OPM 400 Flashcards
Who regulates the disposal of potentially infectious waste?
County, State, and Federal Laws
Where is potentially infectious waste disposed of?
At the receiving emergency department unless they refuse
How often is biohazardous waste disposed of?
After each incident
Not allowed to accumulate
When are the situations that will allow for biohazard waste to be disposed of at the stations?
ALS engine calls
Non-transport calls
Medical incidents at Stations
When are the biohazardous waste containers collected and by whom?
On a predetermined schedule assigned by the EMS Division
By a licensed disposer
What are the specifics on the sharps containers?
Closable
Puncture resistant
Leak proof on sides and bottoms
Labeled or color-coded
What are the fines if the biohazard laws are violated?
$10,000.00
SFRD maintains a comprehensive occupational safety and health program based upon what?
Sound engineering
Education
Training
When will firefighters have to wear an SCBA or SAR?
All phases of firefighting activity
Emergency situations with toxic or oxygen deficient atmospheres
Working in spaces where hazardous atmospheres may be present
Firefighters donning SCBA shall ensure what is activated prior to entering areas that require respiratory protection?
PASS
When will a firefighter perform a seal check?
Prior to each use
Firefighters will continue to wear an SCBA until the officer in charge determines what?
Through monitoring that respiratory protection is no longer needed
Where are the airline respirators located?
Hazmat 92, TRT 92 and Aerial apparatus
When is the airline respirator used?
Exterior firefighting operations
Confined space rescue
Trench rescue
Certain hazardous materials incidents
What is worn in combination with the airline respirator?
Escape type SCBA
What is the NFPA for structural firefighting gear?
1971
What is included with protective clothing?
Turnout coat
Bunker pants
Gloves
Boots
Helmet
Hood
SCBA or inline respirator if appropriate
Procedures for Interior Structural Firefighting: Interior fires, the fire department shall ensure that:
At least 2 firefighters enter IDLH and remain in voice or visual contact
At least 2 firefighters located outside IDLH to serve as RIT
Use SCBA when interior structural firefighting
One of the two firefighters located outside the IDLH atmosphere may be assigned to an additional role, such as:
Incident commander
Safety officer
Operator of fire apparatus
Proper assignment of firefighting activities at an interior structural fire must be determined by _____ and is dependent on the _____.
Incident Commander
Existing fire conditions
What is critical of the incident commander in regards to firefighting?
Consideration of all worksite variables and conditions
Judgement
What shall not be used for direct visual contact between team members in the danger area?
Electronic methods of communication
Firefighters wearing respiratory protection shall be trained in:
Proper use
Cleaning
Maintenance
When will personnel demonstrate SCBA proficiency?
Annual basis
New recruits will be trained on SCBA in accordance with what NFPA?
1404
When do firefighters have to pass a face piece fit-test?
Initial and annual training
Where is fill station training?
Station 59 and TRT 92
Who is allowed to fill SCBA cylinders?
Firefighters who have completed fill station training
When must a firefighter pass a face piece fit-test?
Initial training
Annually and/or when a firefighter experiences:
Significant weight change
Facial trauma
Reconstructive surgery
Major dental work
What is extremely important when using respiratory protective equipment?
Effective face-to-face seal
When shall firefighters perform a seal check?
Prior to every SCBA use
When is an SCBA inspected to ensure that all respiratory protection equipment is properly operating and available for use?
Regular periodic inspections
When are all SCBA and spare cylinders inspected?
After each use and during daily apparatus checkout
SCBA units determined to be unfit for use shall be taken out of service and forwarded to
Station 59 for repair
In the event that replacement or repair of SCBA components is necessary, how will it be performed?
By manufacturer’s instructions
Only by persons trained and certified
When is the SCBA cleaned?
After each use
What product is used for cleaning and disinfection of the SCBA?
Cleaning/sanitizing solutions
When are the Scott Carbon Fiber Cylinders hydrostatically tested?
Every 5 years
When are the fiberglass escape cylinders hydrostatically tested?
Every 3 years
What is the maximum service life of the Carbon Fiber and Fiberglass cylinders?
15 years
Care is to be taken with the SCBA so that the means of storage does not distort or damage _____.
Rubber or elastomeric components
Breathing air in the SCBA cylinder shall meet the requirements of which association?
Compressed Gas Association G-7.1-1989 400.02
Commodity Specification For Air
What is the minimum air quality that is for the SCBA?
