Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Capt. Exam > OPM 400 > Flashcards

OPM 400 Flashcards

1
Q

Who regulates the disposal of potentially infectious waste?

A

County, State, and Federal Laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is potentially infectious waste disposed of?

A

At the receiving emergency department unless they refuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How often is biohazardous waste disposed of?

A

After each incident

Not allowed to accumulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When are the situations that will allow for biohazard waste to be disposed of at the stations?

A

ALS engine calls

Non-transport calls

Medical incidents at Stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When are the biohazardous waste containers collected and by whom?

A

On a predetermined schedule assigned by the EMS Division

By a licensed disposer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the specifics on the sharps containers?

A

Closable

Puncture resistant

Leak proof on sides and bottoms

Labeled or color-coded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the fines if the biohazard laws are violated?

A

$10,000.00

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SFRD maintains a comprehensive occupational safety and health program based upon what?

A

Sound engineering

Education

Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When will firefighters have to wear an SCBA or SAR?

A

All phases of firefighting activity

Emergency situations with toxic or oxygen deficient atmospheres

Working in spaces where hazardous atmospheres may be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Firefighters donning SCBA shall ensure what is activated prior to entering areas that require respiratory protection?

A

PASS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When will a firefighter perform a seal check?

A

Prior to each use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Firefighters will continue to wear an SCBA until the officer in charge determines what?

A

Through monitoring that respiratory protection is no longer needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are the airline respirators located?

A

Hazmat 92, TRT 92 and Aerial apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is the airline respirator used?

A

Exterior firefighting operations

Confined space rescue

Trench rescue

Certain hazardous materials incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is worn in combination with the airline respirator?

A

Escape type SCBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the NFPA for structural firefighting gear?

A

1971

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is included with protective clothing?

A

Turnout coat

Bunker pants

Gloves

Boots

Helmet

Hood

SCBA or inline respirator if appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Procedures for Interior Structural Firefighting: Interior fires, the fire department shall ensure that:

A

At least 2 firefighters enter IDLH and remain in voice or visual contact

At least 2 firefighters located outside IDLH to serve as RIT

Use SCBA when interior structural firefighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

One of the two firefighters located outside the IDLH atmosphere may be assigned to an additional role, such as:

A

Incident commander

Safety officer

Operator of fire apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Proper assignment of firefighting activities at an interior structural fire must be determined by _____ and is dependent on the _____.

A

Incident Commander

Existing fire conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is critical of the incident commander in regards to firefighting?

A

Consideration of all worksite variables and conditions

Judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What shall not be used for direct visual contact between team members in the danger area?

A

Electronic methods of communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Firefighters wearing respiratory protection shall be trained in:

A

Proper use

Cleaning

Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When will personnel demonstrate SCBA proficiency?

A

Annual basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

New recruits will be trained on SCBA in accordance with what NFPA?

A

1404

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When do firefighters have to pass a face piece fit-test?

A

Initial and annual training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is fill station training?

A

Station 59 and TRT 92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who is allowed to fill SCBA cylinders?

A

Firefighters who have completed fill station training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When must a firefighter pass a face piece fit-test?

A

Initial training

Annually and/or when a firefighter experiences:

Significant weight change

Facial trauma

Reconstructive surgery

Major dental work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is extremely important when using respiratory protective equipment?

A

Effective face-to-face seal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When shall firefighters perform a seal check?

A

Prior to every SCBA use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When is an SCBA inspected to ensure that all respiratory protection equipment is properly operating and available for use?

A

Regular periodic inspections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When are all SCBA and spare cylinders inspected?

A

After each use and during daily apparatus checkout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SCBA units determined to be unfit for use shall be taken out of service and forwarded to

A

Station 59 for repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In the event that replacement or repair of SCBA components is necessary, how will it be performed?

A

By manufacturer’s instructions

Only by persons trained and certified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When is the SCBA cleaned?

A

After each use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What product is used for cleaning and disinfection of the SCBA?

A

Cleaning/sanitizing solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When are the Scott Carbon Fiber Cylinders hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When are the fiberglass escape cylinders hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the maximum service life of the Carbon Fiber and Fiberglass cylinders?

A

15 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Care is to be taken with the SCBA so that the means of storage does not distort or damage _____.

