142
What is the training for the Incident Safety Officer?
Company Officer level or above
Documented training from Training Division
143
Who determines the training criteria of the Incident Safety Officer?
Fire Chief
144
The Incident Safety Officer shall continuously update the IC regarding what?
Conditions
Hazards
Risks
145
Who is responsible for ensuring a medical rehabilitation is established?
Incident Safety Officer
146
Who arranges for appropriate medical treatment when personnel becomes injured, ill, or exposed?
Incident Safety Officer
147
Is the Incident Safety Officer allowed to assign personnel?
Not until consulted
148
What are limited access roadways?
Interstate highway
US highway
State Route
County Road with limited access
149
Agencies with specific responsibilities on the scene of an emergency operation on a limited access highway are known as what?
Responsible agencies
150
What agencies might be contacted on a limited access roadway to provide resources to mitigate the scene or restore traffic flow?
Florida Department of Transportation (FDOT)
Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP)
Department of Environmental Resource Management (DERM)
Private contractors
Towing companies
Public safety agencies
151
When an incident involves injured persons and/or hazardous materials, the Incident Commander shall be from where?
Fire Department
152
When the injured persons have been treated and the exposure of hazardous materials is no longer a threat to public, who is the scene turned over to?
Law enforcement with jurisdictional responsibility
153
When should law enforcement provide traffic control?
If FD is working in travel lanes
154
What is the responsibility of law enforcement on the scenes of limited access roadways?
Traffic flow
Scene control/security
Investigation
155
What is the responsibility of the Fire Department on the scene of limited access roadways?
Scene safety
Medical treatment
Hazardous materials
156
A request for an escort or traffic assistance to expedite emergency response should be directed to whom?
Shift Commander
157
When will units proceed to the accident in the opposite direction of normal traffic flow?
At request of law enforcement
only when it is confirmed that all traffic is stopped
158
If an incident happens on a County Road, who is requested?
Appropriate agency will be contacted
159
If an incident happens on a State Road, who is requested?
FHP will contact FDOT
160
If an incident happens on the Turnpike, who is requested?
FHP will contact FDOT
161
Why are multiple engine companies dispatched from different stations on limited access roadways?
Provide additional manpower and scene safety
162
The second arriving engine company to a limited access roadway will do what?
Provide traffic control and be used as a shield
163
What will the crew of the second arriving engine company on a limited access roadway incident do?
Remain uncommitted and aware of oncoming traffic
164
As soon as law enforcement starts to control traffic flow, what does the fire department do?
Reposition or remove from travel lanes to resume normal traffic flow
165
Where should later arriving units park on a limited access roadway?
In front of the incident
As close as can be done safely in the same lane
This provides for a safety zone
166
Once emergency activities are ceased on a limited access roadway, the incident commander should give highest priority to what?
Restoring normal traffic flow
167
How can the fire department help restore normal traffic flow?
Assisting towing companies
Assisting environmental agencies
Assisting law enforcement investigations
168
Critique findings should be presented to the Freeway Management Team on which type of incidents?
Large scale scenes
Incidents that presented unusual challenges
169
What does ISSOG stand for?
Incident Scene Safety Operating Guidelines
170
The ISSOG does not supersede any _____.
Hazardous Materials Response Safety Operating Guidelines
171
What is the mandated document for response to hazardous material incidents throughout the State of Florida?
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120
172
Which apparatus will have carbon monoxide (CO) gas monitors placed on them?
All in service front line apparatus
173
What incidents will the carbon monoxide (CO) monitors be used?
Fire scenes
174
When will the CO monitors be used at a fire scene?
Interior salvage and overhaul
Environment where CO could be produced
175
Where is the CO monitor worn?
An SCBA strap
Flap of the top pocket of the bunker coat
176
Prior to entering any environment where CO may be present, what should be done with the CO monitor?
Shall be activated and allowed to enter gas reading mode
Check battery status
177
What are the alarms for the CO monitor?
Visual
Audible
Vibrating
178
When will the CO monitors alarms activate?
When CO reaches low of 35 ppm and high of 70 ppm
179
If the low level alarm on the CO monitor activates, what happens?
Personnel shall exit the area
180
If personnel must enter an environment with an SCBA, what must be in place?
Accountability and RIT
181
What is done daily with the CO monitors?
Turned on daily
Allowed to warm up and enter the gas reading mode
182
How many batteries does the CO monitor have?