Grade D
SFRD shall ensure that private vendors supplying compressed breathing air provide a copy of what?
Most recent inspection and certification
Who and when is the purity of the air from the SFRD air compressors checked?
Check by competent laboratory at least annually
What is not to be used in open-circuit SCBA?
Compressed oxygen
When does the firefighter receive a medical evaluation to determine the firefighter’s ability to wear a SCBA?
Time of initial hiring
The most comfortable mask shall be donned and worn _____ to assess comfort.
At least 5 minutes
To assess comfort, the test subject will have 4 points to determine the comfort:
Positioning of mask on nose
Room for eye protection
Room to talk
Positioning mask on face and cheeks
What end of the ventilation smoke tube is broken for the SCBA fit test?
Both ends
What is the chemical that is contained in the smoke tube?
Stannic oxychloride or equivalent
How is the chemical of the smoke tube delivered?
Pressure air pump delivered at 200 milliliters per minute
The test conductor shall advise the test subject that the smoke can be:
Irritating and to keep eyes closed
Where is the smoke tube placed when performing the fit test?
12 inches from face and gradually move to within 1 inch
What criteria shall be used to help determine the adequacy of the respirator/mask fit?
Chin properly placed
Strap tension
Fit across nose
Distance from nose to chin
Tendency to slip
Self-observation
What are the 7 types of fit-test exercises for the SCBA mask?
Breathe normally
Breathe deeply
Turn head side to side
Nod head up and down
Talking
Jogging in place
Breathe normally
When the SCBA test subject is turning head side to side, when does he inhale?
On each side
When the SCBA test subject is nodding head up and down when does he inhale?
Full up position
What happens if the test subject detects the irritant smoke?
Test has failed
Subject selects another respirator
If the test subject exhibits difficulty breathing during the test, what is done?
Referred to a physician
Qualitative fit testing shall be repeated immediately when the test subject has:
Significant weight change
Facial scaring
Dental changes
Reconstructive/cosmetic surgery
Any condition that may interfere with seal
A summary of all test results shall be maintained for a period of not less than _____.
3 years
The summary of the fit test will include:
Name of test subject
Date of testing
Name of test conductor
Respirators selected(manufacturer, model, size, number)
Testing agent
Firefighters should leave the IDLH prior to what?
Activation of low air alarm
What will indicate that the user is consuming their reserve air supply?
Activation of low air alarm
What does evidence show when firefighters call for help?
When they have consumed their reserve air supply
What is commonplace at a fire scene?
Sounding of multiple alarms (both PASS and low air)
In the event of alarm activation, members are required to provide immediate notification to whom?
Their officer, then command
What should the air pressure on the SCBA be prior to entry into an IDLH?
90% (4050 psi)
When should a member check or monitor their air consumption and pressure?
Regular time intervals (approx. 5 mins)
10 minute CAD notification from dispatch
Change of work area (floor level)
Passing major landmark within the structure
Completion of assignment
As situation dictates
What light will activate when the heads-up-display shows 50%?
Amber light flashing slowly
When the first member of any crew has their 50% heads-up-display activate, the officer shall notify whom?
Proper ICS function (ICS, division)
By the Officer notifying command that they have a member at 50%, the Commander is allowed to what?
Pre-plan for replacement
What is of the utmost importance so that egress from the IDLH area occurs prior to activation of the low air alarm and consumption of your reserve air supply?
Managing your air level and request for relief
If a low air alarm activates in the IDLH environment, it calls for an immediate radio transmission to command specifying _____.
Who you are 400.02
Where you are
What your status is
When will the RIT Leader notify command of the firefighters in the IDLH with a low air alarm activated?
Not exited within one minute
With crews of three or more members, the member in low air alarm should be moved to which position?
Second position from the front
What day is deemed “Air Fill Day”?
Wednesday
What is the maximum capacity of the SCBA cylinders?
4500 psi
Where will station 39 fill air bottles?
Station 59
Where will station 72 fill air bottles?
Station 59
Where will station 83 fill air bottles?
Station 92
To prevent hot filling of SCBA bottles, they should be filled at a rate of what?
300 psi to 500 psi per minute
Not to exceed 600 psi
How are SCBA bottles stored in the apparatus?
Designated and secured locations
Not to be stored loose on shelving or within compartments unsecured
When are goggles supposed to be worn
When the SCBA mask is not worn
Who determines the level of protective clothing during an overhaul operation?
Incident Commander
When operating what equipment will require a firefighter to wear full protective equipment?