A

Rubber or elastomeric components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Breathing air in the SCBA cylinder shall meet the requirements of which association?

A

Compressed Gas Association G-7.1-1989 400.02

Commodity Specification For Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the minimum air quality that is for the SCBA?

A

Grade D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

SFRD shall ensure that private vendors supplying compressed breathing air provide a copy of what?

A

Most recent inspection and certification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Who and when is the purity of the air from the SFRD air compressors checked?

A

Check by competent laboratory at least annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is not to be used in open-circuit SCBA?

A

Compressed oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When does the firefighter receive a medical evaluation to determine the firefighter’s ability to wear a SCBA?

A

Time of initial hiring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The most comfortable mask shall be donned and worn _____ to assess comfort.

A

At least 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

To assess comfort, the test subject will have 4 points to determine the comfort:

A

Positioning of mask on nose

Room for eye protection

Room to talk

Positioning mask on face and cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What end of the ventilation smoke tube is broken for the SCBA fit test?

A

Both ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the chemical that is contained in the smoke tube?

A

Stannic oxychloride or equivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is the chemical of the smoke tube delivered?

A

Pressure air pump delivered at 200 milliliters per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The test conductor shall advise the test subject that the smoke can be:

A

Irritating and to keep eyes closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where is the smoke tube placed when performing the fit test?

A

12 inches from face and gradually move to within 1 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What criteria shall be used to help determine the adequacy of the respirator/mask fit?

A

Chin properly placed

Strap tension

Fit across nose

Distance from nose to chin

Tendency to slip

Self-observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the 7 types of fit-test exercises for the SCBA mask?

A

Breathe normally

Breathe deeply

Turn head side to side

Nod head up and down

Talking

Jogging in place

Breathe normally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When the SCBA test subject is turning head side to side, when does he inhale?

A

On each side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When the SCBA test subject is nodding head up and down when does he inhale?

A

Full up position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What happens if the test subject detects the irritant smoke?

A

Test has failed

Subject selects another respirator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

If the test subject exhibits difficulty breathing during the test, what is done?

A

Referred to a physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Qualitative fit testing shall be repeated immediately when the test subject has:

A

Significant weight change

Facial scaring

Dental changes

Reconstructive/cosmetic surgery

Any condition that may interfere with seal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A summary of all test results shall be maintained for a period of not less than _____.

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The summary of the fit test will include:

A

Name of test subject

Date of testing

Name of test conductor

Respirators selected(manufacturer, model, size, number)

Testing agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Firefighters should leave the IDLH prior to what?

A

Activation of low air alarm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What will indicate that the user is consuming their reserve air supply?

A

Activation of low air alarm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does evidence show when firefighters call for help?

A

When they have consumed their reserve air supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is commonplace at a fire scene?

A

Sounding of multiple alarms (both PASS and low air)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In the event of alarm activation, members are required to provide immediate notification to whom?

A

Their officer, then command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What should the air pressure on the SCBA be prior to entry into an IDLH?

A

90% (4050 psi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When should a member check or monitor their air consumption and pressure?

A

Regular time intervals (approx. 5 mins)

10 minute CAD notification from dispatch

Change of work area (floor level)

Passing major landmark within the structure

Completion of assignment

As situation dictates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What light will activate when the heads-up-display shows 50%?

A

Amber light flashing slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When the first member of any crew has their 50% heads-up-display activate, the officer shall notify whom?

A

Proper ICS function (ICS, division)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

By the Officer notifying command that they have a member at 50%, the Commander is allowed to what?

A

Pre-plan for replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is of the utmost importance so that egress from the IDLH area occurs prior to activation of the low air alarm and consumption of your reserve air supply?

A

Managing your air level and request for relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

If a low air alarm activates in the IDLH environment, it calls for an immediate radio transmission to command specifying _____.

A

Who you are 400.02

Where you are

What your status is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When will the RIT Leader notify command of the firefighters in the IDLH with a low air alarm activated?

A

Not exited within one minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

With crews of three or more members, the member in low air alarm should be moved to which position?

A

Second position from the front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What day is deemed “Air Fill Day”?

A

Wednesday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the maximum capacity of the SCBA cylinders?