A single “AA” alkaline battery
183
The battery is low on the CO monitor if this happens:
Indicated by the icon and single beep every 30 seconds
184
CO monitors that are damaged, dropped, or submerged shall be red tagged and turned into whom?
Logistics Division
185
Who oversees the periodic function test of the CO monitors?
Operations Division Chief
186
How often is the CO monitor’s function test?
Every 6 months
Have the battery changed at the same time
187
Any questions or concerns with the CO monitor should be directed to whom?
Training Division
188
What is the emergency alert feature used for?
Perilous situations not covered by Mayday
189
How many digits is the individual ID number on the portable radio?
6
190
Who ensures that the portable radio is in the correct position and being used by the person assigned to that position?
Station Commander
191
To activate the EAB, the operator must do what?
Depress and hold down the EAB for approximately 2 seconds
192
How will the user know the EAB button has been depressed and activated?
It will rapidly beep
193
When the EAB is activated, an audible alert is transmitted to whom?
Dispatch console
194
What will the user’s radio display in the LCD screen?
“EMERGENCY”
195
How are EAB signals sent?
Maximum power and maximum volume
196
How is the EAB reset?
Depress EAB and hold for approximately 2 seconds until reset tone is heard
Or turn radio off and then back on
197
If the EAB is depressed and not acknowledged, what does the user do?
Briefly depress the emergency button again
198
What color is the EAB?
Orange
199
What will the dispatcher ask if the EAB has been depressed?
Is everything 10-24
200
What is the appropriate response to the dispatcher if the EAB has been depressed and there is an actual emergency?
Repeat back 10-24
201
What is the appropriate response to the dispatcher if the EAB has been depressed and it is an accident?
Advised in plain English that no emergency exists
202
If a unit responds 10-24 or there is no response to the dispatchers query about the EAB being depressed, then the following will occur:
Police code 3 to incident
Shift Commander notified on separate channel
Full station assignment dispatched on separate channel
Shift commander will monitor both channels
Staff all call
203
What will the Fire Dispatch advise the Shift Commander and Police department if the EAB is activated and it is an actual emergency?
Type of call the unit was dispatched to
Pertinent information leading to the emergency
Will advise on a different channel or landline
204
If the EAB is depressed and the response dictates that the Police Department should be the first to arrive, what does the Shift Commander decide?
If the full station assignment shall use lights and sirens and where to stage
205
If the EAB is depressed and the response dictates that the Fire Department should be the first to arrive, what does the Shift Commander decide?
If and when it is safe for PD to enter
206
Where is a portable radio in need of service taken?
To on-duty Battalion Chief
207
What does the six digit ID for spare radios read?
Spare
208
What is one of the keys to implementing a successful Exposure Control Plan?
Identify exposure situations employees may encounter
209
The initial lists of job classifications and tasks and procedures that may be exposed was compiled when?
On or before May 5, 1992
210
The EMS Division will work with _____ to revise and update these lists of tasks, procedures, and classifications as necessary.
Department managers and supervisors
211
Which employees have potential exposures to bloodborne pathogens?
All employees FF to Fire Chief
212
Which non-emergency procedures can cause a bloodborne exposure?
Decontamination procedures 401.01
Engineering control procedures
General housekeeping procedures
Transportation of biohazardous waste
213
Which State Statute requires receiving emergency departments to notify EMS agency Designated Officers within 48 hours of determining a patient transported to the ED has an infectious disease?
395.1025
214
Who will have access to records containing HIV test results?
No persons, except authorized by the Department of Health
215
The identity of HIV test subjects and test results may be disclosed only under specific circumstances as described in which Statute?
381.004
Legal “need to know”
216
In accordance with Florida Statute 381.004 and Rule 64D-2, HIV test results may be provided to medical personnel who experience a significant exposure while providing emergency assistance after _____.
The significant exposure has occurred
217
Informed consent of the HIV test shall be preceded by an explanation of what?
The test
Its purpose
Potential uses
And limitations
218
A virus cannot act without being attached to what?
Another cell
219
Once a virus is attached to another cell, what happens?
hey direct the activity of that cell
220
What must happen for an illness to occur?
Blood or body fluid containing virus
Opening to inner part of body
Means of getting virus inside opening
Large enough amount of virus
Defense system that does not have immunity
221
What is the most efficient route of transmission of an infectious disease?
Directly from the infected person
Not through intermediary (third person’s hands)
Hands and cloths not efficient means of transfer
222
What is the primary deterrent for transmitting infectious disease?