Forcible entry tools
Saws
Extrication equipment
Gas-powered tools
What must firefighters wear for visibility to oncoming traffic?
Full bunker gear 400.03
Rain gear
Safety vests
What is utilized at any time when the need for eye protective seems apparent?
Face shields
Safety goggles
Who is responsible for making sure students and riders utilize safety vests?
Persons in charge of units
Where is bunker gear not allowed to be stored on the rescue unit?
Patient compartment
Compartment with oxygen
What is the purpose of the Protective Clothing Bags?
Protect personnel from contaminates
Safely transport protective clothing
How can ventilating protective clothing during periods of non-use be accomplished?
Hanging gear on the racks provided at stations
What is the Employee Assistance Program?
Professionally run benefit
Both voluntary and confidential
Who is the EAP available to?
All employees
What is the primary function of the Employee Assistance Program?
Assist people who need help with their personal issues as well as work/life support issues
When would another person besides the employee be entitled to the information about the employee that came from the EAP?
Employee gives express written consent
How many free sessions of EAP does each employee have?
6
After 6 visits, how does the employee pay for the EAP visits?
Health insurance or own resources
What do regularly scheduled station inspections provide?
Identify needed resources
Alleviate problems
Insure highest level of safety is provided
Who completes monthly inspections of personnel?
Station Commanders
During shift change
What items are checked for monthly inspections?
Grooming and uniform compliance
PPE
Driver’s license
EMT/Paramedic
CPR/ACLS
Who does the monthly inspection of the Captains?
Battalion Chief
Problems noted during inspections will be documented and immediately forwarded to whom?
Fire Chief via chain of command
The quarterly inspections of all stations will be completed by whom?
Fire Chief and/or designated staff
What is the emphasis of the quarterly inspections?
Environmental and safety conditions
Cleanliness of stations
Readiness and cleanliness of vehicles
What do the quarterly inspections include?
Station and vehicles
Administrative Bulletins
Vehicle and station work orders
Station supplies
City identification inventory tags
Who is required to meet the requirements of the Hazardous Communication Standard?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
What is the standard for the Hazardous Communication Standard?
29 CFR 1910.1200
Where are the Material Safety Data Sheet posted?
Obvious locations where employees are free to review
When is “right to know” training?
Annually for those who use or come into contact with chemicals
What is the traffic pre-emption program designed to do?
Enhance safety when responding
Assisting in reduction of response times
What equipment is utilized for the traffic pre-emption program?
Vehicle mounted low power radio transmitters
GPS locators
This is the equipment the satellites “see”
What do the radio transmitters communicate with?
Traffic signal boxes at each intersection
What equipment does the second phase of the traffic pre-emption program consist of?
Station re-radiators
Emitter position in the bay that “sees” apparatus
Re-radiating antenna on roof of station
How is the traffic pre-emption system disabled?
Vehicle driver opens driver’s door
How is the traffic pre-emption system reactivated?
Pressing on/off button twice
Who provides periodic quality assurance documents to the department in regards to the traffic pre-emption?
Broward County Traffic Engineering
Via computerized audit trail
When should units stage at a scene?
If violence has occurred or is likely to occur
What should be considered a red flag for more violence?
Shooting, stabbing or fighting
What calls should be closely evaluated for potential violence?
Man down 400.09
Suicide
Overdose
Which type of call will receive automatic PD dispatch?
Gang violence
Where should responding units stage at violent incidents?
Out of sight of the incident
While the unit is in staging at a violent incident, they should:
urn off emergency warning lights and audible devices
What is a good divider between firefighters and the crowd and provides a control line for PD to enforce?
Fire line tape
What is the primary responsibility of police at the scene of a fire department emergency?
Secure traffic and crowds
Where should firefighters look for weapons?
Between car seats
Waistbands
Jackets
Loose clothing
What are the types of weapons?
Common
Makeshift
What are common weapon types?
Guns, knives
What are makeshift weapon types?
Anything that wasn’t designed to be a weapon
When should sirens be turned off at the scene of violence?
Several blocks away
Where should the vehicle be spotted at the scene of violence?
100 feet past or before
The contact person at the scene of violence should stand on what side of the door?
Doorknob side
ow is the apparatus spotted behind a vehicle?
Rear, full length from vehicle
Slight angle to driver’s side
If you suspect violence, stand at what angle from the patient?
Partial right angle to the patient
The SFRD recognizes the need for an Incident Safety Officer on which type of incidents?