A

4500 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Where will station 39 fill air bottles?

A

Station 59

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where will station 72 fill air bottles?

A

Station 59

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where will station 83 fill air bottles?

A

Station 92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

To prevent hot filling of SCBA bottles, they should be filled at a rate of what?

A

300 psi to 500 psi per minute

Not to exceed 600 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How are SCBA bottles stored in the apparatus?

A

Designated and secured locations

Not to be stored loose on shelving or within compartments unsecured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When are goggles supposed to be worn

A

When the SCBA mask is not worn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Who determines the level of protective clothing during an overhaul operation?

A

Incident Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When operating what equipment will require a firefighter to wear full protective equipment?

A

Forcible entry tools

Saws

Extrication equipment

Gas-powered tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What must firefighters wear for visibility to oncoming traffic?

A

Full bunker gear 400.03

Rain gear

Safety vests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is utilized at any time when the need for eye protective seems apparent?

A

Face shields

Safety goggles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Who is responsible for making sure students and riders utilize safety vests?

A

Persons in charge of units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Where is bunker gear not allowed to be stored on the rescue unit?

A

Patient compartment

Compartment with oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the purpose of the Protective Clothing Bags?

A

Protect personnel from contaminates

Safely transport protective clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How can ventilating protective clothing during periods of non-use be accomplished?

A

Hanging gear on the racks provided at stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the Employee Assistance Program?

A

Professionally run benefit

Both voluntary and confidential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Who is the EAP available to?

A

All employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the primary function of the Employee Assistance Program?

A

Assist people who need help with their personal issues as well as work/life support issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

When would another person besides the employee be entitled to the information about the employee that came from the EAP?

A

Employee gives express written consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How many free sessions of EAP does each employee have?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

After 6 visits, how does the employee pay for the EAP visits?

A

Health insurance or own resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What do regularly scheduled station inspections provide?

A

Identify needed resources

Alleviate problems

Insure highest level of safety is provided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Who completes monthly inspections of personnel?

A

Station Commanders

During shift change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What items are checked for monthly inspections?

A

Grooming and uniform compliance

PPE

Driver’s license

EMT/Paramedic

CPR/ACLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Who does the monthly inspection of the Captains?

A

Battalion Chief

104
Q

Problems noted during inspections will be documented and immediately forwarded to whom?

A

Fire Chief via chain of command

105
Q

The quarterly inspections of all stations will be completed by whom?

A

Fire Chief and/or designated staff

106
Q

What is the emphasis of the quarterly inspections?

A

Environmental and safety conditions

Cleanliness of stations

Readiness and cleanliness of vehicles

107
Q

What do the quarterly inspections include?

A

Station and vehicles

Administrative Bulletins

Vehicle and station work orders

Station supplies

City identification inventory tags

108
Q

Who is required to meet the requirements of the Hazardous Communication Standard?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

109
Q

What is the standard for the Hazardous Communication Standard?

A

29 CFR 1910.1200

110
Q

Where are the Material Safety Data Sheet posted?

A

Obvious locations where employees are free to review

111
Q

When is “right to know” training?

A

Annually for those who use or come into contact with chemicals

112
Q

What is the traffic pre-emption program designed to do?

A

Enhance safety when responding

Assisting in reduction of response times

113
Q

What equipment is utilized for the traffic pre-emption program?

A

Vehicle mounted low power radio transmitters

GPS locators

This is the equipment the satellites “see”

114
Q

What do the radio transmitters communicate with?

A

Traffic signal boxes at each intersection

115
Q

What equipment does the second phase of the traffic pre-emption program consist of?

A

Station re-radiators

Emitter position in the bay that “sees” apparatus

Re-radiating antenna on roof of station

116
Q

How is the traffic pre-emption system disabled?

A

Vehicle driver opens driver’s door

117
Q

How is the traffic pre-emption system reactivated?

A

Pressing on/off button twice

118
Q

Who provides periodic quality assurance documents to the department in regards to the traffic pre-emption?

A

Broward County Traffic Engineering

Via computerized audit trail

119
Q

When should units stage at a scene?

A

If violence has occurred or is likely to occur

120
Q

What should be considered a red flag for more violence?

A

Shooting, stabbing or fighting

121
Q

What calls should be closely evaluated for potential violence?