Hand washing
223
The level of protective precautions taken by department personnel should be based on what?
Patient evaluation and good judgement
224
What are the two exposure levels firefighters may face when treating a patient?
Non-significant
Significant
225
Why would the severity of the exposure be upgraded?
If unable to wash or clean the affected area in a timely manner
226
A significant bloodborne exposure is a combination of what?
One or more types of body fluids
One or more injuries
227
A significant bloodborne exposure requires what?
Immediate medical evaluation
228
What are the actions or injury that can cause exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
Percutaneous (through skin)
Mucous membranes
Non-intact skin
229
Where can mucous membranes be found?
Eyes, nose, mouth
230
An increased risk of exposure will happen if within _____ of shaving and _____ of scabs.
Within 2 hours of shaving and
Scabs <24 hours
231
What should be referenced for prevention and immunization practices?
Florida Regional Common EMS Protocols General Protocol’s section 6.12
232
For a non-significant exposure, what paperwork must be completed?
Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form
233
For a significant exposure, what paperwork must be completed?
Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form
First Report of Injury or Illness
Supervisor Accident/Injury
Employee Incident (FD30)
Sunrise EMS Report
Worker’s Compensation Report from Employee (section 2)
Employer Section: completed by employee
Physician Section: completed by physician
234
What form is supposed to be filled out first when a significant exposure happens?
Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form
235
Who does the Department work in conjunction with regarding issues of Workers’ Compensation and on the job injuries?
City’s third party administrators (TPA)
Risk Management Department
236
Who must be notified on any incident involving an injury, significant exposure, or illness from the incident?
Station Officer
Shift Battalion Chief
Duty Chief
237
What documents must be completed for injury reporting?
First report of injury or illness employee section
Employee workers’ compensation report
Employer section
Physician section
Patient care report
Supervisor’s report accident/injury
Incident report in RMS
Casualty report for all injuries included in RMS
FD30 Incident Report
238
What is the FD30 Incident Report used for?
Staff follow up
239
Call in Report of Injury to Risk Management at what number?
954-572-2497
240
What message is left on the Risk Management voicemail?
Details of injury
Name of injured
Where injured was treated
Phone number of employee
Supervisor’s name
241
What documents should be emailed to Risk Management after completing the phone notification?
First Report of Injury or Illness
Supervisor Report Accident/Injury
242
What is the email address for risk management?
riskmanagement@sunrisefl.gov
243
If the employee is incapacitated or, for whatever reason, cannot sign the form, what is done?
Write “unavailable” on the line for employee’s signature
244
If there is no injury or illness resulting from an accident and it is unlikely that future injury or illness will occur as a result of the incident, the only reports that are necessary are what?
Supervisor’s Report Accident/Injury
FD30
245
Who must be notified in order to arrange medical treatment, in the absence of an emergency?
Battalion Chief or greater
246
What time is Risk Management open?
9am to 5pm, Monday thru Friday
247
What type of envelope is used to return any workers’ compensation forms?
“Special Attention”
Red envelope
248
All vehicles shall be inspected during vehicle checkout for any what?
Damage or condition that may cause unsafe operations
249
If damage is found on a vehicle and the cause is unknown, what is the procedure?
Immediately report to Station Officer and on duty Battalion Chief
Inspected by member of garage if can’t determine the safety of vehicle
Taken out of service if unable to determine safety
Complete Vehicle Incident Report, copy in vehicle folder
Enter work order into Electronic Work Order Portal
250
What information should be indicated on the Vehicle Incident Report?
Vehicle number
Extent of damage
Personnel involved
Time found
Brief description
Additional actions taken
251
The original Vehicle Incident Report should be forwarded to whom?
Logistics Division
252
What is the procedure for a vehicle accident (non-injury)?
Notify Station officer and Battalion Chief
Police Department notified for report
Vehicle Incident Report completed and forwarded
Electronic work order
Supervisors Investigating Report
Taken to city garage for evaluation and photos
Battalion Chief shall notify Risk Management
253
If the garage is not open, who determines if the vehicle shall stay in service?
Company officer
254
What is the procedure for a vehicle accident (with injuries)?
Medical protocol first
Notify Station officer, Battalion Chief, call Duty Chief and Fire Chief
Police Department notified
Vehicle Incident Report completed and forwarded
Taken to city garage for evaluation and photos
Battalion Chief shall notify Risk Management
255
During a vehicle accident (with injuries), who has a workers’ compensation paperwork written on them?
All personnel that are suspected of being injured