Multi-unit and special operations
What is the NFPA for Incident Safety Officer?
1521
When does the Incident Commander establish an Incident Safety Officer?
As soon as possible
Who has the final authority on all recommendations and decisions on a scene?
Incident Commander
Can an engine be assigned as the safety officer?
Yes, Safety Company
Officer as the Incident Safety Officer
Crew assigned other duties
What other duties can the crew have if the engine company has been assigned as the Safety Company?
Battalion Aide
Accountability
Assistant safety officer, etc.
What is the training for the Incident Safety Officer?
Company Officer level or above
Documented training from Training Division
Who determines the training criteria of the Incident Safety Officer?
Fire Chief
The Incident Safety Officer shall continuously update the IC regarding what?
Conditions
Hazards
Risks
Who is responsible for ensuring a medical rehabilitation is established?
Incident Safety Officer
Who arranges for appropriate medical treatment when personnel becomes injured, ill, or exposed?
Incident Safety Officer
Is the Incident Safety Officer allowed to assign personnel?
Not until consulted
What are limited access roadways?
Interstate highway
US highway
State Route
County Road with limited access
Agencies with specific responsibilities on the scene of an emergency operation on a limited access highway are known as what?
Responsible agencies
What agencies might be contacted on a limited access roadway to provide resources to mitigate the scene or restore traffic flow?
Florida Department of Transportation (FDOT)
Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP)
Department of Environmental Resource Management (DERM)
Private contractors
Towing companies
Public safety agencies
When an incident involves injured persons and/or hazardous materials, the Incident Commander shall be from where?
Fire Department
When the injured persons have been treated and the exposure of hazardous materials is no longer a threat to public, who is the scene turned over to?
Law enforcement with jurisdictional responsibility
When should law enforcement provide traffic control?
If FD is working in travel lanes
What is the responsibility of law enforcement on the scenes of limited access roadways?
Traffic flow
Scene control/security
Investigation
What is the responsibility of the Fire Department on the scene of limited access roadways?
Scene safety
Medical treatment
Hazardous materials
A request for an escort or traffic assistance to expedite emergency response should be directed to whom?
Shift Commander
When will units proceed to the accident in the opposite direction of normal traffic flow?
At request of law enforcement
only when it is confirmed that all traffic is stopped
If an incident happens on a County Road, who is requested?
Appropriate agency will be contacted
If an incident happens on a State Road, who is requested?
FHP will contact FDOT
If an incident happens on the Turnpike, who is requested?
FHP will contact FDOT
Why are multiple engine companies dispatched from different stations on limited access roadways?
Provide additional manpower and scene safety
The second arriving engine company to a limited access roadway will do what?
Provide traffic control and be used as a shield
What will the crew of the second arriving engine company on a limited access roadway incident do?
Remain uncommitted and aware of oncoming traffic
As soon as law enforcement starts to control traffic flow, what does the fire department do?
Reposition or remove from travel lanes to resume normal traffic flow
Where should later arriving units park on a limited access roadway?
In front of the incident
As close as can be done safely in the same lane
This provides for a safety zone
Once emergency activities are ceased on a limited access roadway, the incident commander should give highest priority to what?
Restoring normal traffic flow
How can the fire department help restore normal traffic flow?
Assisting towing companies
Assisting environmental agencies
Assisting law enforcement investigations
Critique findings should be presented to the Freeway Management Team on which type of incidents?
Large scale scenes
Incidents that presented unusual challenges
What does ISSOG stand for?
Incident Scene Safety Operating Guidelines
The ISSOG does not supersede any _____.
Hazardous Materials Response Safety Operating Guidelines
What is the mandated document for response to hazardous material incidents throughout the State of Florida?
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120
Which apparatus will have carbon monoxide (CO) gas monitors placed on them?
All in service front line apparatus
What incidents will the carbon monoxide (CO) monitors be used?
Fire scenes
When will the CO monitors be used at a fire scene?
Interior salvage and overhaul
Environment where CO could be produced
Where is the CO monitor worn?
An SCBA strap
Flap of the top pocket of the bunker coat
Prior to entering any environment where CO may be present, what should be done with the CO monitor?
Shall be activated and allowed to enter gas reading mode
Check battery status
What are the alarms for the CO monitor?
Visual
Audible
Vibrating
When will the CO monitors alarms activate?
When CO reaches low of 35 ppm and high of 70 ppm
If the low level alarm on the CO monitor activates, what happens?