A

Man down 400.09

Suicide

Overdose

122
Q

Which type of call will receive automatic PD dispatch?

A

Gang violence

123
Q

Where should responding units stage at violent incidents?

A

Out of sight of the incident

124
Q

While the unit is in staging at a violent incident, they should:

A

urn off emergency warning lights and audible devices

125
Q

What is a good divider between firefighters and the crowd and provides a control line for PD to enforce?

A

Fire line tape

126
Q

What is the primary responsibility of police at the scene of a fire department emergency?

A

Secure traffic and crowds

127
Q

Where should firefighters look for weapons?

A

Between car seats

Waistbands

Jackets

Loose clothing

128
Q

What are the types of weapons?

A

Common

Makeshift

129
Q

What are common weapon types?

A

Guns, knives

130
Q

What are makeshift weapon types?

A

Anything that wasn’t designed to be a weapon

131
Q

When should sirens be turned off at the scene of violence?

A

Several blocks away

132
Q

Where should the vehicle be spotted at the scene of violence?

A

100 feet past or before

133
Q

The contact person at the scene of violence should stand on what side of the door?

A

Doorknob side

134
Q

ow is the apparatus spotted behind a vehicle?

A

Rear, full length from vehicle

Slight angle to driver’s side

135
Q

If you suspect violence, stand at what angle from the patient?

A

Partial right angle to the patient

136
Q

The SFRD recognizes the need for an Incident Safety Officer on which type of incidents?

A

Multi-unit and special operations

137
Q

What is the NFPA for Incident Safety Officer?

A

1521

138
Q

When does the Incident Commander establish an Incident Safety Officer?

A

As soon as possible

139
Q

Who has the final authority on all recommendations and decisions on a scene?

A

Incident Commander

140
Q

Can an engine be assigned as the safety officer?

A

Yes, Safety Company

Officer as the Incident Safety Officer

Crew assigned other duties

141
Q

What other duties can the crew have if the engine company has been assigned as the Safety Company?

A

Battalion Aide

Accountability

Assistant safety officer, etc.

142
Q

What is the training for the Incident Safety Officer?

A

Company Officer level or above

Documented training from Training Division

143
Q

Who determines the training criteria of the Incident Safety Officer?

A

Fire Chief

144
Q

The Incident Safety Officer shall continuously update the IC regarding what?

A

Conditions

Hazards

Risks

145
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring a medical rehabilitation is established?

A

Incident Safety Officer

146
Q

Who arranges for appropriate medical treatment when personnel becomes injured, ill, or exposed?

A

Incident Safety Officer

147
Q

Is the Incident Safety Officer allowed to assign personnel?

A

Not until consulted

148
Q

What are limited access roadways?

A

Interstate highway

US highway

State Route

County Road with limited access

149
Q

Agencies with specific responsibilities on the scene of an emergency operation on a limited access highway are known as what?

A

Responsible agencies

150
Q

What agencies might be contacted on a limited access roadway to provide resources to mitigate the scene or restore traffic flow?

A

Florida Department of Transportation (FDOT)

Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP)

Department of Environmental Resource Management (DERM)

Private contractors

Towing companies

Public safety agencies

151
Q

When an incident involves injured persons and/or hazardous materials, the Incident Commander shall be from where?

A

Fire Department

152
Q

When the injured persons have been treated and the exposure of hazardous materials is no longer a threat to public, who is the scene turned over to?

A

Law enforcement with jurisdictional responsibility

153
Q

When should law enforcement provide traffic control?

A

If FD is working in travel lanes

154
Q

What is the responsibility of law enforcement on the scenes of limited access roadways?

A

Traffic flow

Scene control/security

Investigation

155
Q

What is the responsibility of the Fire Department on the scene of limited access roadways?

A

Scene safety

Medical treatment

Hazardous materials

156
Q

A request for an escort or traffic assistance to expedite emergency response should be directed to whom?

A

Shift Commander

157
Q

When will units proceed to the accident in the opposite direction of normal traffic flow?

A

At request of law enforcement

only when it is confirmed that all traffic is stopped

158
Q

If an incident happens on a County Road, who is requested?

A

Appropriate agency will be contacted

159
Q

If an incident happens on a State Road, who is requested?