Personnel shall exit the area
If personnel must enter an environment with an SCBA, what must be in place?
Accountability and RIT
What is done daily with the CO monitors?
Turned on daily
Allowed to warm up and enter the gas reading mode
How many batteries does the CO monitor have?
A single “AA” alkaline battery
The battery is low on the CO monitor if this happens:
Indicated by the icon and single beep every 30 seconds
CO monitors that are damaged, dropped, or submerged shall be red tagged and turned into whom?
Logistics Division
Who oversees the periodic function test of the CO monitors?
Operations Division Chief
How often is the CO monitor’s function test?
Every 6 months
Have the battery changed at the same time
Any questions or concerns with the CO monitor should be directed to whom?
Training Division
What is the emergency alert feature used for?
Perilous situations not covered by Mayday
How many digits is the individual ID number on the portable radio?
6
Who ensures that the portable radio is in the correct position and being used by the person assigned to that position?
Station Commander
To activate the EAB, the operator must do what?
Depress and hold down the EAB for approximately 2 seconds
How will the user know the EAB button has been depressed and activated?
It will rapidly beep
When the EAB is activated, an audible alert is transmitted to whom?
Dispatch console
What will the user’s radio display in the LCD screen?
“EMERGENCY”
How are EAB signals sent?
Maximum power and maximum volume
How is the EAB reset?
Depress EAB and hold for approximately 2 seconds until reset tone is heard
Or turn radio off and then back on
If the EAB is depressed and not acknowledged, what does the user do?
Briefly depress the emergency button again
What color is the EAB?
Orange
What will the dispatcher ask if the EAB has been depressed?
Is everything 10-24
What is the appropriate response to the dispatcher if the EAB has been depressed and there is an actual emergency?
Repeat back 10-24
What is the appropriate response to the dispatcher if the EAB has been depressed and it is an accident?
Advised in plain English that no emergency exists
If a unit responds 10-24 or there is no response to the dispatchers query about the EAB being depressed, then the following will occur:
Police code 3 to incident
Shift Commander notified on separate channel
Full station assignment dispatched on separate channel
Shift commander will monitor both channels
Staff all call
What will the Fire Dispatch advise the Shift Commander and Police department if the EAB is activated and it is an actual emergency?
Type of call the unit was dispatched to
Pertinent information leading to the emergency
Will advise on a different channel or landline
If the EAB is depressed and the response dictates that the Police Department should be the first to arrive, what does the Shift Commander decide?
If the full station assignment shall use lights and sirens and where to stage
If the EAB is depressed and the response dictates that the Fire Department should be the first to arrive, what does the Shift Commander decide?
If and when it is safe for PD to enter
Where is a portable radio in need of service taken?
To on-duty Battalion Chief
What does the six digit ID for spare radios read?
Spare
What is one of the keys to implementing a successful Exposure Control Plan?
Identify exposure situations employees may encounter
The initial lists of job classifications and tasks and procedures that may be exposed was compiled when?
On or before May 5, 1992
The EMS Division will work with _____ to revise and update these lists of tasks, procedures, and classifications as necessary.
Department managers and supervisors
Which employees have potential exposures to bloodborne pathogens?
All employees FF to Fire Chief
Which non-emergency procedures can cause a bloodborne exposure?
Decontamination procedures 401.01
Engineering control procedures
General housekeeping procedures
Transportation of biohazardous waste
Which State Statute requires receiving emergency departments to notify EMS agency Designated Officers within 48 hours of determining a patient transported to the ED has an infectious disease?
395.1025
Who will have access to records containing HIV test results?
No persons, except authorized by the Department of Health
The identity of HIV test subjects and test results may be disclosed only under specific circumstances as described in which Statute?
381.004
Legal “need to know”
In accordance with Florida Statute 381.004 and Rule 64D-2, HIV test results may be provided to medical personnel who experience a significant exposure while providing emergency assistance after _____.
The significant exposure has occurred
Informed consent of the HIV test shall be preceded by an explanation of what?
The test
Its purpose
Potential uses
And limitations
A virus cannot act without being attached to what?
Another cell
Once a virus is attached to another cell, what happens?
hey direct the activity of that cell
What must happen for an illness to occur?
Blood or body fluid containing virus
Opening to inner part of body
Means of getting virus inside opening
Large enough amount of virus
Defense system that does not have immunity
What is the most efficient route of transmission of an infectious disease?