A

FHP will contact FDOT

160
Q

If an incident happens on the Turnpike, who is requested?

A

FHP will contact FDOT

161
Q

Why are multiple engine companies dispatched from different stations on limited access roadways?

A

Provide additional manpower and scene safety

162
Q

The second arriving engine company to a limited access roadway will do what?

A

Provide traffic control and be used as a shield

163
Q

What will the crew of the second arriving engine company on a limited access roadway incident do?

A

Remain uncommitted and aware of oncoming traffic

164
Q

As soon as law enforcement starts to control traffic flow, what does the fire department do?

A

Reposition or remove from travel lanes to resume normal traffic flow

165
Q

Where should later arriving units park on a limited access roadway?

A

In front of the incident

As close as can be done safely in the same lane

This provides for a safety zone

166
Q

Once emergency activities are ceased on a limited access roadway, the incident commander should give highest priority to what?

A

Restoring normal traffic flow

167
Q

How can the fire department help restore normal traffic flow?

A

Assisting towing companies

Assisting environmental agencies

Assisting law enforcement investigations

168
Q

Critique findings should be presented to the Freeway Management Team on which type of incidents?

A

Large scale scenes

Incidents that presented unusual challenges

169
Q

What does ISSOG stand for?

A

Incident Scene Safety Operating Guidelines

170
Q

The ISSOG does not supersede any _____.

A

Hazardous Materials Response Safety Operating Guidelines

171
Q

What is the mandated document for response to hazardous material incidents throughout the State of Florida?

A

OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120

172
Q

Which apparatus will have carbon monoxide (CO) gas monitors placed on them?

A

All in service front line apparatus

173
Q

What incidents will the carbon monoxide (CO) monitors be used?

A

Fire scenes

174
Q

When will the CO monitors be used at a fire scene?

A

Interior salvage and overhaul

Environment where CO could be produced

175
Q

Where is the CO monitor worn?

A

An SCBA strap

Flap of the top pocket of the bunker coat

176
Q

Prior to entering any environment where CO may be present, what should be done with the CO monitor?

A

Shall be activated and allowed to enter gas reading mode

Check battery status

177
Q

What are the alarms for the CO monitor?

A

Visual

Audible

Vibrating

178
Q

When will the CO monitors alarms activate?

A

When CO reaches low of 35 ppm and high of 70 ppm

179
Q

If the low level alarm on the CO monitor activates, what happens?

A

Personnel shall exit the area

180
Q

If personnel must enter an environment with an SCBA, what must be in place?

A

Accountability and RIT

181
Q

What is done daily with the CO monitors?

A

Turned on daily

Allowed to warm up and enter the gas reading mode

182
Q

How many batteries does the CO monitor have?

A

A single “AA” alkaline battery

183
Q

The battery is low on the CO monitor if this happens:

A

Indicated by the icon and single beep every 30 seconds

184
Q

CO monitors that are damaged, dropped, or submerged shall be red tagged and turned into whom?

A

Logistics Division

185
Q

Who oversees the periodic function test of the CO monitors?

A

Operations Division Chief

186
Q

How often is the CO monitor’s function test?

A

Every 6 months

Have the battery changed at the same time

187
Q

Any questions or concerns with the CO monitor should be directed to whom?

A

Training Division

188
Q

What is the emergency alert feature used for?

A

Perilous situations not covered by Mayday

189
Q

How many digits is the individual ID number on the portable radio?

A

6

190
Q

Who ensures that the portable radio is in the correct position and being used by the person assigned to that position?

A

Station Commander

191
Q

To activate the EAB, the operator must do what?

A

Depress and hold down the EAB for approximately 2 seconds

192
Q

How will the user know the EAB button has been depressed and activated?

A

It will rapidly beep

193
Q

When the EAB is activated, an audible alert is transmitted to whom?

A

Dispatch console

194
Q

What will the user’s radio display in the LCD screen?

A

“EMERGENCY”

195
Q

How are EAB signals sent?

A

Maximum power and maximum volume

196
Q

How is the EAB reset?

A

Depress EAB and hold for approximately 2 seconds until reset tone is heard

Or turn radio off and then back on

197
Q

If the EAB is depressed and not acknowledged, what does the user do?