Directly from the infected person
Not through intermediary (third person’s hands)
Hands and cloths not efficient means of transfer
What is the primary deterrent for transmitting infectious disease?
Hand washing
The level of protective precautions taken by department personnel should be based on what?
Patient evaluation and good judgement
What are the two exposure levels firefighters may face when treating a patient?
Non-significant
Significant
Why would the severity of the exposure be upgraded?
If unable to wash or clean the affected area in a timely manner
A significant bloodborne exposure is a combination of what?
One or more types of body fluids
One or more injuries
A significant bloodborne exposure requires what?
Immediate medical evaluation
What are the actions or injury that can cause exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
Percutaneous (through skin)
Mucous membranes
Non-intact skin
Where can mucous membranes be found?
Eyes, nose, mouth
An increased risk of exposure will happen if within _____ of shaving and _____ of scabs.
Within 2 hours of shaving and
Scabs <24 hours
What should be referenced for prevention and immunization practices?
Florida Regional Common EMS Protocols General Protocol’s section 6.12
For a non-significant exposure, what paperwork must be completed?
Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form
For a significant exposure, what paperwork must be completed?
Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form
First Report of Injury or Illness
Supervisor Accident/Injury
Employee Incident (FD30)
Sunrise EMS Report
Worker’s Compensation Report from Employee (section 2)
Employer Section: completed by employee
Physician Section: completed by physician
What form is supposed to be filled out first when a significant exposure happens?
Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form
Who does the Department work in conjunction with regarding issues of Workers’ Compensation and on the job injuries?
City’s third party administrators (TPA)
Risk Management Department
Who must be notified on any incident involving an injury, significant exposure, or illness from the incident?
Station Officer
Shift Battalion Chief
Duty Chief
What documents must be completed for injury reporting?
First report of injury or illness employee section
Employee workers’ compensation report
Employer section
Physician section
Patient care report
Supervisor’s report accident/injury
Incident report in RMS
Casualty report for all injuries included in RMS
FD30 Incident Report
What is the FD30 Incident Report used for?
Staff follow up
Call in Report of Injury to Risk Management at what number?
954-572-2497
What message is left on the Risk Management voicemail?
Details of injury
Name of injured
Where injured was treated
Phone number of employee
Supervisor’s name
What documents should be emailed to Risk Management after completing the phone notification?
First Report of Injury or Illness
Supervisor Report Accident/Injury
What is the email address for risk management?
riskmanagement@sunrisefl.gov
If the employee is incapacitated or, for whatever reason, cannot sign the form, what is done?
Write “unavailable” on the line for employee’s signature
If there is no injury or illness resulting from an accident and it is unlikely that future injury or illness will occur as a result of the incident, the only reports that are necessary are what?
Supervisor’s Report Accident/Injury
FD30
Who must be notified in order to arrange medical treatment, in the absence of an emergency?
Battalion Chief or greater
What time is Risk Management open?
9am to 5pm, Monday thru Friday
What type of envelope is used to return any workers’ compensation forms?
“Special Attention”
Red envelope
All vehicles shall be inspected during vehicle checkout for any what?
Damage or condition that may cause unsafe operations
If damage is found on a vehicle and the cause is unknown, what is the procedure?
Immediately report to Station Officer and on duty Battalion Chief
Inspected by member of garage if can’t determine the safety of vehicle
Taken out of service if unable to determine safety
Complete Vehicle Incident Report, copy in vehicle folder
Enter work order into Electronic Work Order Portal
What information should be indicated on the Vehicle Incident Report?
Vehicle number
Extent of damage
Personnel involved
Time found
Brief description
Additional actions taken
The original Vehicle Incident Report should be forwarded to whom?
Logistics Division
What is the procedure for a vehicle accident (non-injury)?
Notify Station officer and Battalion Chief
Police Department notified for report
Vehicle Incident Report completed and forwarded
Electronic work order
Supervisors Investigating Report
Taken to city garage for evaluation and photos
Battalion Chief shall notify Risk Management
If the garage is not open, who determines if the vehicle shall stay in service?
Company officer
What is the procedure for a vehicle accident (with injuries)?
Medical protocol first
Notify Station officer, Battalion Chief, call Duty Chief and Fire Chief
Police Department notified
Vehicle Incident Report completed and forwarded
Taken to city garage for evaluation and photos
Battalion Chief shall notify Risk Management
During a vehicle accident (with injuries), who has a workers’ compensation paperwork written on them?
All personnel that are suspected of being injured