A

Briefly depress the emergency button again

198
Q

What color is the EAB?

A

Orange

199
Q

What will the dispatcher ask if the EAB has been depressed?

A

Is everything 10-24

200
Q

What is the appropriate response to the dispatcher if the EAB has been depressed and there is an actual emergency?

A

Repeat back 10-24

201
Q

What is the appropriate response to the dispatcher if the EAB has been depressed and it is an accident?

A

Advised in plain English that no emergency exists

202
Q

If a unit responds 10-24 or there is no response to the dispatchers query about the EAB being depressed, then the following will occur:

A

Police code 3 to incident

Shift Commander notified on separate channel

Full station assignment dispatched on separate channel

Shift commander will monitor both channels

Staff all call

203
Q

What will the Fire Dispatch advise the Shift Commander and Police department if the EAB is activated and it is an actual emergency?

A

Type of call the unit was dispatched to

Pertinent information leading to the emergency

Will advise on a different channel or landline

204
Q

If the EAB is depressed and the response dictates that the Police Department should be the first to arrive, what does the Shift Commander decide?

A

If the full station assignment shall use lights and sirens and where to stage

205
Q

If the EAB is depressed and the response dictates that the Fire Department should be the first to arrive, what does the Shift Commander decide?

A

If and when it is safe for PD to enter

206
Q

Where is a portable radio in need of service taken?

A

To on-duty Battalion Chief

207
Q

What does the six digit ID for spare radios read?

A

Spare

208
Q

What is one of the keys to implementing a successful Exposure Control Plan?

A

Identify exposure situations employees may encounter

209
Q

The initial lists of job classifications and tasks and procedures that may be exposed was compiled when?

A

On or before May 5, 1992

210
Q

The EMS Division will work with _____ to revise and update these lists of tasks, procedures, and classifications as necessary.

A

Department managers and supervisors

211
Q

Which employees have potential exposures to bloodborne pathogens?

A

All employees FF to Fire Chief

212
Q

Which non-emergency procedures can cause a bloodborne exposure?

A

Decontamination procedures 401.01

Engineering control procedures

General housekeeping procedures

Transportation of biohazardous waste

213
Q

Which State Statute requires receiving emergency departments to notify EMS agency Designated Officers within 48 hours of determining a patient transported to the ED has an infectious disease?

A

395.1025

214
Q

Who will have access to records containing HIV test results?

A

No persons, except authorized by the Department of Health

215
Q

The identity of HIV test subjects and test results may be disclosed only under specific circumstances as described in which Statute?

A

381.004

Legal “need to know”

216
Q

In accordance with Florida Statute 381.004 and Rule 64D-2, HIV test results may be provided to medical personnel who experience a significant exposure while providing emergency assistance after _____.

A

The significant exposure has occurred

217
Q

Informed consent of the HIV test shall be preceded by an explanation of what?

A

The test

Its purpose

Potential uses

And limitations

218
Q

A virus cannot act without being attached to what?

A

Another cell

219
Q

Once a virus is attached to another cell, what happens?

A

hey direct the activity of that cell

220
Q

What must happen for an illness to occur?

A

Blood or body fluid containing virus

Opening to inner part of body

Means of getting virus inside opening

Large enough amount of virus

Defense system that does not have immunity

221
Q

What is the most efficient route of transmission of an infectious disease?

A

Directly from the infected person

Not through intermediary (third person’s hands)

Hands and cloths not efficient means of transfer

222
Q

What is the primary deterrent for transmitting infectious disease?

A

Hand washing

223
Q

The level of protective precautions taken by department personnel should be based on what?

A

Patient evaluation and good judgement

224
Q

What are the two exposure levels firefighters may face when treating a patient?

A

Non-significant

Significant

225
Q

Why would the severity of the exposure be upgraded?

A

If unable to wash or clean the affected area in a timely manner

226
Q

A significant bloodborne exposure is a combination of what?

A

One or more types of body fluids

One or more injuries

227
Q

A significant bloodborne exposure requires what?

A

Immediate medical evaluation

228
Q

What are the actions or injury that can cause exposure to bloodborne pathogens?

A

Percutaneous (through skin)

Mucous membranes

Non-intact skin

229
Q

Where can mucous membranes be found?

A

Eyes, nose, mouth

230
Q

An increased risk of exposure will happen if within _____ of shaving and _____ of scabs.

A

Within 2 hours of shaving and

Scabs <24 hours

231
Q

What should be referenced for prevention and immunization practices?

A

Florida Regional Common EMS Protocols General Protocol’s section 6.12

232
Q

For a non-significant exposure, what paperwork must be completed?

A

Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form

233
Q

For a significant exposure, what paperwork must be completed?

A

Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form

First Report of Injury or Illness

Supervisor Accident/Injury

Employee Incident (FD30)

Sunrise EMS Report

Worker’s Compensation Report from Employee (section 2)

Employer Section: completed by employee

Physician Section: completed by physician

234
Q

What form is supposed to be filled out first when a significant exposure happens?

A

Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form

235
Q

Who does the Department work in conjunction with regarding issues of Workers’ Compensation and on the job injuries?

A

City’s third party administrators (TPA)

Risk Management Department

236
Q

Who must be notified on any incident involving an injury, significant exposure, or illness from the incident?

A

Station Officer

Shift Battalion Chief

Duty Chief

237
Q

What documents must be completed for injury reporting?

A

First report of injury or illness employee section

Employee workers’ compensation report

Employer section

Physician section

Patient care report

Supervisor’s report accident/injury

Incident report in RMS

Casualty report for all injuries included in RMS

FD30 Incident Report

238
Q

What is the FD30 Incident Report used for?

A

Staff follow up

239
Q

Call in Report of Injury to Risk Management at what number?

A

954-572-2497

240
Q

What message is left on the Risk Management voicemail?

A

Details of injury

Name of injured

Where injured was treated

Phone number of employee

Supervisor’s name

241
Q

What documents should be emailed to Risk Management after completing the phone notification?

A

First Report of Injury or Illness

Supervisor Report Accident/Injury

242
Q

What is the email address for risk management?

A

riskmanagement@sunrisefl.gov

243
Q

If the employee is incapacitated or, for whatever reason, cannot sign the form, what is done?

A

Write “unavailable” on the line for employee’s signature

244
Q

If there is no injury or illness resulting from an accident and it is unlikely that future injury or illness will occur as a result of the incident, the only reports that are necessary are what?

A

Supervisor’s Report Accident/Injury

FD30

245
Q

Who must be notified in order to arrange medical treatment, in the absence of an emergency?

A

Battalion Chief or greater

246
Q

What time is Risk Management open?

A

9am to 5pm, Monday thru Friday

247
Q

What type of envelope is used to return any workers’ compensation forms?

A

“Special Attention”

Red envelope

248
Q

All vehicles shall be inspected during vehicle checkout for any what?

A

Damage or condition that may cause unsafe operations

249
Q

If damage is found on a vehicle and the cause is unknown, what is the procedure?

A

Immediately report to Station Officer and on duty Battalion Chief

Inspected by member of garage if can’t determine the safety of vehicle

Taken out of service if unable to determine safety

Complete Vehicle Incident Report, copy in vehicle folder

Enter work order into Electronic Work Order Portal

250
Q

What information should be indicated on the Vehicle Incident Report?

A

Vehicle number

Extent of damage

Personnel involved

Time found

Brief description

Additional actions taken

251
Q

The original Vehicle Incident Report should be forwarded to whom?

A

Logistics Division

252
Q

What is the procedure for a vehicle accident (non-injury)?

A

Notify Station officer and Battalion Chief

Police Department notified for report

Vehicle Incident Report completed and forwarded

Electronic work order

Supervisors Investigating Report

Taken to city garage for evaluation and photos

Battalion Chief shall notify Risk Management

253
Q

If the garage is not open, who determines if the vehicle shall stay in service?

A

Company officer

254
Q

What is the procedure for a vehicle accident (with injuries)?

A

Medical protocol first

Notify Station officer, Battalion Chief, call Duty Chief and Fire Chief

Police Department notified

Vehicle Incident Report completed and forwarded

Taken to city garage for evaluation and photos

Battalion Chief shall notify Risk Management

255
Q

During a vehicle accident (with injuries), who has a workers’ compensation paperwork written on them?

A

All personnel that are suspected of being injured

Capt. Exam (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions